CUET PG 2026 Political Science Question Paper is available for download here. The National Testing Agency (NTA) conducted the CUET PG 2026 Political Science (HUQP18) examination on March 11, 2026, during Shift 1 from 09:00 AM to 10:30 AM.

CUET PG 2026 Political Science Question Paper with Solutions PDF

CUET PG 2026 Political Science Question Paper with Answer key Download PDF Check Solutions

Question 1:

Which among the following Schedule was added to the Constitution of India by the 73rd Amendment Act?

  • (A) Ninth Schedule
  • (B) Tenth Schedule
  • (C) Eleventh Schedule
  • (D) Twelfth Schedule

Question 2:

How many days of wage employment is guaranteed in a financial year to every rural household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work in the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act?

  • (A) At least 50 Days
  • (B) At least 100 Days
  • (C) At least 125 Days
  • (D) At least 150 Days

Question 3:

Who coined the term Indian Constitution as a 'social document'?

  • (A) Granville Austin
  • (B) M. V. Pylee
  • (C) Upendra Baxi
  • (D) Rajni Kothari

Question 4:

What was the duration of the Constituent Assembly?

  • (A) Two years, ten months and seventeen days
  • (B) Two years, eleven months and seventeen days
  • (C) Three years, eleven months and seventeen days
  • (D) Four years, eleven months and seventeen days

Question 5:

Indian Parliament comprises

  • (A) The President
  • (B) Lok Sabha
  • (C) Rajya Sabha
  • (D) All of these

Question 6:

Which Article of the Constitution of India states "The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister"?

  • (A) Article 73
  • (B) Article 74
  • (C) Article 75
  • (D) Article 76

Question 7:

7th Schedule of Constitution of India contains

  • (A) Union list
  • (B) State list
  • (C) Concurrent list
  • (D) All of these

Question 8:

S. R. Bommai v. Union of India judgement pertained to

  • (A) Inter-State Water Dispute
  • (B) Article 356
  • (C) Anti - Defection
  • (D) Fundamental Rights

Question 9:

Which of the following is incorrect about a Money Bill?

  • (A) The bill deals with all or any provisions under article 110 of the Constitution.
  • (B) The Money Bill has to be so certified by the Speaker of the House of the People.
  • (C) The Money Bill has to be introduced in the House of the People first.
  • (D) Both the Houses of the Parliament enjoy equal powers with respect to a Money Bill.

Question 10:

Sarkaria Commission (1983) was related to

  • (A) Centre-State relations
  • (B) corruption
  • (C) election
  • (D) boundary dispute

Question 11:

Articles 52-62 of the Constitution of India are concerned with

  • (A) The Prime Minister of India
  • (B) The President of India
  • (C) The Vice President of India
  • (D) The Supreme Court of India

Question 12:

Which Fundamental Rights are available to all persons?

A. Protection in respect of conviction for offences (Article 20)

B. Protection of life and personal liberty (Article 21)

C. Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases (Article 22)

D. Freedom of religion (Article 25 - 28)

E. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste or place of birth (Article 15)

  • (A) Only B, C and D
  • (B) Only A, B and C
  • (C) Only B, C, D and E
  • (D) Only A, B, C and D

Question 13:

Who was the Chairman of Union Constitution Committee of the Constituent Assembly of India?

  • (A) B. R. Ambedkar
  • (B) Rajendra Prasad
  • (C) Jawaharlal Nehru
  • (D) Vallabhbhai Patel

Question 14:

Which of the following are true about a federal system?

A. A federal system is based on a constitutional division of power.

B. In a federal system the power remains centralized.

C. A federal system is an innovation of modern times to deal with the issues of mass democracies.

D. In a federal system the regional units participate in the decision-making process at federal level electorally.

E. It is characterized by primacy of territorial representation.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Only A, B, C, D
  • (B) Only A, C, D, E
  • (C) Only A, B, C
  • (D) Only B, C, D, E

Question 15:

Assertion A: Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the President.

Reason R: The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (B) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
  • (C) A is correct but R is not correct
  • (D) A is not correct but R is correct

Question 16:

Which powers and responsibilities are not endowed by the Constitution to the Panchayats?

  • (A) The preparation of plans for economic development
  • (B) The implementation of schemes for economic development and social justice
  • (C) Agriculture, including agricultural extension
  • (D) Regulation of slaughter homes and tanneries

Question 17:

Which Constitutional Amendment abolished the privy purses and privileges of former rulers of Princely States?

  • (A) The Constitution (Twenty-fourth Amendment) Act, 1971
  • (B) The Constitution (Twenty-fifth Amendment) Act, 1971
  • (C) The Constitution (Twenty-sixth Amendment) Act, 1971
  • (D) The Constitution (Twenty-seventh Amendment) Act, 1971

Question 18:

Which Constitutional Amendment ended the Parts A, B and C categories of States and implemented the States Reorganization Scheme?

  • (A) The Constitution (Fourth Amendment) Act, 1955
  • (B) The Constitution (Fifth Amendment) Act, 1955
  • (C) The Constitution (Sixth Amendment) Act, 1956
  • (D) The Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956

Question 19:

Assertion A : The powers within the Supervisory Jurisdiction of the High Courts are both administrative and judicial in nature.

Reason R: Article 227(1) gives the High Courts power of Superintendence over all courts and tribunals within their territorial and constitutional jurisdiction.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (B) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
  • (C) A is correct but R is not correct
  • (D) A is not correct but R is correct

Question 20:

Assertion A : Power of judicial review is considered as part of the basic structure of the Constitution.

Reason R : The Supreme Court is endowed with the power of judicial review to ensure judicial independence and protection of rights.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (B) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
  • (C) A is correct but R is not correct
  • (D) A is not correct but R is correct

Question 21:

Which was the first reported case of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) seeking relief for the under-trial prisoners in jails ?

  • (A) Anil Yadav Vs State of Bihar, 1981
  • (B) Hussainara Khatoon Vs State of Bihar, 1979
  • (C) Khatri Vs State of Bihar, 1981
  • (D) Veena Sethi Vs State of Bihar, 1982

Question 22:

The Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act, 1976 added three words to the Preamble of the Constitution of India.

A. Socialist

B. Secular

C. Integrity

D. Unity

E. Federal

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) Only A, B and C
  • (B) Only B, C and D
  • (C) Only C, D and E
  • (D) Only A, C and E

Question 23:

Which Constitutional Amendment lowered the voting age from 21 years to 18 years ?

  • (A) 58th Amendment Act, 1987
  • (B) 61st Amendment Act, 1988
  • (C) 64th Amendment Act, 1990
  • (D) 65th Amendment Act, 1990

Question 24:

Parliament may by law

A. Extend the jurisdiction of a High Court

B. establish a common High Court for two or more States

C. constitute a High Court for a Union Territory

D. establish administrative tribunal for each State

E. appoint judges of the High Courts

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (A) Only A, B, C and D
  • (B) Only B, C, D and E
  • (C) Only A, B, D and E
  • (D) Only A, C, D and E

Question 25:

The Parliament of India consists of :

A. The House of the People

B. The Council of States

C. The President

D. The Prime Minister

E. The Speaker

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) Only A, B and C
  • (B) Only B, C and D
  • (C) Only C, D and E
  • (D) Only A, B and E

Question 26:

Who in the Constituent Assembly, said that 'The Doctrine of Independence was not to be raised to the level of a dogma so as to enable the judiciary to function as a kind of Super Legislature or Super Executive"?

  • (A) N. Madhava Rao
  • (B) K.M. Munshi
  • (C) N.G. Ayyangar
  • (D) A.K. Ayyar

Question 27:

Assertion A : Problems of global environmental change pose serious challenges to democratic political systems, as they currently exist.

Reason R: We need a thicker conception of citizenship, like environmental citizenship that obligates citizens to inculcate environmentally sensitive behaviour.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (B) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
  • (C) A is correct but R is not correct
  • (D) A is not correct but R is correct

Question 28:

Which of the following is/are correct about the Hawthorne Experiments?

A. It was a pioneering study of how individuals behave in organisations.

B. It was carried out at the Hawthorne Works of Western Electric Company, U.K.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Only A
  • (B) Only B
  • (C) Both A and B
  • (D) Neither A nor B

Question 29:

The book 'The Principles of Scientific Management' was authored by

  • (A) F.W. Taylor
  • (B) Henri Fayol
  • (C) Luther Gulick
  • (D) Lyndall Urwick

Question 30:

Who is associated with the concept of 'Bounded Rationality'?

  • (A) Charles E. Lindblom
  • (B) Herbert Simon
  • (C) Thomas R. Dye
  • (D) Yehezkel Dror

Question 31:

Which one of the following is not a type of Public Policy in Theodore Lowi's classification?

  • (A) Regulatory Policy
  • (B) Distributive Policy
  • (C) Redistributive Policy
  • (D) Welfare Policy

Question 32:

Which of the following is not an official actor of public policy?

  • (A) Political parties
  • (B) Judiciary
  • (C) Administrators
  • (D) Executive

Question 33:

Who amongst these developed the 'garbage can model' of policy-making?

  • (A) Ezekiel Dror
  • (B) James Anderson
  • (C) Frederick Taylor
  • (D) Michael Cohen

Question 34:

Which among the following statements are CORRECT about policy formulation process in India?

(A) All policies must have the approval of the cabinet.

(B) Legislators are concerned with central political tasks of policy formulation.

(C) Administrative agencies are delegated with discretionary authority known as 'the rule making process.

(D) The Judiciary has no power to modify policies.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A, B and C only
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) B, C and D only

Question 35:

In which year did the Supreme Court decide that the citizens of India have the Right to Negative Vote by exercising NOTA?

  • (A) 2006
  • (B) 2009
  • (C) 2013
  • (D) 2016

Question 36:

How many days of work is guaranteed to rural households under Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)?

  • (A) 200 days work per year to all rural households
  • (B) 100 days work per year to all rural households
  • (C) 300 days work per year to all rural households
  • (D) 125 days work per year to all rural households

CUET PG 2026 Political Science Preparation