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CUET 2023 Chemistry Answer Key and Question Paper with Solutions PDF

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CUET 2023 Chemistry

CUET 2023 Chemistry Questions with Solutions


Question 1:

In case of phosphorus, PCl\(_{3}\) and PCl\(_{5}\) are possible while nitrogen only forms NCl\(_{3}\) and not NCl\(_{5}\). This is due to:

(1) Nitrogen is a gas while phosphorus is a solid at room temperature.

(2) Nitrogen does not have vacant d-orbitals in its atom while phosphorus has vacant d-orbitals.

(3) The electronegativity of nitrogen is higher than that of phosphorus.

(4) The atom of nitrogen is smaller in size than phosphorus.


Question 2:

The standard reduction potential for Sn\(^{4+}\)/Sn\(^{2+}\) is +0.15 V and for Cr\(^{3+}\)/Cr is -0.74 V. These two half-cells, coupled in their standard states, are connected to make a cell. The galvanic cell can be correctly represented by:

(1) Sn\(^{2+}\)(aq) | Sn\(^{4+}\)(aq) || Cr\(^{3+}\)(aq) | Cr(s)

(2) Sn\(^{4+}\)(aq) | Sn\(^{2+}\)(aq) || Cr\(^{3+}\)(aq) | Cr(s)

(3) Cr(s) | Cr\(^{3+}\)(aq) || Sn\(^{4+}\)(aq) | Sn\(^{2+}\)(aq)

(4) Cr(s) | Cr\(^{3+}\)(aq) | Sn\(^{2+}\)(aq) || Sn\(^{4+}\)(aq)


Question 3:

Ammonia is manufactured by: \[ N_2(g) + 3H_2(g) \rightleftharpoons 2NH_3(g) \quad \Delta H_f^\circ = -46.1 \, kJ/mol \]

The various steps involved are:

(A) Condensation of mixture of gases

(B) Passing the gaseous mixture over catalyst

(C) Compression of the mixture of gases

(D) Recirculation of the gaseous mixture


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (C), (B), (A), (D)

(2) (B), (C), (D), (A)

(3) (A), (D), (C), (B)

(4) (B), (A), (D), (C)


Question 4:

Match List - I with List - II.


List - I  K_H values/K bar  List - II

(A) 145                                             (I) CO\(_2\)

(B) 89                                               (II) He

(C) 76.5                                             (III) N\(_2\) (at 293 K)

(D) 1.67                                            (IV) N\(_2\) (at 303 K)


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(1) (A)-(II), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)

(2) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)

(3) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)

(4) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)


Question 5:

The correct IUPAC name of CH\(_3\)-CH-CH\(_2\)-Br is:
CH\(_3\)-CH-CH\(_2\)-Br
C\(_2\)H\(_5\)


(1) 1-Bromo-2-methylbutane

(2) 1-Bromo-2-ethylpropane

(3) 1-Bromo-2-ethyl-2-methyl ethane

(4) 2-Methyl-1-bromobutane


Question 6:

The quantity of charge required to obtain 2 mol of Mn\(^{2+}\) from MnO\(_4^{-}\) is:

(1) 2 F

(2) 10 F

(3) 5 F

(4) 1 F


Question 7:

Which of the following reactions will not produce ketones?

(1) Hydration of alkynes

(2) Ozonolysis of substituted alkenes

(3) Treating nitrite with a Grignard reagent

(4) Stephen's reaction


Question 8:

Basic hydrolysis of esters produces:

(1) Carboxylates

(2) Carboxylic acids

(3) Aldehydes

(4) Ketones


Question 9:

Chemical formula of laughing gas is:

(1) NO

(2) N\(_2\)O

(3) N\(_2\)O\(_3\)

(4) N\(_2\)O\(_4\)


Question 10:

In amines, the nitrogen atom is A and B hybridised, making geometry of amines as C. Then A, B, and C respectively are:

(1) trivalent, sp\(^2\), trigonal

(2) tetravalent, sp\(^3\), tetrahedral

(3) trivalent, sp\(^3\), pyramidal

(4) tetravalent, sp\(^2\), pyramidal


Question 11:

The minimum concentration of an electrolyte in millimoles per litre which is required to cause the precipitation of a sol in two hours is called as:

(1) Coagulating value

(2) Gold number

(3) Congorobin number

(4) Flocculation


Question 12:

Which alloy is used for making bullets and lighter flints?

(1) Shell metal

(2) Misch metal

(3) Gun metal

(4) Monel metal


Question 13:

Acetaldehyde and benzaldehyde can be best distinguished by:

(1) 2,4 DNP test

(2) Tollens' test

(3) Sodium bicarbonate test

(4) Fehling's test


Question 14:

Aspartame is the most successful artificial sweetener but is only limited to cold food and cold drinks because:

(1) The control of sweetness of food is difficult

(2) Too many calories are released at high temperature

(3) Releases acetic acid when not in cold medium

(4) Unstable at cooking temperature


Question 15:

In the cyanide extraction process of silver, the oxidising and reducing agents used are:

(1) O\(_2\) and CO respectively

(2) O\(_2\) and Zn dust respectively

(3) H\(_2\)O and Zn dust respectively

(4) H\(_2\)O and NaCN respectively


Question 16:

The appropriate reagent for the following conversion is:

 


(1) SO\(_2\)Cl\(_2\)

(2) N-Chlorosuccinimide

(3) Cl\(_2\)/FeCl\(_3\)

(4) SOCl\(_2\)


Question 17:

Identify 'X' along with the oxidation state of the halogen in the given reaction:
\[ 3Cl_2 + 6NaOH \rightarrow 5NaCl + X + 3H_2O \quad (hot and conc.) \]

(1) NaClO\(_2\), +3

(2) NaClO\(_3\), +5

(3) NaClO\(_2\), +7

(4) NaClO\(_3\), +1


Question 18:

Match List - I with List - II.

           List - I              List - II

 

  • (A) Electrolytic reduction  (I) Iron
  • (B) Bessemerization         (II) Zinc
  • (C) Smelting                      (III) Aluminium
  • (D) Reduction from oxide (IV) Copper
    \hline \end{tabular} Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
    (2) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
    (3) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
    (4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)

Question 19:

The half-life of a first-order reaction is 25 minutes. Its rate constant is:

(1) \( 2.27 \times 10^{-2} \, min^{-1} \)

(2) \( 3.2 \times 10^{-3} \, min^{-1} \)

(3) \( 9.2 \times 10^{-2} \, min^{-1} \)

(4) \( 2.8 \times 10^{-2} \, min^{-1} \)


Question 20:

The oxoacid of sulphur which has a lone pair of electrons on the sulphur atom is:

(1) H\(_2\)SO\(_4\)

(2) H\(_2\)SO\(_3\)

(3) H\(_2\)S\(_2\)O\(_8\)

(4) H\(_2\)S\(_2\)O\(_7\)


Question 21:

A drop of solution (Volume 0.05 mL) contains \( 3.0 \times 10^{-6} \) moles of H\(^+\) ions. If the rate constant of disappearance of H\(^+\) is \( 1.0 \times 10^{-7} \, mol litre^{-1} sec^{-1} \), how long will it take for H\(^+\) ions to disappear?

(1) \( 6 \times 10^{-8} \, s \)

(2) \( 6 \times 10^{-9} \, s \)

(3) \( 6 \times 10^{-7} \, s \)

(4) \( 6 \times 10^{-10} \, s \)


Question 22:

The vapor pressure curve of the mixture of ethanol and acetone is higher than its constituents because:

(1) Weakening of interactions between molecules takes place

(2) Strengthening of interactions between molecules takes place

(3) New hydrogen bonds are formed

(4) Molecules are not able to escape from the solution


Question 23:

Which of the following is not an expression of Dalton's law of partial pressures?

(1) \( P = P_1 + P_2 \)

(2) \( P = P^\circ x_1 \)

(3) \( P = P^\circ_1 + (P^\circ_2 - P^\circ_1) x_2 \)

(4) \( P_1 = P - P_2 \)


Question 24:

A compound forms a hexagonal closed packed structure. What is the number of tetrahedral voids in 0.8 mol of it?

(1) \( 1.5055 \times 10^{23} \)

(2) \( 2.4088 \times 10^{23} \)

(3) \( 9.635 \times 10^{23} \)

(4) \( 3.011 \times 10^{23} \)


Question 25:

Which of the following electrolytes will have maximum coagulating value for AgI/Ag\(^+\) sol?

(1) Na\(_2\)S

(2) Na\(_3\)PO\(_4\)

(3) Na\(_2\)SO\(_4\)

(4) NaCl


Question 26:

An alkyl halide with molecular formula C\(_5\)H\(_11\)Br on dehydrohalogenation gives two isomeric alkenes X and Y with formula C\(_5\)H\(_10\). On reductive ozonolysis, X and Y give four compounds CH\(_3\)CHO, (CH\(_3\))\(_2\)CHO, CH\(_3\)CO, HCHO. The alkyl halide is:

(1) 3-Bromopentane

(2) 2-Bromo-3-methylbutane

(3) 2-Bromo-2-methylbutane

(4) 1-Bromo-2,2-dimethylpropane


Question 27:

Glucose does not react with:

(1) Conc. HNO₃

(2) Acetic Anhydride

(3) Hydroxylamine

(4) Sodium bisulphite


Question 28:

Which of the following statements is not correct?

(1) La is an element of transition series rather than Lanthanoid series

(2) La(OH)₃ is less basic than Lu(OH)₃

(3) In Lanthanoid series, ionic radius of Ln³⁺ ion decreases

(4) Atomic radii of Zr and Hf are same because of Lanthanoid contraction


Question 29:

Positive carbylamine test is shown by:

(1) N-Methylaniline

(2) N,N-Dimethlaniline

(3) Triethylamine

(4) p-Methylbenzyamine


Question 30:

Which of the following statement is correct about catalyst?

(1) Catalyst is required in large quantities to catalyse reactions.

(2) Same reactants may give different products by using different catalysts.

(3) Catalytic activity of catalyst does not depend upon the strength of chemisorption.

(4) A catalyst does not remain the same before and after the reaction.


Question 31:

The hormone which controls the processes of burning of fats, proteins, and carbohydrates, with liberation of energy in the body is:

(1) thyroxine

(2) insulin

(3) adrenaline

(4) estradiol


Question 32:

C\(_3\)H\(_6\)O does not form a silver mirror with Tollen’s reagent but forms an oxime with hydroxylamine. It can give positive:

(1) Iodoform test

(2) Fehling’s test

(3) Schiff’s test

(4) Carbylamine test


Question 33:

Arrange the following amines in the order of decreasing basic character in gaseous phase:

(A) NH₃

(B) (CH₃)₃N

(C) (CH₃)₂NH

(D) CH₃NH₂


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (CH₃)NH₂, (CH₃)₂NH, (CH₃)₃N, NH₃

(2) (CH₃)₃N, (CH₃)₂NH, CH₃NH₂, NH₃

(3) (CH₃)₂NH, (CH₃)₃N, CH₃NH₂, NH₃

(4) (CH₃)₃N, (CH₃)₂NH, (CH₃)NH₂, NH₃


Question 34:

Which of the following is not correct about the order of a reaction?

(1) The order of a reaction is the sum of the powers of molar concentration of the reactants in the rate law expression.

(2) The order of reaction is always equal to the sum of the stoichiometric coefficient of reactants in the balanced chemical equation of a reaction.

(3) The order of a reaction can be a fractional number.

(4) Order of a reaction is an experimentally determined quantity.


Question 35:

D(+)-Glucose reacts with hydroxylamine and forms oxime. The structure of oxime would be:

(1)




(2)




(3)




(4)


Question 36:

The cell reaction occurring at anode in the electrolysis of aqueous NaCl solution is:

(1) \[ H^+ (aq) + e^- \rightarrow \frac{1}{2} H_2(g), E^\circ_cell = 0.00 V \]

(2) \[ Cl^- (aq) \rightarrow \frac{1}{2} Cl_2(g) + e^-, E^\circ_cell = 1.36 V \]

(3) \[ Na^+ (aq) + e^- \rightarrow Na(s), E^\circ_cell = -2.71 V \]

(4) \[ 2 H_2O(l) \rightarrow O_2(g) + 4 H^+(aq) + 4e^-, E^\circ_cell = -1.23 V \]


Question 37:

In Freundlich adsorption isotherm, the value of \( \frac{1}{n} \) is:

(1) 1 in case of chemisorption

(2) 1 in case of physisorption

(3) between 0 and 1 in all cases

(4) between 2 and 4 in all cases


Question 38:

Amongst the following, identify the condensation polymer/s:

(A) Bakelite

(B) Teflon

(C) Melamine formaldehyde resin

(D) Nylon-2 nylon-6

(E) Buna-S


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (B) and (E) only

(2) (A), (C), and (D) only

(3) (C) and (D) only

(4) (A), (B), and (E) only


Question 39:

Match List - I with List - II


List - I                           List - II


(A) Fuel Cell          (I) Rechargeable

(B) Mercury Cell    (II) Reaction at anode, \( Zn \rightarrow Zn^{2+} + 2e^- \)

(C) Leclanché Cell (III) Cell reaction \( 2H_2 + O_2 \rightarrow 2H_2O \)

(D) Ni-Cd Cell         (IV) Gives steady potential


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(1) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)

(2) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)

(3) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

(4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)


Question 40:

Which of the following defects are shown by KCl crystal?

(A) Schottky defect

(B) Frenkel defect

(C) Metal excess defect

(D) Metal deficiency defect


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) and (B) only

(2) (A) and (C) only

(3) (B) and (C) only

(4) (B) and (D) only


Question 41:

Answer the question on the basis of the passage given below:

Transition metals form a large number of complexes or coordination compounds in which the metal atoms are bound to a number of anions or neutral molecules. The valence bond theory explains the formation, magnetic behaviour, and geometrical shapes, while the crystal field theory explains the effect of different crystal fields on the degeneracy of \( d \)-orbitals and the energies of the central metal atom/ion. This provides for the quantitative estimation of orbital separation energies, magnetic moments, and spectral and stability parameters.


Two complexes of nickel have the same geometry but different magnetic behaviour are:

(A) \( [Ni(CN)_4]^{2-} \)

(B) \( [Ni(CO)_4] \)

(C) \( [NiCl_4]^{2-} \)

(D) \( [Ni(NH_3)_6]^{2+} \)


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) and (B) only

(2) (B) and (D) only

(3) (C) and (D) only

(4) (A) and (D) only


Question 42:

Answer the question on the basis of the passage given below:

Transition metals form a large number of complexes or coordination compounds in which the metal atoms are bound to a number of anions or neutral molecules. The valence bond theory explains the formation, magnetic behavior, and geometrical shapes, while the crystal field theory explains the effect of different crystal fields on the degeneracy of \( d \)-orbitals energies of the central metal atom/ion. This provides for the quantitative estimation of orbital separation energies, magnetic moments, and spectral and stability parameters.


Which of the following complexes are not correctly matched with the hybridisation of their central metal ion?

(1) \( [Ni(H_2O)_6]^{2+} \) - \( sp^3d^2 \)

(2) \( [CoF_6]^{3-} \) - \( sp^3d^2 \)

(3) \( [Cu(NH_3)_4]^{2+} \) - \( dsp^2 \)

(4) \( [MnCl_4]^{2-} \) - \( dsp^2 \)


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (1) only

(2) (2) and (3) only

(3) (3) and (4) only

(4) (1) and (4) only


Question 43:

Answer the question on the basis of the passage given below:

Transition metals form a large number of complexes or coordination compounds in which the metal atoms are bound to a number of anions or neutral molecules. The valence bond theory explains the formation, magnetic behaviour, and geometrical shapes, while the crystal field theory explains the effect of different crystal fields on the degeneracy of \(d\)-orbitals energies of the central metal atom/ion. This provides for the quantitative estimation of orbital separation energies, magnetic moments, and spectral and stability parameters.


Amongst the following ions, which should have the highest magnetic moment value?

(1) \( [NiCl_4]^{2-} \)

(2) \( [Mn(CN)_6]^{4-} \)

(3) \( [Cr(NH_3)_6]^{3+} \)

(4) \( [CoF_6]^{3-} \)


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (1) only

(2) (2) and (3) only

(3) (1) and (4) only

(4) (3) and (4) only


Question 44:

Answer the question on the basis of the passage given below:

Transition metals form a large number of complexes or coordination compounds in which the metal atoms are bound to a number of anions or neutral molecules. The valence bond theory explains the formation, magnetic behaviour, and geometrical shapes, while the crystal field theory explains the effect of different crystal fields on the degeneracy of \(d\)-orbitals energies of the central metal atom/ion. This provides for the quantitative estimation of orbital separation energies, magnetic moments, and spectral and stability parameters.


The compound \( \left[Pt(NH_3)_2Cl_2\right] \) exhibits:

(1) Geometrical isomerism

(2) Linkage isomerism

(3) Ionisation isomerism

(4) Coordination isomerism


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (1) only

(2) (2) and (3) only

(3) (3) and (4) only

(4) (1) only


Question 45:

Answer the question on the basis of the passage given below:

Transition metals form a large number of complexes or coordination compounds in which the metal atoms are bound to a number of anions or neutral molecules. The valence bond theory explains the formation, magnetic behaviour, and geometrical shapes, while the crystal field theory explains the effect of different crystal fields on the degeneracy of \(d\)-orbitals energies of the central metal atom/ion. This provides for the quantitative estimation of orbital separation energies, magnetic moments, and spectral and stability parameters.


Match List - I (Species/ions) with List - II (Colours):

  List - I                 List - II


(A) \( Mn^{2+} \)  (I) Yellow

(B) \( Fe^{3+} \)  (II) Green

(C) \( Ni^{2+} \)   (III) Blue

(D) \( Cu^{2+} \)  (IV) Pink


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)

(2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)

(3) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)

(4) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)


Question 46:

Answer the question on the basis of the passage given below:

Alcohols and phenol are formed when a hydrogen atom in a hydrocarbon, aliphatic and aromatic respectively, is replaced by \(-OH\). The substitution of a hydrogen atom in a hydrocarbon by an alkoxy or aryloxy group forms ethers.


Alcohols and phenol consist of two parts, an alkyl/aryl group and a hydroxyl group. The properties of alcohols and phenols are primarily due to the hydroxyl group. The nature of alkyl and aryl groups simply modify these properties. Alcohol react both as nucleophiles and electrophiles whereas in phenols, the reactions that take place on the aromatic ring are electrophilic substitution reactions.


Aspirin is an acetylation product of:

(1) \( o \)-Dihydroxybenzoic acid

(2) \( o \)-Hydroxybenzoic acid

(3) \( m \)-Hydroxybenzoic acid

(4) \( p \)-Dihydroxybenzene


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (1) only

(2) (2) only

(3) (3) only

(4) (4) only


Question 47:

Answer the question on the basis of the passage given below:

Alcohols and phenols are formed when a hydrogen atom in a hydrocarbon, aliphatic and aromatic respectively, is replaced by \(-OH\). The substitution of a hydrogen atom in a hydrocarbon by an alkoxy or aryloxy group forms ethers.


Alcohols and phenol consist of two parts, an alkyl/aryl group and a hydroxyl group. The properties of alcohols and phenols are primarily due to the hydroxyl group. The nature of alkyl and aryl groups simply modify these properties. Alcohol react both as nucleophiles and electrophiles whereas in phenols, the reactions that take place on the aromatic ring are electrophilic substitution reactions.


Name the given reaction:

Reaction in question: \[ Phenol + CH_3Cl + aq.NaOH \xrightarrow{340K} Salicylaldehyde \]


Reimer-Tiemann reaction for the formation of salicylaldehyde.


(1) Williamson's synthesis

(2) Kolbe's reaction

(3) Reimer-Tiemann reaction

(4) Sandmeyer’s reaction


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (1) only

(2) (2) only

(3) (3) only

(4) (4) only


Question 48:

Answer the question on the basis of the passage given below:

Alcohols and phenol are formed when a hydrogen atom in a hydrocarbon, aliphatic and aromatic respectively, is replaced by \(-OH\). The substitution of a hydrogen atom in a hydrocarbon by an alkoxy or aryloxy group forms ethers.


Alcohols and phenol consist of two parts, an alkyl/aryl group and a hydroxyl group. The properties of alcohols and phenols are primarily due to the hydroxyl group. The nature of alkyl and aryl groups simply modify these properties. Alcohol react both as nucleophiles and electrophiles whereas in phenols, the reactions that take place on the aromatic ring are electrophilic substitution reactions.


The IUPAC name of the following compound is:




\[ CH_3 - C(OH) - C(CH_3) phenol \]

(1) 2-Methyl-2-phenyl ethanol

(2) 1-Methyl-1-phenyl ethanol

(3) 2-Phenylpropan-2-ol

(4) 1,1-Dimethyl-1-phenyl methanol


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (1) only

(2) (2) only

(3) (3) only

(4) (4) only


Question 49:

Answer the question on the basis of the passage given below:

Alcohols and phenol are formed when a hydrogen atom in a hydrocarbon, aliphatic and aromatic respectively, is replaced by \(-OH\). The substitution of a hydrogen atom in a hydrocarbon by an alkoxy or aryloxy group forms ethers.


Alcohols and phenol consist of two parts, an alkyl/aryl group and a hydroxyl group. The properties of alcohols and phenols are primarily due to the hydroxyl group. The nature of alkyl and aryl groups simply modify these properties. Alcohol react both as nucleophiles and electrophiles whereas in phenols, the reactions that take place on the aromatic ring are electrophilic substitution reactions.


Few compounds are given below (A to D). Arrange them in the increasing order of their boiling points.


(A) Pentan-1-ol

(B) n-Butane

(C) Pentan-1-al

(D) Ethoxyethane


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (D) < (B) < (C) < (A)

(2) (B) < (C) < (A) < (D)

(3) (C) < (B) < (A) < (D)

(4) (D) < (B) < (A) < (C)


Question 50:

Answer the question on the basis of the passage given below:

Alcohols and phenol are formed when a hydrogen atom in a hydrocarbon, aliphatic and aromatic respectively, is replaced by \(-OH\). The substitution of a hydrogen atom in a hydrocarbon by an alkoxy or aryloxy group forms ethers.


Alcohols and phenol consist of two parts, an alkyl/aryl group and a hydroxyl group. The properties of alcohols and phenols are primarily due to the hydroxyl group. The nature of alkyl and aryl groups simply modify these properties. Alcohol react both as nucleophiles and electrophiles whereas in phenols, the reactions that take place on the aromatic ring are electrophilic substitution reactions.


In the following reaction, compounds A and C are:
\[ CH_3CHO + CH_3MgBr \xrightarrow{(i) H_2O, (ii) H_2SO_4} \xrightarrow{Hydroboration, Oxidation} B \xrightarrow{\Delta} C \]

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) identical

(2) positional isomers

(3) functional isomers

(4) optical isomers



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