The CUET General Test exam in 2025 was conducted from 13th May to 3rd June, and the question paper, answer key, and solution PDF are available for download here. The General Test paper in CUET evaluates a student's overall aptitude through questions on general knowledge, current affairs, quantitative reasoning, numerical ability, logical reasoning, and analytical skills.

As per the revised exam pattern, students needed to attempt all 50 questions within 60 minutes, with the paper carrying a total of 250 marks. Each correct answer awards +5 marks, while every incorrect response results in a –1 mark deduction.

CUET UG General Test 2025 Question Paper with Solutions PDF

CUET UG General Test Question Paper with Solutions PDF Download PDF Check Solutions

Question 1:

If 36: 84 :: 42: X, then the value of X, is:

  • (A) 18
  • (B) 98
  • (C) 72
  • (D) 48

Question 2:

Ram purchased a watch at a cost of \( \left(\frac{9}{10}\right)^{th} \) of the original cost and sold at 8% more than the original cost. His profit/loss is

  • (A) 20% profit
  • (B) 20% loss
  • (C) 18% profit
  • (D) 18% loss

Question 3:

Arrange the simple interest of the following cases in decreasing order-

(A) The simple interest on Rs 6600 at 5% per annum for 2 yrs.
(B) The simple interest on Rs 200 at 6% per annum for 5 yrs.
(C) The simple interest on Rs 840 at 5% per annum for 4 yrs.
(D) The simple interest on Rs 5000 at 12% per annum for 2 yrs.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A), (B), (C), (D)
  • (B) (B), (A), (D), (C)
  • (C) (B), (A), (C), (D)
  • (D) (D), (A), (C), (B)

Question 4:

Four circles of equal radius are drawn with centers, A, B, C and D such that ABCD is a square of side 14 cm and the circles touch externally as in the figure. The area of the shaded region bounded by the 4 circles is: (Take \( \pi = \frac{22}{7} \))

  • (A) 24 cm\(^2\)
  • (B) 42 cm\(^2\)
  • (C) 96 cm\(^2\)
  • (D) 54 cm\(^2\)

Question 5:

The distance between points A (-5, 7) and B (-1, 3) is:

  • (A) 4 units
  • (B) 6 units
  • (C) \(4\sqrt{2}\) units
  • (D) 7 units

Question 6:

The marks out of 50 obtained by 100 students in a test are given below as:

Find the value of the (3 mode - 2 median).

  • (A) 27.5
  • (B) 31
  • (C) 30
  • (D) 28.8

Question 7:

Suppose we throw a dice once. Then, which one of the following is/are correct?

(A) The probability of getting a number greater than 4 is \( \frac{1}{3} \).
(B) The probability of getting a number greater than or equal to 4 is \( \frac{1}{3} \).
(C) The probability of getting a number less than or equal to 3 is \( \frac{1}{2} \).
(D) The probability of getting a number less than or equal to 6 is 1.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A), (B) and (D) only
  • (B) (B), (C) and (D) only
  • (C) (A), (C) and (D) only
  • (D) (A) and (D) only

Question 8:

Match List-I with List-II


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (B) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
  • (C) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
  • (D) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)

Question 9:

The present age of a father is 4 years more than double the age of his son. After 10 years, the father's age is 30 years more than his son. Then the present age of father is:

  • (A) 26 years
  • (B) 28 years
  • (C) 56 years
  • (D) 60 years

Question 10:

The angles of elevation of the top of a tower from two points at a distance of 5 meters and 20 meters along the same straight line from the base of the tower, are complementary. Find the height of the tower.

  • (A) 10 m
  • (B) 15 m
  • (C) \(10\sqrt{3}\) m
  • (D) 20 m

Question 11:

The base diameter of a cylinder is 21 cm and the height is 28 cm, then:

(A) Radius of cylinder = 10.5 cm
(B) Volume = 12936 cm\(^3\)
(C) Curved Surface Area = 1848 cm\(^2\)
(D) Total surface area = 2541 cm\(^2\)

Which of the following is/ are correct?
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A), (B) and (D) only
  • (B) (A), (C) and (D) only
  • (C) (B), (C) and (D) only
  • (D) (A), (B) and (C) only

Question 12:

P and Q can complete a job in 24 days working together. P can alone complete it in 32 days. Both of them worked together for 8 days and then P left. The number of days Q will take to complete the remaining job is:

  • (A) 26 days
  • (B) 30 days
  • (C) 64 days
  • (D) 60 days

Question 13:

A person rows a boat 10 kms along the stream in 30 minutes and returns to the starting point in 40 minutes. The speed of the stream is:

  • (A) 17.5 km/h
  • (B) 2.5 km/h
  • (C) 5 km/h
  • (D) 15 km/h

Question 14:

The unit place digit of the number \((37)^2\) is:

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 7
  • (D) 9

Question 15:

In a flower bed there are 23 rose plants in the first row, 21 in the second, 19 in the third and so on. There are 5 rose plants in the last row. Then the number of rows in the flower bed is:

  • (A) 5
  • (B) 10
  • (C) 15
  • (D) 20

Question 16:

Find the term which doesn't fit into the series given below:

H4Q, K10N, N20K, Q43H, T90E

  • (A) H4Q
  • (B) K10N
  • (C) Q43H
  • (D) T90E

Question 17:

Given figure is embedded in any one of the four option figures. Find the option figure which contains the given figure as its part.

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4

Question 18:

A clock is set right at 5 a.m. The clock loses 16 minutes in 24 hours. What will be the correct approximate time when the clock indicates 10 p.m. on 4th day?

  • (A) 11 p.m
  • (B) 9 p.m
  • (C) 11 a.m
  • (D) 11.30 p.m

Question 19:

If 1st July 2022 was Sunday, then what was the day on 1st November 2022?

  • (A) Monday
  • (B) Tuesday
  • (C) Thursday
  • (D) Friday

Question 20:

Complete the following figure matrix.

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4

Question 21:

If A + B means A is the brother of B; A * B means A is the sister of B; A # B means A is the daughter of B and A - B means A is the wife of B, then in the expression U # C - D + H + T, how is H related to U?

  • (A) Father
  • (B) Uncle
  • (C) Aunt
  • (D) Brother

Question 22:

Choose the correct mirror image of fig(x), when mirror is placed at the right side.

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4

Question 23:

In a certain code, ALPHABET is written as TEBAHPLA. How is DECIPHER written in that code?

  • (A) REPHCIED
  • (B) REPHICED
  • (C) REIPHCED
  • (D) REHPICED

Question 24:

In the following options, four words have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner, while the fourth one is different. Choose out the odd one.

  • (A) Milk
  • (B) Water
  • (C) Oil
  • (D) Sugar

Question 25:

A girl walks 20 meters towards North. Then, turning to her left, she walks 50 meters. Then, turning to her right, she walks 40 metres. Again, she turns to her right and walks 50 metres. How far is she from her initial position?

  • (A) 60 metres
  • (B) 50 metres
  • (C) 20 metres
  • (D) 40 metres

Question 26:

Thirty children are standing in a row facing North. If in this row Neelam is seventeenth from the left then what is the position of Neelam from the right?

  • (A) 17
  • (B) 13
  • (C) 14
  • (D) 15

Question 27:

What will come in place of the question mark in the following numerical series?

6, 9, 14, 21, 30, ?

  • (A) 36
  • (B) 41
  • (C) 62
  • (D) 59

Question 28:

Find the missing number from the given alternatives.

  • (A) 28
  • (B) 36
  • (C) 42
  • (D) 43

Question 29:

Seven people T, U, V, W, X, Y & Z are standing in a single line facing a milk - booth. X is somewhere ahead of Y. There is exactly one person standing between V and Z. W is immediately behind T. Y is behind both U & W. If W & V are fourth and fifth in line respectively, then which of the following must be true?

  • (A) T is first
  • (B) Z is first
  • (C) Y is sixth
  • (D) Y is seventh

Question 30:

Select the figures which, when fitted with each other, will form a complete square.

  • (A) (A), (B) and (D) only
  • (B) (A), (B) and (C) only
  • (C) (A), (B), (C)&(D)
  • (D) (B), (C), & (D) only

Question 31:

The first Indigenous vaccine of COVID-19 developed in India was....

  • (A) COVAXIN
  • (B) COVISHIELD
  • (C) SPUTNIK-V
  • (D) MODERNA

Question 32:

Kinematics deal with the

  • (A) Motion of an object
  • (B) Material property of an object
  • (C) Elastic property of an object
  • (D) Optical property of an object

Question 33:

The gas which is used to make chloroform is

  • (A) Cyanogen
  • (B) Radon
  • (C) Propane
  • (D) Methane

Question 34:

The first Tirthankara in Jainism is believed to be......

  • (A) Arishtanemi
  • (B) Sambhavnath
  • (C) Rishabhnath
  • (D) Mahavira

Question 35:

The Ilbary dynasty is famously known as

  • (A) The Slave Dynasty
  • (B) The Khilji Dynasty
  • (C) The Tughlaq Dynasty
  • (D) The Lodhi Dynasty

Question 36:

The slogan, 'Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it' is associated with

  • (A) The Khilafat Movement
  • (B) The Poona Pact
  • (C) Civil Disobedience Movement
  • (D) Home Rule Movement

Question 37:

Which of the following statements is incorrect for Chandrayaan-3?

  • (A) Launched from Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre on July 14, 2023
  • (B) India became the 4th country to land on the Moon.
  • (C) It consists of a lunar lander named Vikram and a rover named Pragyan.
  • (D) It became the first mission to land near the lunar South Pole.

Question 38:

The IUCN Red List is a catalogue of --

  • (A) Species threatened with risk of extinction
  • (B) Red Sea
  • (C) Hot Springs
  • (D) Rivers

Question 39:

Match List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (B) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
  • (C) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
  • (D) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Question 40:

In humans, calcium plays a role in

(A) Bone formation
(B) Blood clotting
(C) Muscle function
(D) Blood formation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A), (B) and (D) only
  • (B) (A), (B) and (C) only
  • (C) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
  • (D) (B), (C) and (D) only

Question 41:

Arrange the sequence of national events in the order of their occurrence.

(A) Swachh Bharat Abhiyaan
(B) Mars Orbiter Mission
(C) Right to Information Act
(D) Economic Liberalization

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A), (B), (C), (D)
  • (B) (B), (A), (C), (D)
  • (C) (B), (A), (D), (C)
  • (D) (D), (C), (B), (A)

Question 42:

Arrange the following international events in chronological sequence of their occurrence.

(A) Fall of the Berlin Wall
(B) Apartheid ends in South Africa
(C) Adoption of Sustainable Development Goals by UN Member States.
(D) Establishment of the United Nations

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A), (B), (C), (D)
  • (B) (B), (A), (C), (D)
  • (C) (B), (A), (D), (C)
  • (D) (D), (A), (B), (C)

Question 43:

The strait that separates the North Andaman islands from the group of islands of Myanmar is...

  • (A) Andaman Strait
  • (B) Coco Strait
  • (C) Preparis Strait
  • (D) Cabot Strait

Question 44:

Article 9 of the Indian Constitution deals with

  • (A) Persons who migrated to India from Pakistan
  • (B) Indians who reside outside India
  • (C) Persons who voluntarily acquire foreign citizenship
  • (D) Right to citizenship at the commencement of the constitution

Question 45:

The main purpose of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) compensation fund is

  • (A) To provide funding for infrastructure development.
  • (B) To provide relief to taxpayers who have paid excess tax.
  • (C) To support the development of micro, small and medium enterprises (MSMEs)
  • (D) To compensate states for the loss of revenue due to the implementation of GST.

Question 46:

Clouds are the masses of small water droplets or tiny ice crystals.

(A) Clouds are classified according to their appearance and height.
(B) Cirrus clouds are high altitude clouds, which are usually feathery shaped and composed entirely of ice crystals.
(C) Nimbostratus clouds are mid level clouds producing sporadic rain.
(D) Altocumulus are the heap-like clouds having flat bases and rounded tops.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A), (B) and (D) only
  • (B) (A), (B) and (C) only
  • (C) (B), (C) and (D) only
  • (D) (A), (C) and (D) only

Question 47:

Aizawl is the capital of

  • (A) Meghalaya
  • (B) Nagaland
  • (C) Mizoram
  • (D) Tripura

Question 48:

Match the countries with their respective currencies:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
  • (B) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
  • (C) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
  • (D) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Question 49:

The river which flows through the Grand Canyon of India, also known as the Gandikota Gorge is

  • (A) Ganga
  • (B) Krishna
  • (C) Penna
  • (D) Brahmaputra

Question 50:

The National Emblem of India has been adopted from the capital of King _________ which was situated in _________.

  • (A) Akbar, Agra
  • (B) Ashoka, Sarnath
  • (C) Ashoka, Sanchi
  • (D) Akbar, Delhi