The MAH MBA CET 2025 Question Paper and Answer Key for the 1st April Slot 1 is available here for download. The MAH MBA CET 2025 was moderate to difficult level of difficulty. The MAH CET Exam is an objective-type, multiple-choice test, including logical reasoning, quantitative aptitude, and verbal ability.

The MAH CET exam typically consists of 200 multiple-choice questions, with a duration of 2.5 hours (150 minutes). Each correct answer is given as 1 mark, and there is no negative marking for incorrect answers. The total maximum score in the exam is 200 marks, Student can download MAHCET Question paper with Solution here.

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MAH CET 2025 Question Paper PDF Download

MAH CET 2025 Question Paper April 1 Slot 1 Download PDF Check Solution

Question 1:

If in a special coded language : BOOK is written as 8 ; TABLE is written as 7 ; & BOTTLE is written as 1 ; Then, how would COMPUTER be written in that language ?

  • (A) 6
  • (B) 7
  • (C) 2
  • (D) 4
  • (E) 13

Question 2:

Determine : What is the ratio of diesel cars in State 4 to electric cars in State 3 ?

  • (A) 7:3
  • (B) 7:4
  • (C) 13:7
  • (D) 4:7
  • (E) 3:7

Question 3:

If 45% of the electric cars in State 4 are air conditioned (AC) and remaining are non-AC, what is the total number of non-AC cars ?

  • (A) 380
  • (B) 220
  • (C) 200
  • (D) 240
  • (E) 180

Question 4:

Which of the following is a correct arrangement in the given scenario ?

  • (A) A, D, H, E, C, G, F, B
  • (B) A, D, C, E, H, F, G, B
  • (C) G, D, A, F, C, E, H, B
  • (D) A, D, G, H, F, C, E, B
  • (E) A, D, C, E, H, F, B, G

Question 5:

Determine who is the Plumber ?

  • (A) D
  • (B) A
  • (C) F
  • (D) G
  • (E) C

Question 6:

What is the favourite colour of the Lawyer ?

  • (A) Blue
  • (B) Red
  • (C) White
  • (D) Green
  • (E) Black

Question 7:

Who cleans his home on Saturday ?

  • (A) Hotelier
  • (B) Doctor
  • (C) Lawyer
  • (D) Teacher
  • (E) Electrician

Question 8:

Who cleans his home on Sunday ?

  • (A) The person who likes Green
  • (B) The friend whose name is A
  • (C) Teacher
  • (D) Plumber
  • (E) The person who likes Red

Question 9:

Which of the following is most definitely true ?

  • (A) A is a Lawyer and likes Green colour
  • (B) B is an Electrician and likes Green colour
  • (C) G cleans his home on a Saturday and he is retired
  • (D) C likes White color and is a Plumber
  • (E) C likes White color and cleans his home on Monday

Question 10:

Which of the following friend's favourite colour name does NOT have the alphabet E in it ?

  • (A) Electrician
  • (B) A
  • (C) B
  • (D) D
  • (E) The person who cleans his home on a Tuesday

Question 11:

Neena told Deepali that, ``your mother-in-law is my father's granddaughter's father's grandfather's daughter-in-law''. How is Deepali related to Neena ?

  • (A) Sister
  • (B) Mother
  • (C) Mother-in-law
  • (D) Daughter-in-law
  • (E) Daughter

Question 12:

Arnav rolls an ordinary dice and gets a 3 on the face of the dice. What shall be the number if the number that is on the side that is exactly opposite to the face of the dice is multiplied by itself four times ?

  • (A) 12
  • (B) 81
  • (C) 256
  • (D) 1296
  • (E) 625

Question 13:

Determine the number of times 3 is present in the given series where it is followed by a prime number but not preceded by a number which is a multiple of 2 ?

3 5 4 8 4 3 7 0 9 8 3 9 4 3 7 7 5 3 1 2 0 7 3 2

  • (A) 3
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 0
  • (D) 6
  • (E) 4

Question 14:

Determine the number that shall come in place of ? in the given series :

8 \quad 13 \quad 10 \quad 15 \quad 12 \quad ?

  • (A) 13
  • (B) 14
  • (C) 16
  • (D) 20
  • (E) 17

Question 15:

Determine as to who are the immediate neighbors of Wahaab ?

  • (A) Tanaav and Urus
  • (B) Vihaaz and Pravesh
  • (C) Urus and Quila
  • (D) Urus and Pravesh
  • (E) Vihaaz and Urus

Question 16:

If: A\#B means B is the mother of A; A
(B means A is the father of B; A%B means A is the sister of B; A*B means A is the son of B; A@B means A is the brother of B; AIB means A is the daughter of B. Then determine that if P
)Q\#R%S -- how is R related to P ?

  • (A) sister
  • (B) son
  • (C) niece
  • (D) wife
  • (E) mother

Question 17:

Determine the alphabets that shall come in the blank space :

UNR \quad ICF \quad LEI \quad OGL \quad RIO \quad _____

  • (A) WTR
  • (B) UKR
  • (C) ULS
  • (D) UJR
  • (E) UKS

Question 18:

A stream which flows from west to east in the middle turns left. Further, then it comes across an island and goes around it in an anti-clockwise manner to take a quarter circle of the island. Then it takes a right from that direction. Determine that finally in which direction is the stream flowing ?

  • (A) East
  • (B) South
  • (C) North-West
  • (D) West
  • (E) North

Question 19:

If `dog' is called `lion', `lion' is called `bison', `bison' is called `snake', `snake' is called `mongoose', `mongoose' is called `crocodile', then which of the following may be domesticated as a pet ?

  • (A) Lion
  • (B) Bison
  • (C) Snake
  • (D) Dog
  • (E) Mongoose

Question 20:

Five friends are standing in a row and all facing North. Tony is not adjacent to Bony or Mony. Sony is not adjacent to Bony. Tony is adjacent to Dony. Dony is at the middle in the row. Then, which pair is at the extreme ends of the row ?

  • (A) Tony, Dony
  • (B) Dony, Bony
  • (C) Sony, Dony
  • (D) Mony, Tony
  • (E) Sony, Mony

Question 21:

Krishna walked 20 m towards the north. Then he turned right and walked 30 m. Then he turned right and walked 35 m. Then he turned left and walked 15 m. Finally he turns left and went 15 m. In which direction and how many meters is Krishna compared to from the starting position ?

  • (A) 15 m West
  • (B) 30 m East
  • (C) 30 m West
  • (D) 15 m East
  • (E) 45 m East

Question 22:

J, K, L, M, N, O, P and R are eight huts. Further, L is 2 km east of K. J is 1 km north of K and Q is 2 km south of J. P is 1 km west of Q while M is 3 km east of P. O is 2 km north of P. R is situated right in the middle of K and L while N is just in the middle of Q and M. Determine the distance between K and P :

  • (A) 1.00 km
  • (B) 1.50 km
  • (C) 1.41 km
  • (D) 1.67 km
  • (E) 1.23 km

Question 23:

6 : 222 :: 7 : ?

  • (A) 350
  • (B) 225
  • (C) 175
  • (D) 343
  • (E) 210

Question 24:

Identify the odd one out from the options given below :

  • (A) 6.40, 9.60, 19.20, 12.80
  • (B) 1.0, 1.50, 3, 2
  • (C) 0.5, 0.75, 1.50, 1.0
  • (D) 0.40, 0.60, 1.20, 0.80
  • (E) 0.50, 1.50, 3.0, 0.25

Question 25:

In a row of girls, Rimmi and Mimmi occupy ninth place from right end and tenth place from left end respectively. If they interchange their positions then Rimmi and Mimmi will occupy seventeenth place from right end and eighteenth place from left end respectively. How many girls are there over all in all the given row ?

  • (A) 18
  • (B) 27
  • (C) 26
  • (D) 25
  • (E) 35

Question 26:

Choose the correct code as per the given information for the following: AFDQENI

  • (A)
    (72894
    )
  • (B) 6728
    (46
  • (C) 9728649
  • (D) 6728649
  • (E) 9728679

Question 27:

Choose the correct code as per the given information for the following: OLSWYCZIT

  • (A) 932381261
  • (B) 933282161
  • (C) 9332812
    (1
  • (D) 933281261
  • (E) 933221261

Question 28:

Choose the correct code as per the given information for the following: TJITAVRQXU

  • (A) 1561645789
  • (B) 15661645879
  • (C) 1561
    (45879
  • (D) 1561645779
  • (E) 1561645879

Question 29:

Choose the correct code as per the given information for the following: XLPVRYTQDC

  • (A) 7374851821
  • (B) 7374582821
  • (C) 7374581821
  • (D) 7374561821
  • (E) 7374511821

Question 30:

A clock is set right at 8 AM. This clock gains 10 minutes in 24 hours. What is the true time when the clock indicates 11 AM ?

  • (A) 11:01:58
  • (B) 10:45:15
  • (C) 10:59:15
  • (D) 10:58:45
  • (E) 10:58:15

Question 31:

Determine the probability of getting a `nine' or `ten' on a single throw of two dice simultaneously ?

  • (A) 2/9
  • (B) 1/5
  • (C) 7/36
  • (D) 2/7
  • (E) 2/13

Question 32:

The average age of three men is 50 years and their ages are in the proportion 3:5:7 respectively. Determine the age of the youngest man in the group ?

  • (A) 40 years
  • (B) 25 years
  • (C) 20 years
  • (D) 30 years
  • (E) 35 years

Question 33:

Looking at Sweety, Raj says to his friend, ``Sweety is the grand-daughter of the elder brother of my father''. How is Sweety related to Raj ?

  • (A) Niece
  • (B) Grand daughter
  • (C) Daughter
  • (D) Sister
  • (E) Sister-in-Law

Question 34:

Then, all the following statements could be true EXCEPT :

  • (A) Twice as many experts take sessions after the school as before the school
  • (B) J will not take sessions during lunch period
  • (C) The same number of experts take sessions before school as during lunch
  • (D) The same number of experts take sessions after school as during lunch
  • (E) The same number of experts take sessions before school as after school

Question 35:

Who is A's wife ?

  • (A) S
  • (B) V
  • (C) T
  • (D) R
  • (E) U

Question 36:

If southeast becomes east and northwest becomes west and all the other directions are changed in the same way, then what will be the direction for north ?

  • (A) Northwest
  • (B) West
  • (C) Southwest
  • (D) Northeast
  • (E) Southeast

Question 37:

If Delhi and Lucknow were visited by A, then which one of the following cities could B visit ?

  • (A) Kolkata
  • (B) Hyderabad
  • (C) Bangalore
  • (D) Mumbai
  • (E) Delhi

Question 38:

Visheshbar who is a food inspector has to inspect five restaurants A, B, C, D and E. Further, if he inspects B, he cannot inspect C immediately. If he inspects A, he cannot go to E after that. Which of the following can be the correct order of his inspection ?

  • (A) A-B-C-D-E
  • (B) D-C-A-B-E
  • (C) D-C-B-E-A
  • (D) D-C-B-A-E
  • (E) C-D-B-E-A

Question 39:

Choose the set in which the third statement can be deduced from the first two statements together.

  • (A) B-E-A
  • (B) E-C-F
  • (C) C-E-A
  • (D) F-B-D
  • (E) D-E-A

Question 40:

Determine the corners that join the side where the chair C is placed ?

  • (A) P & S
  • (B) T & S
  • (C) Q & R
  • (D) S & Q
  • (E) P & Q

Question 41:

There are three boxes of three different colors -- Green, Blue and Red -- and 6 toys of which 2 are of Green colour, 2 are of Blue colour and 2 are of Red colour. The toys are packed in the three boxes such that each box has 2 toys of different colours in it and also the colour of the box is different from the colour of the toys packed in it. Now, 10 chocolates are kept in these boxes in such a way that the Green box has the maximum possible chocolates in it whereas, the Red box has the least possible chocolates in it. Each box should have at least one chocolate and no two boxes have the same number of chocolates. Determine which of the following is definitely true ?

  • (A) The box which has the toys of Blue and Green colors has 3 chocolates in it
    (B) The box which has the toys of Green and Red colors has 2 chocolates in it
    (C) The Green box, the Blue box and Red box have 6, 3 and 1 chocolate/s in them respectively
    (D) Green Box has not more than one chocolate in it
    (E) The box which has the toys of Red and Blue colors has 8 chocolates in it

Question 42:

Determine that if A buys R and T, then B buys :

  • (A) P & Q
  • (B) R & T
  • (C) P & S
  • (D) Q & U
  • (E) Q & T

Question 43:

P, Q, R, S, T and U are six members of a family. R is not the mother of Q but Q is the son of R. P and R are a married couple. T is the brother of R. U is the brother of Q. S is the daughter of P. In this case, T is related to S as being :

  • (A) S's Uncle
  • (B) S's Father
  • (C) S's Brother
  • (D) S's Nephew
  • (E) S's Husband

Question 44:

How many Seconds did Ambatta's watch work during the given duration as per the information provided ?

  • (A) 604900 Seconds
  • (B) 605000 Seconds
  • (C) 604765 Seconds
  • (D) 604865 Seconds
  • (E) 605030 Seconds

Question 45:

Fifteenth August, 1947 was a Friday. Determine the day of the week on the Twenty-Sixth of January, 1957 ?

  • (A) Saturday
  • (B) Friday
  • (C) Sunday
  • (D) Thursday
  • (E) Tuesday

Question 46:

Neena purchased two oranges, three bananas and four apples which cost her Rs. 15. Had Neena purchased three oranges, two bananas and one apple, it would have cost her only Rs. 10. If Neena bought 3 oranges, 3 bananas and 3 apples, determine as to how much did she have to pay ?

  • (A) Rs. 10
  • (B) Rs. 7 & 50 paise
  • (C) Rs. 12
  • (D) Rs. 5
  • (E) Rs. 15

Question 47:

Cost of Type-I Liquid is Rs. 32 per ltr; Cost of Type-II Liquid is Rs. 40 per ltr. If both types of liquids are mixed in the ratio 3:5 to create a new type of Liquid (named Type-III), then determine the cost per ltr of the newly created Type-III Liquid, considering the fact that there have been no other costs involved in creation of the new liquid ?

  • (A) Rs. 37 per ltr
  • (B) Rs. 42 per ltr
  • (C) Rs. 36 per ltr
  • (D) Rs. 35 per ltr
  • (E) Rs. 40 per ltr

Question 48:

A cricket umpire has to pick 6 caps and 4 sweaters before a match. She picks up 3 articles at random. Determine the probability that at least one sweater was picked by the umpire ?

  • (A) 1/6
  • (B) 1/12
  • (C) 2/3
  • (D) 5/6
  • (E) 5/11

Question 49:

If one third of one-fourth of a number is 15, then three-tenth of that number will be :

  • (A) 46
  • (B) 61
  • (C) 54
  • (D) 63
  • (E) 38

Question 50:

Male and female students from a particular subject took a class test. The average score of male students was 70 and of female students was 83. The class average however was 76. Determine the ratio of males to females in the class ?

  • (A) 8:7
  • (B) 6:7
  • (C) 7:8
  • (D) 14:17
  • (E) 7:6

Question 51:

Two hands of an ordinary clock lie exactly over one another how many times in a continuous period of 72 hours?

  • (A) 24 times
  • (B) 72 times
  • (C) 76 times
  • (D) 66 times
  • (E) 56 times

Question 52:

If the sum of three consecutive odd numbers is 20 more than the first number. What is the middle number?

  • (A) 5
  • (B) 13
  • (C) 7
  • (D) 11
  • (E) 9

Question 53:

The speeds of 3 cars in the ratio 5 : 4 : 6. The ratio between the time taken by them to travel same distance shall be:

  • (A) 15:12:11
  • (B) 12:10:13
  • (C) 10:20:30
  • (D) 5:4:6
  • (E) 12:15:10

Question 54:

There are four trees, namely, Lemon Tree, Coconut Tree, Mango Tree and Neem Tree each of which is at a different corner of a rectangular plot. A well is located at one corner and a cabin at another corner. Lemon and Coconut trees are on either side of the gate, which is located at the centre of side, opposite to the side, extremes of which the well and cabin are located. The Mango tree is not at the corner where the cabin is located. Determine as to which of the following pairs can be diagonally opposite to each other in the plot?

  • (A) Mango tree and well
  • (B) Neem tree and Lemon tree
  • (C) Neem tree and Mango tree
  • (D) Well and Neem tree
  • (E) Coconut tree and Lemon tree

Question 55:

In the following question below, 3 statements I, II and III are given. You are required to find out which of the given statement(s) is/are sufficient to answer the question. Question: How old was Arnav on October 30th 2018? Statement I: Arnav is 6 years older than his sister Ananya. Statement II: Ananya is 29 yrs younger than her mother, Deepali. Statement III: Deepali celebrated her 77th birthday on June 3rd 2018.

  • (A) Statement I & II only
  • (B) Statement II & III only
  • (C) Statement I, II, & III
  • (D) Statement I & III only
  • (E) Statement III only

Question 56:

Rajesh can check the quality of 1000 items in 5 hours and Rakesh can complete 75% of the same job in 3 hours. How much time is required for both of them to check 1300 items, if Rakesh stops checking after 2 hours?

  • (A) 4 hours
  • (B) 6 hours
  • (C) 3 hours
  • (D) 2 hours
  • (E) 1 hour

Question 57:

Akshay and Ajay are friends studying in same class. Ajay could not score as much marks as Akshay scored and hence Ajay's father demanded explanation from Ajay for his poor score. Ajay replied that, "there are so many like me in the class". Based on the information given by Ajay to his father as below, find out the answer to the question that follows: Akshay ranks 13th in the class where 33 students are studying. There are 5 students below Ajay rankwise. Question: How many students are there between Akshay and Ajay?

  • (A) 13
  • (B) 14
  • (C) 15
  • (D) 17
  • (E) 16

Question 58:

A group of 200 people are chosen randomly at a conference. Later, it was found that 120 of them like blue pens and 140 like green pens while 70 like both green and blue pens. Determine the number of people thus chosen who do not like neither green nor blue pens?

  • (A) 50
  • (B) 20
  • (C) 30
  • (D) 10
  • (E) 40

Question 59:

One morning after sunrise, a girl was standing looking at a pole. The shadow of the pole was falling exactly to her right. Which direction was she facing?

  • (A) North-East
  • (B) South-East
  • (C) South-West
  • (D) East
  • (E) North-West

Question 60:

In a certain code language, "x" means "is less than", "\#" means "is greater than" and "*" means "is equal to" and given that \(a\char`^b\), \(c\char`^d\), and c\#b, then which of the following is most definitely true?

  • (A) \(a\char`^b\char`^c\)
  • (B) a\#b\#c
  • (C) \(d\char`^a\)
  • (D) a*c
  • (E) b\#d

Question 61:

A, B, C, D, E and F are six members of a family. A is mother of B, who is the husband of D. F is the brother of one of the parents of C. D is the daughter in law of E and has no siblings. C is son of D. How is C related to A?

  • (A) Brother-in-law
  • (B) Grandfather
  • (C) Son
  • (D) Brother
  • (E) Grandson

Question 62:

Read the instructions given below carefully and answer the question that follows: The Hi-Lo game is a four-player game played in six rounds. In every round, each player chooses to bid Hi or Lo... Four players Arun, Bankim, Charu, and Dipak played the Hi-Lo game. What could have been the bids by Arun, Bankim, Charu and Dipak, respectively in the first round?

  • (A) Lo Lo Lo Hi
  • (B) Hi Lo Lo Hi
  • (C) Hi Hi Hi Lo
  • (D) Hi Lo Lo Lo
  • (E) Hi Hi Lo Lo

Question 63:

In the Hi-Lo game described above, in how many rounds did Bankim bid Lo?

  • (A) 3
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 0
  • (D) 5
  • (E) 2

Question 64:

In the Hi-Lo game described above, in which round was Arun the only player to bid Hi?

  • (A) First
  • (B) Second
  • (C) Fourth
  • (D) Third
  • (E) Arun was never the only player to bid Hi in any of the rounds

Question 65:

Five women decided to go shopping at a mall. They arrived at the designated meeting place in the following order: 1. Archana, 2. Chellamma, 3. Dhenuka, 4. Helen, and 5. Shahnaz. Each woman spent at least Rs. 1000. Below are some additional facts about how much they spent during their shopping spree. The woman who spent Rs. 1193 is which of the following:

  • (A) Dhenuka
  • (B) Chellamma
  • (C) Helen
  • (D) Archana
  • (E) Shahnaz

Question 66:

Five women decided to go shopping at a mall. They arrived at the designated meeting place in the following order: 1. Archana, 2. Chellamma, 3. Dhenuka, 4. Helen, and 5. Shahnaz. Each woman spent at least Rs. 1000. Below are some additional facts about how much they spent during their shopping spree. What is the difference of amount spent by the woman who spent the second highest amount and the amount spent by Helen?

  • (A) Rs. 1095
  • (B) Rs. 1041
  • (C) Rs. 201
  • (D) Rs. 283
  • (E) Rs. 894

Question 67:

Five women decided to go shopping at a mall. They arrived at the designated meeting place in the following order: 1. Archana, 2. Chellamma, 3. Dhenuka, 4. Helen, and 5. Shahnaz. Each woman spent at least Rs. 1000. Below are some additional facts about how much they spent during their shopping spree. What is the total sum of amount spent by the women who came first and fourth?

  • (A) Rs. 3373
  • (B) Rs. 3574
  • (C) Rs. 3857
  • (D) Rs. 3427
  • (E) Rs. 4751

Question 68:

Five women decided to go shopping at a mall. They arrived at the designated meeting place in the following order: 1. Archana, 2. Chellamma, 3. Dhenuka, 4. Helen, and 5. Shahnaz. Each woman spent at least Rs. 1000. Below are some additional facts about how much they spent during their shopping spree. The woman who spent Rs. 1193 arrived:

  • (A) Fourth
  • (B) Second
  • (C) Fifth
  • (D) First
  • (E) Third

Question 69:

A test has 50 questions. A student scores 1 mark for a correct answer, –1/3 for a wrong answer, and –1/6 for not attempting a question. If the net score of a student is 32, the number of questions answered wrongly by that student cannot be less than:

  • (A) 12
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 9
  • (E) 2

Question 70:

Identify the Odd One Out:

  • (A) GSFHJ
  • (B) FGHJS
  • (C) JSFGH
  • (D) HJSFG
  • (E) SFGHJ

Question 71:

Determine the 288th term of the series a,b,b,c,c,c,d,d,d,d,e,e,e,e,e,f,f,f,f,f,f... :

  • (A) X
  • (B) Z
  • (C) V
  • (D) M
  • (E) U

Question 72:

A friend is spotted by Lala at a distance of 200 m. When Lala starts to approach him, the friend also starts moving in the same direction as Lala. If the speed of his friend is 15 kmph, and that of Lala is 20 kmph, then how far will the friend have to walk before Lala meets him?

  • (A) 600 m
  • (B) 0.6 m
  • (C) 6 km
  • (D) 900 m
  • (E) 6 m

Question 73:

If A + B means A is the sister of B; A x B means A is the wife of B, A % B means A is the father of B and A - B means A is the brother of B, then which of the following means T is the daughter of P?

  • (A) P x Q % R + S - T
  • (B) P x Q % R + T - S
  • (C) P x Q % R + T + S
  • (D) P x Q % R - T + S
  • (E) P x Q % R + S + T

Question 74:

Observe the given figure and read the statements that follow:
Statements:


A. All teachers are doctors
B. Some doctors are teachers
C. All surgeons are doctors.
Which of the following is true:


% Diagram placeholder

  • (B) A and B and C
  • (C) B and C
  • (D) Only C
  • (E) A and C

Question 75:

Which option shall come in place of '?' :


% Diagram placeholder



% Diagram placeholder

  • (A) A
  • (B) B
  • (C) C
  • (D) D
  • (E) E

Question 76:

Which option from the figure in the lower row shall come in place of "?" :

% Diagram placeholder

  • (A) A
  • (B) B
  • (C) C
  • (D) D
  • (E) E

Question 77:

Which option from the lower row shall complete the sequence of the upper in the best manner? (Abstract Reasoning)





% Diagram placeholder

  • (A) A
  • (B) B
  • (C) C
  • (D) D
  • (E) E

Question 78:

Which option from the lower row shall complete the sequence of the upper in the best manner? (Abstract Reasoning)



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  • (A) A
  • (B) B
  • (C) C
  • (D) D
  • (E) E

Question 79:

Count the number of squares in the given figure?




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  • (A) 16
  • (B) 18
  • (C) 13
  • (D) 20
  • (E) 12

Question 80:

If a cube is to be constructed by folding the given figure along the lines shown, then in the cube so formed, what would the number be opposite to the number 4? (Net of a cube)


% Diagram placeholder

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 5
  • (E) 6

Question 81:

Identify the odd one out



% Diagram placeholder

  • (A) A
  • (B) B
  • (C) C
  • (D) D
  • (E) E

Question 82:

Count the number of triangles given in the figure below : )



% Diagram placeholder

  • (A) 3
  • (B) 21
  • (C) 22
  • (D) 24
  • (E) 15

Question 83:

Choose the option from the options given in the lower row that shall complete the pattern given in the upper row? (Abstract Reasoning)



% Diagram placeholder

  • (A) A
  • (B) B
  • (C) C
  • (D) D
  • (E) E

Question 84:

Find out which of the figures (1), (2), (3) and (4) can be formed from the pieces given in figure (X). If none of the figures can be used to form (X), then mark your answer as (5). (Figure based)


% Diagram placeholder

  • (A) (1)
  • (B) (2)
  • (C) (3)
  • (D) (4)
  • (E) (5)

Question 85:

Select a suitable figure from the four alternatives that would complete the figure matrix by coming in place of '?'. If you think that none of the figures can come in the square with '?', then mark your answer as (5). (Figure matrix)



% Diagram placeholder

  • (A) (1)
  • (B) (2)
  • (C) (3)
  • (D) (4)
  • (E) (5)

Question 86:

The six faces of a dice have been marked with alphabets A, B, C, D, E and F respectively. This dice is rolled down three times. The three positions are shown. Find the alphabet that will lie absolutely opposite A on the dice.


% Diagram placeholder

  • (A) B
  • (B) E
  • (C) D
  • (D) C
  • (E) F

Question 87:

Identify the Odd One out :


% Diagram placeholder

  • (A) A
  • (B) B
  • (C) C
  • (D) D
  • (E) E

Question 88:

Identify the Odd One Out:


% Diagram placeholder

  • (A) A
  • (B) B
  • (C) C
  • (D) D
  • (E) E

Question 89:

Find the number of triangles in the given figure?


% Diagram placeholder

  • (A) 12
  • (B) 13
  • (C) 15
  • (D) 14
  • (E) 11

Question 90:

In the given figure, if the centres of all the circles are joined by horizontal and vertical lines, then determine the number of squares that can be thus formed?


% Diagram placeholder

  • (A) 13
  • (B) 42
  • (C) 37
  • (D) 44
  • (E) 56

Question 91:

Which of the options shall be the mirror image of the figure shown here?


% Diagram placeholder


Question 92:

How many minor sectors are there in the figure given below?


% Diagram placeholder

  • (A) 32
  • (B) 22
  • (C) 24
  • (D) 16
  • (E) 20

Question 93:

In the figure given above; Triangle represents civil servants, circle represents urban, square represents educated and rectangle represents male. Which of the following shall represent uneducated urban males:


% Diagram placeholder

  • (A) 5
  • (B) 11
  • (C) 7
  • (D) 8
  • (E) 4

Question 94:

The cost price of a toy is Rs. 225. The marked price is twice of the cost price. What will be the discount offered to get profit of 56% on the sale of the toy?

  • (A) 30%
  • (B) 20%
  • (C) 33%
  • (D) 22%
  • (E) 28%

Question 95:

What is the product of all the prime numbers between 0 to 100?

  • (A) 0
  • (B) 1
  • (C) 234542146219644591457908145948012000
  • (D) 234542146219644591457908145948016070
  • (E) 234542146219644591457908145948015000

Question 96:

17 × 17 × 18 × 18 × 19 × 19 shall be fully divisible by which of the following number?

  • (A) 971
  • (B) 173
  • (C) 646
  • (D) 233
  • (E) 5813

Question 97:

Find the remainder when: (1719 × 1721 × 1723 × 1725 × 1727) is divided by 18?

  • (A) 9
  • (B) 7
  • (C) 19
  • (D) 3
  • (E) 7

Question 98:

A dealer has 1000 kg sugar and he sells a part of it at 8% profit and the rest of it at 18% profit. The overall profit he earns is 14%. What is the quantity which is sold at 18% profit?

  • (A) 450 kg
  • (B) 900 kg
  • (C) 630 kg
  • (D) 400 kg
  • (E) 600 kg

Question 99:

The length of a room exceeds its breadth by 2 meters. If the length be increased by 4 meters and the breadth decreased by 2 meters, the area remains the same. Find the surface area of its walls if the height is 3 meters?

  • (A) 248 m²
  • (B) 48 m²
  • (C) 84 m²
  • (D) 56 m²
  • (E) 260 m²

Question 100:

A bus covers a distance of first 50 km in 40 minutes, next 50 km at a speed of 2 km per minute and the next 30 km at a speed of 1.0 km per minute. What is its average speed during the entire journey?

  • (A) 81.2 kmph
  • (B) 64.8 kmph
  • (C) 80.8 kmph
  • (D) 84.1 kmph
  • (E) 82.1 kmph

Question 101:

If the height of a right circular cone is increased by 200% and the radius of the base is reduced by 50%, then volume of the cone shall:

  • (A) increase by 25%
  • (B) decrease by 25%
  • (C) increase by 100%
  • (D) increase by 75%
  • (E) decrease by 20%

Question 102:

If the Angle PQS is 35°, determine the Angle QRS:


% Diagram placeholder

  • (A) 35°
  • (B) 135°
  • (C) 55°
  • (D) 60°
  • (E) 65°

Question 103:

Three ordinary coins having only two sides, namely, heads and tails are tossed in the air and two of such tossed coins land with tails facing upwards. Determine that what are the chances on the next toss of the coins, at least two of the coins will land with the tails facing upwards?

  • (A) 80%
  • (B) 33.33%
  • (C) 66.67%
  • (D) 50%
  • (E) 25%

Question 104:

Study the chart given carefully and answer the question that follows: The following table lists the marks of seven students of a class across six subjects. Who is the topper of the class?


% Diagram placeholder (table)

  • (A) Arya
    (B) Sreya
    (C) Chandesh
    (D) Maya
    (E) Roopesh

Question 105:

What will be the remainder if you subtract the marks scored by Roopesh from the marks scored by Riya?


% Diagram placeholder (table)

  • (A) 32
  • (B) 13
  • (C) 23
  • (D) 8
  • (E) 10

Question 106:

Study the chart given carefully and asnwer the question that follows :

The following table lists marks of seven students(given in rows) of a class across six subjects given in columns) . The Numbers in the brackets indicate the maximum marks of the subject concerned.


If the maximum marks scored by the students in the Hindi subject were to be upscaled to 200 uniformly by th Exacminations Department without affecting their percentages scored currently by each student, then what shall be the difference in the marks scored by the Chandesh and Hanish in Hindi ?


%Diagram placeholder (table)

  • (A) 40
  • (B) 80
  • (C) 88
  • (D) 70
  • (E) 68

Question 107:

Sunil Makihija can check the quality of 1000 items in 5 hours and Nilesh Desai can complete 75% of the same job in 3 hours. How much time is required for both of them to check 1300 items, if Nilesh stops checking after 2 hours?

  • (A) 2 hours
  • (B) 4 hours
  • (C) 3 hours
  • (D) 6 hours 30 minutes
  • (E) 4 hours 15 minutes

Question 108:

The ratio of weight of three friends, namely, Aashiqui, Aarohi and Aamrohi is 4 : 9 : 7. Their total weight is 100 kilograms. How much weight would Aamrohi would have put on if the ratio after her weight gain is 4 : 7 : 9 and their collective weight becomes 140 kilograms?

  • (A) 28 kilograms
  • (B) 63 kilograms
  • (C) 49 kilograms
  • (D) 21 kilograms
  • (E) 35 kilograms

Question 109:

In a triangle ABC, AD is the bisector of angle A. If AC = 4.2 cm, DC = 6 cm, BC = 10 cm, then find AB?


% Diagram placeholder

  • (A) 3.4 cm
  • (B) 2.9 cm
  • (C) 2.7 cm
  • (D) 3 cm
  • (E) 2.8 cm

Question 110:

There are 6 tasks and 6 persons. Task 1 cannot be assigned either to person 1 or person 2. Task 2 must be assigned to either person 3 or person 4. Every person is to be assigned one task. In how many ways can the assignment be done?

  • (A) 72 ways
  • (B) 192 ways
  • (C) 360 ways
  • (D) 144 ways
  • (E) 256 ways

Question 111:

The speed of a boat in still water is 5 km/hr. If it takes thrice as much time in going 20 km upstream as in going the same distance downstream, find the speed of the stream:

  • (A) 5.5 km/hr
  • (B) 2.5 km/hr
  • (C) 6.5 km/hr
  • (D) 15.5 km/hr
  • (E) 3.5 km/hr

Question 112:

Four sheep farmers, namely Ulma, Vimla, Wilma and Xema rented a pasture, as per the following details: Umla grazed her 24 sheep for 3 months; Vimla grazed her 10 sheep for 5 months; Wilma grazed her 35 sheep for 4 months; and Xema grazed her 21 sheep for 3 months. If Ulma's share of rent is Rs. 720, find the total rent of the pasture?

  • (A) Rs. 2880 /-
  • (B) Rs. 3200 /-
  • (C) Rs. 3150 /-
  • (D) Rs. 3250 /-
  • (E) Rs. 3350 /-

Question 113:

A copper wire having length of 243 m and diameter 4 mm was melted to form a sphere. Find the diameter of the sphere thus formed?

  • (A) 16 cm
  • (B) 24 cm
  • (C) 18 cm
  • (D) 22 cm
  • (E) 20 cm

Question 114:

The following pie chart lists the details about the per cent production by seven different companies, namely, A, B, C, D, E, F and G. The total production for all companies is 1500 units. Further, it is known that: A. Companies A & G are producing more than 500 units; B. Companies B & F are producing less than 250 units; C. Companies C & E account for 705 units; D. Companies D & G are producing less than 200 units; E. Companies E, F & G account for 545 units. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


% Diagram placeholder

  • (A) Only A, D and E are true
  • (B) Only A and E are true
  • (C) Only C and E are true
  • (D) Only B and C are true
  • (E) Only A and D are true

Question 115:

In a local election between two candidates, one candidate got 55% of the total valid votes and was declared as winner. 15% of the votes were invalid. If the total number of votes polled were 15200, what were the valid votes of the loser?

  • (A) 5832
  • (B) 5416
  • (C) 6018
  • (D) 5800
  • (E) 5814

Question 116:

Study the information given below carefully and answer the question that follows: The following table shows the percentage distribution of workforce in India and the ratio of male to female workforce in India in various sectors during a particular year. Further, it's known that the total work force in India during the given year was 6000000. The number of male workforce in SA and MA sectors put together is approximately what percent of the total number of workforce in the PT sector?


% Diagram placeholder (table)

  • (A) 87%
  • (B) 85%
  • (C) 90%
  • (D) 89%
  • (E) 88%

Question 117:

The difference in the number of female workforce in SA and MA sectors put together and the number of female workforce in PT sector is approximately close to how much?


% Diagram placeholder (table)

  • (A) 560000
  • (B) 510000
  • (C) 570000
  • (D) 550000
  • (E) 1320000

Question 118:

One year payment to the servant is Rs. 90 plus one gift coupon. The servant leaves after 9 months and receives Rs. 65 and a gift coupon. Determine the value of the gift coupon?

  • (A) Rs. 7.50
  • (B) Rs. 15
  • (C) Rs. 10
  • (D) Rs. 12
  • (E) Rs. 18

Question 119:

How many integer solutions exists for the equation 11x + 15y = -1 such that both x and y are less than 100?

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 15
  • (C) 17
  • (D) 16
  • (E) 20

Question 120:

Let A and B be two solid spheres such that the surface area of B is 300% higher than the surface area of A. The volume of A is found to be k% lower than the volume of B. Determine the value of k:

  • (A) 85.5
  • (B) 92.5
  • (C) 87.5
  • (D) 88.5
  • (E) 90.5

Question 121:

A ship 156 km from the shore develops a leak which admits 2.5 metric tons of water in 6 minutes and 30 seconds. A quantity of 68 metric tons would suffice to sink the ship, but luckily the ship's pumps can throw out 15 metric tons in an hour. The average rate of sailing so that it just reaches the shore from where it left as it begins to sink should be:

  • (A) 25 kmph
  • (B) 10 kmph
  • (C) 18 kmph
  • (D) 15 kmph
  • (E) 60 kmph

Question 122:

How many even integers 'n', where, \(100\le n\le200\) are divisible neither by 7 nor by 9?

  • (A) 37
  • (B) 38
  • (C) 39
  • (D) 44
  • (E) 40

Question 123:

The cost of running a movie theatre is Rs. 10,000 per day, plus additional Rs. 5000 per show. The theatre has 200 seats. A new movie released on Friday. There were three shows, where the ticket price was Rs. 250 each for the first two shows and Rs. 200 for the late-night show. For all shows together, total occupancy was 80%. What was the maximum amount of profit possible ?

  • (A) Rs. 1,20,000
  • (B) Rs. 1,16,000
  • (C) Rs. 91,000
  • (D) Rs. 95,000
  • (E) Rs. 87,500

Question 124:

The least common multiple of a number and 990 is 6930. The greatest common divisor of that number and 550 is 110. What is the sum of the digits of the least possible value of that number ?

  • (A) 16
  • (B) 14
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 9
  • (E) 18

Question 125:

How many isosceles triangles with integer sides are possible such that sum of two of the side is 12?

  • (A) 16
  • (B) 17
  • (C) 24
  • (D) 2
  • (E) 23

Question 126:

A student is standing with a banner at the top of a 100 m high college building. From a point on the ground, the angle of elevation of the top of the student is \(60^{\circ}\) and from the same point, the angle of elevation of the top of the tower is \(45^{\circ}\). Find the height of the student ?

  • (A) 35.7 m
  • (B) 75.2 m
  • (C) 50 m
  • (D) 73.2 m
  • (E) 75 m

Question 127:

Pipe A, B and C are kept open and together fill a tank in t minutes. Pipe A is kept open throughout, pipe B is kept open for the first 10 minutes and then closed. Two minutes after pipe B is closed, pipe C is opened and is kept open till the tank is full. Each pipe fills an equal share of the tank. Furthermore, it is known that if pipe A and B are kept open continuously, the tank would be filled completely in t minutes. How long will it take C alone to fill the tank?

  • (A) 20 minutes
  • (B) 24 minutes
  • (C) 32 minutes
  • (D) 48 minutes
  • (E) 18 minutes

Question 128:

a, b, c, d and e are 5 distinct numbers that form an arithmetic progression. They are not necessarily consecutive terms but form the first 5 terms of the AP. It is known that c is the arithmetic mean of a and b, and d is the arithmetic mean of b and c. Determine which of the following statements is / are true in light of the above stated information?

i. Average of all 5 terms put together is c

ii. Average of d and e is not greater than average of a and b

iii. Average of b and c is greater than average of a and d

  • (A) i and ii only
  • (B) i and iii only
  • (C) ii and iii only
  • (D) ii only
  • (E) i, ii and iii

Question 129:

Vijay buys some eggs. After bringing the eggs home, he finds two to be rotten and throws them away. Of the remaining eggs, he puts five-ninth in his fridge, and brings the rest to his mother, Rashmi's house. She cooks two eggs and puts the rest in her fridge. If her fridge cannot hold more than five eggs, what is the maximum possible number of eggs bought by Vijay?

  • (A) 11
  • (B) 17
  • (C) 16
  • (D) 23
  • (E) 20

Question 130:

Some coins are to be put into 7 pockets so that each pocket contains at least one coin. At most 3 of the pockets are to contain the same number of coins, and no two of the remaining pockets are to contain an equal number of coins. What is the least possible number of coins needed for the pockets ?

  • (A) 17
  • (B) 7
  • (C) 28
  • (D) 13
  • (E) 22

Question 131:

Read the Question given below and choose the option that is sufficient to answer the Question.

What is the monthly rent for a certain apartment ?

(1) The monthly rent per person for 4 people to share the rent for the apartment is
(375.

(2) The monthly rent per person for 4 people to share the rent of the apartment is
)125 less than the monthly rent per person for 3 people to share the rent.

  • (A) Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
  • (B) Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient
  • (C) BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient
  • (D) EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
  • (E) Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient

Question 132:

If a certain wheel turns at a constant rate of x revolutions per minute, how many revolutions will the wheel make in k seconds ?

  • (A) \(\frac{kx}{60}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{x}{60k}\)
  • (C) \(kx\)
  • (D) \(x-k\)
  • (E) \(60kx\)

Question 133:

Archit invested an amount of Rs. 13,900 divided in two different schemes A and B at the simple interest rate of 14% p.a. and 11% p.a. respectively. If the total amount of simple interest earned in 2 years is Rs. 3508, then determine the amount invested in Scheme B by Archit?

  • (A) Rs. 6400
  • (B) Rs. 6500
  • (C) Rs. 7200
  • (D) Rs. 7500
  • (E) Rs. 6800

Question 134:

Choose the correct option that should come next in the series given below:

2, 1, (1/2), (1/4), ...

  • (A) (1/16)
  • (B) (2/8)
  • (C) (1/3)
  • (D) (1/32)
  • (E) (1/8)

Question 135:

Two friends, Alka and Alkit appear for an interview for two vacancies for the same post in an Organisation. The probability of Alka's selection is \(1/7\) and Alkit is \(1/5\). What is the probability that only one of them will be selected ?

  • (A) \(1/35\)
  • (B) \(8/15\)
  • (C) \(4/5\)
  • (D) \(4/35\)
  • (E) \(2/7\)

Question 136:

If:

X stands for addition;

+ stands for subtraction;

- stands for division, then,
\(20\times8\div8-4+2\) shall be equal to:

  • (A) 22
  • (B) 15
  • (C) 24
  • (D) 25
  • (E) 30

Question 137:

Read the information provided and answer the question that follows:

Given below in the first chart is the percentage distribution of total cars (MUV & SUV) distributed by 8 dealers, namely, A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H across the country. Similarly, the second chart shows the SUV cars distributed by the same dealers in the year 2023. Further, it is known that the sum total of SUV and MUV cars sold by all the 8 dealers for the year 2023 is 56000 and the total number of SUV cars sold during the same duration is 32000.

The total number of cars sold by the dealer D is by what percentage more than the total number of SUV cars sold by dealers C, F and G together?


% Diagram placeholder

  • (A) 75%
  • (B) 50%
  • (C) 63%
  • (D) 33%
  • (E) 25%

Question 138:

Read the information provided and answer the question that follows:

Given below in the first chart is the percentage distribution of total cars (MUV & SUV) distributed by 8 dealers, namely, A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H across the country. Similarly, the second chart shows the SUV cars distributed by the same dealers in the year 2023. Further, it is known that the sum total of SUV and MUV cars sold by all the 8 dealers for the year 2023 is 56000 and the total number of SUV cars sold during the same duration is 32000.

Determine the ratio between the total number of SUV cars distributed by dealers A and B together and total number of SUV and MUV cars distributed by dealers C and F together?


% Diagram placeholder

  • (A) 54:77
  • (B) 64:73
  • (C) 64:77
  • (D) 1:4.33
  • (E) 64:79

Question 139:

Read the information provided and answer the question that follows:

Given below in the first chart is the percentage distribution of total cars (MUV & SUV) distributed by 8 dealers, namely, A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H across the country. Similarly, the second chart shows the SUV cars distributed by the same dealers in the year 2023. Further, it is known that the sum total of SUV and MUV cars sold by all the 8 dealers for the year 2023 is 56000 and the total number of SUV cars sold during the same duration is 32000.

Determine the average number of MUV cars distributed by dealers A, D, E, F and H together?


% Diagram placeholder

  • (A) 2892
  • (B) 3634
  • (C) 3326
  • (D) 3296
  • (E) 3354

Question 140:

What number shall you get in the unit digit on solving the following problem:
\(\{(6374)^{1793}\times(625)^{317}\times(341^{491})\}\)

  • (A) 0
  • (B) 1
  • (C) 2
  • (D) 3
  • (E) 4

Question 141:

Gajodhar throws two ordinary dice simultaneously. What is the probability that he shall get two numbers whose product shall be an even number?

  • (A) \(1/3\)
  • (B) \(2/3\)
  • (C) \(5/16\)
  • (D) \(3/8\)
  • (E) \(3/4\)

Question 142:

What number must be added to \(16a^{2} - 12a\) to make it a perfect square?

  • (A) \(9/4\)
  • (B) \(13/2\)
  • (C) \(11/2\)
  • (D) \(16/9\)
  • (E) \(13/4\)

Question 143:

There are 8436 steel balls, each with a radius of 1 centimeter, stacked in a pile, with 1 ball on top, 3 balls in the second layer, 6 in the third layer, 10 in the fourth, and so on. Determine the number of horizontal layers in the pile ?

  • (A) 32
  • (B) 36
  • (C) 96
  • (D) 34
  • (E) 24

Question 144:

Identify the Odd One Out from the options provided below:

  • (A) VABK
  • (B) NSTC
  • (C) LQRA
  • (D) QVWE
  • (E) EJKT

Question 145:

Read the passage carefully and answer the question that follows:

Smokejumpers are often asked to address to organizations and the public groups about the importance of fire protection, particularly fire deterrence and detection. Because smoke detectors reduce the risk of dying in a fire by half, smokejumpers often provide audiences with information on how to fix these protective devices in their homes. Specifically, they tell them these things: A smoke detector should be placed on each floor of a home. While sleeping, people are in particular risk of a surfacing fire, and there must be a detector outside each sleeping area. A good site for a detector would be a hallway that runs between living spaces and bedrooms. Because of the dead-air space that might be missed by turbulent hot air bouncing around above a fire, smoke detectors should be installed either on the ceiling at least four inches from the adjoining wall, or high on a wall at least four, but no further than twelve inches from the ceiling. Detectors should not be mounted near windows, exterior doors, or other places where drafts might direct the smoke away from the unit. Nor should they be placed in kitchens and garages, where cooking and gas fumes are likely to cause bogus alarms.

What is the main focus of the author of this passage?

  • (A) How smokejumpers carry out their errands
  • (B) The concealment of dead-air space on walls and ceilings
  • (C) Smokejumpers can take care of fires
  • (D) How smoke detectors thwart fires in homes
  • (E) The proper installation of home smoke detectors

Question 146:

Which word used in the passage is the synonym of LANCET

\textit{Note: The original source text appears to have a typographical error in the question phrasing referencing 'LANCET'. The intended logic points to 'window' based on contextual draft definitions.

  • (A) twelve
  • (B) window
  • (C) inch
  • (D) turbulent
  • (E) smokejumper

Question 147:

The passage indicates that one responsibility of smokejumpers is to:

  • (A) Check homes to see if smoke detectors have been properly installed
  • (B) Install smoke detectors in the homes of residents in the community
  • (C) Develop fire safety programs for public leaders and corporate workers
  • (D) Enhance sales of smoke detectors to corporates
  • (E) Address to corporate companies about the importance of preventing fires

Question 148:

Which of the following should be avoided as per the contents of the passage:

  • (A) Smoke detectors should be placed high on a wall
  • (B) Smoke detectors should be installed in a hallway
  • (C) Bogus alarms
  • (D) Making corporate citizens aware of fire hazards
  • (E) Making fire fighting provisions for dead-air space areas

Question 149:

Which word used in the passage is the antonym of NESCIENCE

  • (A) Deterrence
  • (B) Turbulent
  • (C) Bouncing
  • (D) Smokejumper
  • (E) Detection

Question 150:

Choose the correctly spelt word:

  • (A) Antedisestablishmentarianism
  • (B) Antidisestablishmentarianism
  • (C) Antidistablishmentarianism
  • (D) Antidisestablishantarianism
  • (E) Antidisestablishmentarism

Question 151:

Choose the correctly spelt word:

  • (A) Otrhonolaryngologist
  • (B) Otorhinilyrangologist
  • (C) Otorhinolaryonlogist
  • (D) Otorhinolaryngologist
  • (E) Otorhonolaryngologist

Question 152:

Choose the correctly spelt word:

  • (A) Sesquipedalian
  • (B) Sesquipadalian
  • (C) Sesquisepedalian
  • (D) Sesquipedilian
  • (E) Sesquipedaliain

Question 153:

Choose the correctly spelt word.

  • (A) Pulchritdunous
  • (B) Pulchirutudinous
  • (C) Pulchritudinous
  • (D) Pulchritudinuous
  • (E) Pulchiritudinous

Question 154:

Choose the correctly spelt word:

  • (A) Carmudgeon
  • (B) Curmadgeon
  • (C) Curmudjeon
  • (D) Curmudgon
  • (E) Curmudgeon

Question 155:

Five sentences related to a topic are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a meaningful and coherent short paragraph. Identify the odd one out:

1. Neuroscientists have just begun studying exercise's impact within brain cells on the genes themselves.

2. Even there, in the roots of our biology, they've found signs of the body's influence on the mind.

3. In today's technology-driven, plasma-screened-in world, it's easy to forget that we are born movers-animals, in fact, because we've engineered movement right out of our lives.

4. It turns out that moving our muscles produces proteins that travel through the bloodstream and into the brain, where they play pivotal roles in the mechanisms of our highest thought processes.

5. It's only in the past few years that neuroscientists have begun to describe these factors and how they work, and each new discovery adds awe-inspiring depth to the picture.

  • (A) Sentence 1
  • (B) Sentence 2
  • (C) Sentence 3
  • (D) Sentence 4
  • (E) Sentence 5

Question 156:

Select the grammatically correct sentence:

  • (A) Although he had failed in Mathematics, that he received a Degree in Engineering.
  • (B) Although, having failed Mathematics, he received the Engineering Degree.
  • (C) Although, that he failed in Mathematics, but he received a Degree in Engineering. v
  • (D) Although he had failed in Mathematics, he received a Degree in Engineering.
  • (E) Although he failed in that Mathematics, but he received a Degree in Engineering.

Question 157:

The following are jumbled up parts of a sentence. Rearrange them in a proper sequence:

P: did he realize

Q: helped by a man

R: that he had been

S: he never respected

  • (A) PQRS
  • (B) SRQP
  • (C) SQRP
  • (D) PSRQ
  • (E) PRQS

Question 158:

Choose the option which is opposite in meaning to the word:

Intrepid

  • (A) Amiable
  • (B) Fiendish
  • (C) Cowardly
  • (D) Tranquil
  • (E) Teepid

Question 159:

The five sentences labelled (1, 2, 3, 4, 5) given in this question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a number. Decide on the proper order for the sentences and key in this sequence of five numbers as your answer.

1. Scientists have for the first time managed to edit genes in a human embryo to repair a genetic mutation, fueling hopes that such procedures may one day be available outside laboratory conditions.

2. The cardiac disease causes sudden death in otherwise healthy young athletes and affects about one in 500 people overall.

3. Correcting the mutation in the gene would not only ensure that the child is healthy but also prevents transmission of the mutation to future generations.

4. It is caused by a mutation in a particular gene and a child will suffer from the condition even if it inherits only one copy of the mutated gene.

5. In results announced in Nature this week, scientists fixed a mutation that thickens the heart muscle, a condition called hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.

  • (A) 12345
  • (B) 32514
  • (C) 15243
  • (D) 51243
  • (E) 12435

Question 160:

The five sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4, 5) given in this question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a number. Decide on the proper order for the sentences and key in this sequence of five numbers as your answer.

1. The implications of retelling of Indian stories, hence, takes on new meaning in a modern India.

2. The stories we tell reflect the world around us.

3. We cannot help but retell the stories that we value after all, they are never quite right for us in our time.

4. And even if we manage to get them quite right, they are only right for us other people living around us will have different reasons for telling similar stories.

5. As soon as we capture a story, the world we were trying to capture has changed.

  • (A) 43215
  • (B) 23541
  • (C) 25341
  • (D) 25314
  • (E) 13542

Question 161:

Read the passage given below and answer the question that follows:

Shaw's defense of a theater of ideas brought him up against both his great bugbears-commercialized art on the one hand and Art for Art's Sake on the other... In the end, the errors of "pure" art and of commercialized art are identical: they both appeal primarily to the senses. True art, on the other hand, is not merely a matter of pleasure. It may be unpleasant...

The author sets off the word "pure" with quotation marks in order to :

  • (A) Contrast it with the word "true," which appears later
  • (B) Strip away its negative connotations
  • (C) Suggest that, in this context, it is synonymous with "commercialized"
  • (D) Underscore its importance
  • (E) Emphasize its positive connotations

Question 162:

According to the author, Shaw's didacticism was unusual in that it was characterized by:

  • (A) Moralism
  • (B) Hedonism
  • (C) Dogmatism
  • (D) Idealism
  • (E) Historicism

Question 163:

According to the author, Shaw compares art to tooth-pulling in order to show that:

  • (A) All art has a lasting effect on its audience
  • (B) Even the best works of art go out of date
  • (C) The moral relevance of a work of art must be extracted from the epoch in which it was created
  • (D) Pleasure is not the sole purpose of art
  • (E) True art is painful to the senses

Question 164:

Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate options:

Early ________ by the ________ of maladjustment to college culture is tendency to develop friendship networks outside college which mask signals of maladjustment.

  • (A) identification, complicated
  • (B) treatment, compounded
  • (C) prevention, helped
  • (D) prevention, compounded
  • (E) detection, facilitated

Question 165:

Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate options:

Companies that try to improve employees' performance by ________ rewards encourage negative kinds of behavior instead of ________ a genuine interest in doing the work well.

  • (A) giving, seeking
  • (B) withholding, fostering
  • (C) conferring, fostering
  • (D) connferring, discrediting
  • (E) bestowing, discouraging

Question 166:

Through his discussion of the works and beliefs of Michael Sandel, the author suggests all of the following characteristics of the encumbered self EXCEPT:

  • (A) that it is influenced by history
  • (B) that it maintains many of the interpersonal connections established in childhood
  • (C) that it tries to maintain connections of the past
  • (D) that it is the product of independent accomplishment
  • (E) that it is manifested in those who embrace racial kinship

Question 167:

Read the passage given below and answer the question that follows:

I eschew the notion of racial kinship. I do so in order to be free to claim what the distinguished political theorist Michael Sandel labels "the unencumbered self." ... I shun racial pride because of my conception of what should properly be the object of pride for an individual: something that he or she has accomplished. I cannot feel pride in some state of affairs that is independent of my contribution to it. The color of my skin... and the various other signs that prompt people to label me black constitute such a state of affairs. I did not achieve my racial designation. It was something I inherited...

The author states his definition of "what should properly be the object of pride for an individual" in order to:

  • (A) ensure that readers do not perceive him as having the yearning that Michael Sandel calls a "manifestation of shallow liberalism"
  • (B) gain professional sops
  • (C) undermine what Sandel categorizes as "the unencumbered self"
  • (D) exhibit his support of Frederick Douglass's opinion at the end of paragraph one
  • (E) lay the foundation for his argument against racial solidarity

Question 168:

With an eye towards the passage as a whole, which of the following represents the author's primary focus ?

  • (A) Racial kinship and how its rejection results in accomplishment
  • (B) To identify the success stories of socio-political past of the colored community
  • (C) Focusing on individual versus group consciousness
  • (D) The individual, unencumbered self and the validity of Michael Sandel's position on this type of identity
  • (E) Identity formation as self-definition according to family, history, and culture, or as self-definition according to independent accomplishment

Question 169:

Read the passage carefully and answer the question that follows:

Multitasking has been found to increase the production of the stress hormone cortisol... This expectation is so ingrained that people in meetings routinely answer their cell phones to say, "I'm sorry, I can't talk now, I'm in a meeting." Just a decade or two ago, those same people would have let a landline on their desk go unanswered during a meeting, so different were the expectations for reachability.

According to the passage, why do people in meetings routinely answer their cell phones to say, "I'm sorry, I can't talk now, I'm in a meeting."?

  • (A) Because, it conveys that the receiver is a busy person.
  • (B) Because, in meetings, cell phones allow people to multitask.
  • (C) Because, it is convenient for people to send a message.
  • (D) Because, if you carry a cell phone, you have to reply.
  • (E) Because, people don't mind if somebody takes a brief phone call.

Question 170:

Read the passage given below and answer the question that follows:

Schools expect textbooks to be a valuable source of information... Two researchers, for example, have conducted studies that suggest that children's attitudes about particular cultures are strongly influenced by the textbooks used in schools. Given this, an ongoing, careful review of how school textbooks depict Native Americans is certainly warranted.

Which of the following would most logically be the topic of the paragraph immediately following the passage?

  • (A) The centrality of the teacher's role in United States history courses
  • (B) Nontraditional methods of teaching United States history
  • (C) Ways in which parents influence children's political attitudes
  • (D) Specific ways to evaluate the biases of United States history textbooks
  • (E) The contributions of European immigrants to the development of the United States

Question 171:

The sentences as given below, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled as A, B, C, D and E. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.

A. Surrendered, or captured, combatants cannot be incarcerated in razor wire cages, this 'war' has a dubious legality.

B. How can then one characterize a conflict to be waged against a phenomenon as war?

C. The phrase 'war against terror', which has passed into the common lexicon, is a huge misnomer.

D. Besides, war has a juridical meaning in international law, which has codified the laws of war, imbuing them with a humanitarian content.

E. Terror is a phenomenon, not an entity-either State or non-State

  • (A) ECDBA
  • (B) BECDA
  • (C) EBCAD
  • (D) CDEAB
  • (E) CEBDA

Question 172:

The sentences as given below, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled as A, B, C, D and E. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.

A. To avoid this, the QWERTY layout put the keys most likely to be hit in rapid succession on opposite sides. This made the keyboard slow, the story goes, but that was the idea.

B. A different layout, which had been patented by August Dvorak in 1936, was shown to be much faster.

C. The QWERTY design (patented by Christopher Sholes in 1868 and sold to Remington in 1873) aimed to solve a mechanical problem of early typewriters.

D. Yet the Dvorak layout has never been widely adopted, even though (with electric typewriters and then PCs) the anti-jamming rational for QWERTY has been defunct for years.

E. When certain combinations of keys were struck quickly, the type bars often jammed.

  • (A) CEABD
  • (B) CAEBD
  • (C) CBAED
  • (D) ECABD
  • (E) ABDCE

Question 173:

Choose the option that best describes the idiom given below:

To catch a tartar

  • (A) To be on a tricky path
  • (B) To deal with someone or something that is difficult to handle
  • (C) To get your reputation sullied
  • (D) To catch a dangerous person
  • (E) To be stuck in a problematic situation

Question 174:

Read the passage given below carefully and answer the question that follows:

... Chance provides more than enough variation to account for the sprinkling of successes that will occur with almost any treatment, indeed, it would be a miracle if there weren't any "miracle cures."

The claim that "it would be a miracle if there weren't any 'miracle cures'" would be most weakened by evidence that showed that:

  • (A) the possibility of improvement is nonexistent during the course of many illnesses
  • (B) some patients recover from illness without any sort of intervention at all
  • (C) most illnesses cure themselves
  • (D) some crackpot treatments have turned out to have authentic medical benefit
  • (E) the number of fraudulent medical practitioners has dwindled considerably

Question 175:

Read the passage given below carefully and answer the question that follows:

...However, just as the existence of pink does not undermine the distinction between red and white, and dawn doesn't indicate that day and night are really the same, this problematic fringe area doesn't negate the fundamental differences between science and its impostors...

Doctors and scientists continue to debate whether certain types of alternative medicine are scientific or pseudo-scientific. How is this information relevant to the passage?

  • (A) It strengthens the claim that there is a fundamental difference between medicine and science
  • (B) pseudo-science alone has healed many an illnesses
  • (C) It weakens the claim that the scientific method is useful in sorting science from pseudo-science
  • (D) It weakens the claim that one can hold on to whatever pet theory one fancies
  • (E) It strengthens the claim that science and pseudoscience cannot always be distinguished

Question 176:

Read the passage given below carefully and answer the question that follows:

...The philosopher Willard Van Orman Quine ventures even further and maintains that experience never forces one to reject any particular belief. He views science as an integrated web of interconnecting hypotheses, procedures, and formalisms, and argues that any impact of the world on the web can be distributed in many different ways. If we're willing to make drastic enough changes in the rest of the web of our beliefs, the argument goes, we can hold to our belief in the efficacy of the above diet, or indeed in the validity of any pseudoscience.

The author of the passage would most likely inclined to agree with the individual who argues that Willard Van Orman Quine's philosophical views are:

  • (A) bankrupt, because they do not apply to any particular situation
  • (B) callous as they do not serve any purpose
  • (C) extreme, because some beliefs can be proven to be either true or false
  • (D) flawed, because they do not explain why anyone would reject any belief
  • (E) insightful, because any set of beliefs has to be as valid as any other

Question 177:

Select the option that is most nearly the opposite in meaning to the word given below:

Fiendish

  • (A) Bashful
  • (B) Callous
  • (C) Complacent
  • (D) Sympathetic
  • (E) Incomplete

Question 178:

Choose the option which best expresses the meaning of the given word:

ELEGIAC

  • (A) Peaceful
  • (B) Mournful
  • (C) Confused
  • (D) Cheerful
  • (E) Restless

Question 179:

Select the option that is most nearly the opposite in meaning to the word given below:

Acme

  • (A) Condition of oily human skin
  • (B) Pimple
  • (C) Volcano
  • (D) Palatial
  • (E) Lowest

Question 180:

Choose the option which best expresses the meaning of the given word:

Emancipate

\textit{Note: The provided source options and answer key indicate a search for an antonym rather than a synonym, despite the question phrasing.

  • (A) Rigorous
  • (B) Healthy
  • (C) Royal
  • (D) Enslave
  • (E) Long Rope

Question 181:

Select the option that is most nearly the opposite in meaning to the word given below:

Sanguine

  • (A) Bellicose
  • (B) Red Skinned
  • (C) Pessimistic
  • (D) Gladiatorial
  • (E) Technical

Question 182:

Select the option that is most nearly the opposite in meaning to the word given below:

Wrench

  • (A) Seal
  • (B) Yank
  • (C) Abstract
  • (D) Tug
  • (E) Rip

Question 183:

Choose the option that best describes the idiom given below:

Thick as two short planks

  • (A) In deep trouble
  • (B) Having lack of intelligence
  • (C) Preservationist
  • (D) Brouchoart
  • (E) Being in bad company

Question 184:

Choose the option that best describes the idiom given below:

On the breadline

  • (A) Dieting to reduce weight
  • (B) Beinng in a risky position
  • (C) Suffering from boredom
  • (D) Planning food consumption to increase body weight
  • (E) Being in condition of poverty

Question 185:

Choose the option that best describes the meaning of the sentence given below:

Use of mild words in place of words required by truth

  • (A) Euphemism
  • (B) Cinephile
  • (C) Misobiblic
  • (D) Pessimistic
  • (E) Rapacious

Question 186:

Choose the option which best expresses the meaning of the word given below:

VITUPERATE

  • (A) Teach
  • (B) Warn
  • (C) Abuse
  • (D) Appreciate
  • (E) Hail

Question 187:

Choose the option which best expresses the meaning of the word given below:

CONTRITE

  • (A) Penitent
  • (B) Bashful
  • (C) Joyful
  • (D) Remorseless
  • (E) Conniving

Question 188:

Read the passage given below and answer the question that follows:

...In legal and health care services, it may mislead clients by suggesting that lawsuits or medical procedures will have guaranteed outcomes. Indeed, professional service firms with outstanding reputations and performance to match have little to gain from offering unconditional guarantees...

The passage's description of the issue raised by unconditional guarantees for health care or legal services most clearly implies that which of the following is true?

  • (A) Clients whose lawsuits or medical procedures have unsatisfactory outcomes cannot be adequately compensated by financial settlements alone
  • (B) Predicting the monetary cost of legal or health care services is more difficult than predicting the monetary cost of other types of professional services
  • (C) The legal and medical professions have standards of practice that would be violated by attempts to fulfill such unconditional guarantees
  • (D) The dignity of the legal and medical professions is undermined by any attempts at marketing of professional services, including unconditional guarantees
  • (E) The result of a lawsuit or medical procedure cannot necessarily be determined in advance by the professionals handling a client's case

Question 189:

Read the passage given below carefully and answer the question that follows:

...The completion of the first U.S. transcontinental highway during the 1920s for example, inaugurated a new genre of travel literature about the United States-the automotive or road narrative. Such narratives highlight the experiences of mostly male protagonists "discovering themselves" on their journeys, emphasizing the independence of road travel and the value of rural folk traditions.

According to the passage, which of the following options could most appropriately be attributed to the American travel literature of the 1920's ?

  • (A) It developed the male protagonists' desire for independence
  • (B) That women could not be bracketed as good solo travellers
  • (C) It presented travellers' discovery of their identity as different from others
  • (D) It celebrated the freedom that travel gives
  • (E) It showed participation in local traditions

Question 190:

Homichlophobia is the fear of:

  • (A) Homo Sapiens
  • (B) Being alone
  • (C) Height
  • (D) Fox
  • (E) Fog

Question 191:

A person suffering from Aichmophobia is most likely to be afraid of which of the following object?

  • (A) Computers
  • (B) Text Books
  • (C) Back Aches
  • (D) Knives
  • (E) Tooth Aches

Section-wise Distribution of Questions and Marks

Section Number of Questions Marks per Question Total Marks
Logical Reasoning 75 1 75
Quantitative Aptitude 50 1 50
Verbal Ability / Reading Comprehension 50 1 50
Total 200 1 200