TISSNET, was an entrance exam conducted by Tata Institute of Social Sciences (TISS) at the all-India level for admission to its various postgraduate programs. However, from the 2023-24 academic session, TISS has adopted the CUET-PG for Postgraduate programs and CAT scores for a few courses, where the TISSNET exam is no more applicable.

TISSNET ( COQP11 - General, L.L.B., Bachelor of Library & Information Science, Defence and Strategic Studies) Question Paper With Solution PDF is  available here.

TISSNET LLB Question Paper 2024 PDF Download

TISSNET LLB Question Paper 2024 with Answer Key download iconDownload Check Solutions

TISSNET LLB 2024 Questions with Solutions

Question 1:

Which of the following is not a feature of a high stimulation home?

  • (A) Parents have more free time
  • (B) Toys are made available to the child
  • (C) The child has access to books
  • (D) There is less space inside the home
Correct Answer: (D) There is less space inside the home
View Solution

The passage describes homes with high stimulation based on the availability of toys, space, books, and the type of leisure-time activities parents engage in. These homes are characterized by an enriched environment where the child has access to various learning tools. The option "There is less space inside the home" contradicts the concept of high stimulation, as such homes typically have more space for various activities. Therefore, the correct answer is option (D). }}Quick Tip: Focus on the features specifically mentioned in the passage when identifying key characteristics of high stimulation homes. Eliminate options that do not match the described conditions.


Question 2:

Which of the following statements are true?

  • (A) A child’s development is not related to the stimulation at home.
  • (B) Scientists identified six aspects of studying the growth and development of infants.
  • (C) Intellectual and motor development are not essential aspects of studying a child’s growth.
  • (D) There are negligible differences among students from adequately and non-adequately nourished groups of children.
Correct Answer: (B) Scientists identified six aspects of studying the growth and development of infants.
View Solution

The passage highlights the importance of stimulation at home for a child's development, contradicting statement (A). Additionally, it mentions that six aspects were identified for studying growth and development, confirming the truth of statement (B). Intellectual and motor development are indeed essential aspects of studying child growth, which makes statement (C) false. The passage also emphasizes significant differences between adequately and inadequately nourished children, which makes statement (D) incorrect. }}Quick Tip: Carefully assess each statement based on the passage's content. Identify facts that directly match the passage's claims and eliminate those that are contradicted by the text.


Question 3:

Which of the following features are not included in the various aspects of studying the growth and development of infants?

  • (A) Availability of Toys
  • (B) Emotional Growth
  • (C) Language Skills
  • (D) Activity Level
Correct Answer: (B) Emotional Growth
View Solution

According to the passage, the aspects of studying growth and development include activity level, language skills, and availability of toys. However, emotional growth is not explicitly mentioned as part of these aspects. Thus, option (B) is the correct answer. }}Quick Tip: Focus on the specific aspects mentioned in the passage. Disregard any options that are not directly referenced or described in the text.


Question 4:

Choose the appropriate word from the passage to fill in the blank meaningfully. Well children show better motor skills as compared to the less nourished.

  • (A) Nourished
  • (B) Engaged
  • (C) Associated
  • (D) Favoured
Correct Answer: (A) Nourished
View Solution

The passage makes a direct comparison between well-nourished and less-nourished children, indicating that well-nourished children show better development in motor skills. The word "Nourished" fits perfectly in this context, as it contrasts the two groups discussed in the passage. Therefore, option (A) is the correct word. }}Quick Tip: Contextual understanding is key to selecting the correct word. Ensure that the word you choose fits logically with the surrounding information provided in the passage.


Question 5:

Choose the most appropriate title for the passage:

  • (A) Importance of Child Welfare Schemes
  • (B) Child Management — A Myth
  • (C) Factors Influencing Stimulation in Adolescence
  • (D) The Case of Variation in Differing Nourished Groups of Children
Correct Answer: (D) The Case of Variation in Differing Nourished Groups of Children
View Solution

The passage discusses the variations in growth and development between children who are adequately nourished and those who are not. This makes option (D) the most fitting title. The passage does not focus on child welfare schemes, child management myths, or adolescence, which makes options (A), (B), and (C) less suitable. }}Quick Tip: When choosing a title, focus on the main theme of the passage. A good title reflects the most prominent idea presented in the text.


Question 6:

Complete the sentences in List 1 with the correct question tag in List 2.

  • (A) Parul has eaten, hasn't she?
  • (B) Pinki made this cake, did she?
  • (C) Tina has nothing left, has she?
  • (D) Sumaira isn't participating, is she?
Correct Answer: (A) Parul has eaten, hasn't she?
View Solution

The correct question tag follows the rule of matching the auxiliary verb (or verb) and the subject in the sentence. - In sentence A, "Parul has eaten" uses the auxiliary verb "has," and the negative form of the auxiliary verb (to match the positive sentence) is "hasn't." Thus, the correct question tag is "hasn't she?" - Similarly, analyzing other options: - (B) "Pinki made this cake" is in the past tense, so the question tag should be "did she?" - (C) "Tina has nothing left" is a positive statement with "has," so the question tag should be "has she?" - (D) "Sumaira isn't participating" is a negative statement, so the tag must be positive, i.e., "is she?" Thus, the correct answer is option (A). }}Quick Tip: To identify the correct question tag, match the auxiliary verb or verb tense used in the statement with the corresponding question tag. For negative statements, the tag will be positive, and for positive statements, the tag will be negative.


Question 7:

Choose the phrase which means "to limit someone's ability".

  • (A) Clip one's wings
  • (B) Feather in one's cap
  • (C) Hold somebody to ransom
  • (D) Pull one's socks up
Correct Answer: (A) Clip one's wings
View Solution

"Clip one's wings" is an idiomatic expression meaning to limit someone's ability or freedom.
- Option (B), "Feather in one's cap," means an achievement or accomplishment, not limiting someone's ability.
- Option (C), "Hold somebody to ransom," refers to a situation where someone is forced to do something due to threats or coercion.
- Option (D), "Pull one's socks up," means to make an effort or improve, not limit someone's ability.
Thus, the correct answer is option (A). }}Quick Tip: In idioms, pay attention to their meanings rather than the literal translation. Some phrases, like "clip one's wings," refer to restricting or limiting someone's actions.


Question 8:

Which of the following words are spelled correctly?

  • (A) Commission
  • (B) Accomodation
  • (C) Unneccesary
  • (D) Receiver
  • (E) Memento
Correct Answer: (A) Commission, (D) Receiver, and (E) Memento
View Solution

- Option (A) "Commission" is correctly spelled.
- Option (B) "Accomodation" is misspelled; the correct spelling is "Accommodation" with two "c's."
- Option (C) "Unneccesary" is also misspelled; the correct spelling is "Unnecessary" with only one "c."
- Option (D) "Receiver" is correctly spelled.
- Option (E) "Memento" is correctly spelled.
Thus, the correct answer is options (A), (D), and (E). }}Quick Tip: When in doubt about spelling, use a dictionary or spell checker. Common misspellings often occur with double consonants, so check for consistency in such words.


Question 9:

Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate words from the options given below.

  • (A) heard, empire's
  • (B) herd, empire's
  • (C) heard, umpire's
  • (D) herd, umpire's
Correct Answer: (C) heard, umpire's
View Solution

- "Heard" refers to the past tense of hearing, and "umpire's" refers to something belonging to the umpire (in a sports context).
- The phrase "When he heard the final decision, he quietly picked up his bat and left" makes sense with these words.
- "Herd" refers to a group of animals, which is not appropriate in this context. Thus, the correct answer is option (C). }}Quick Tip: Pay attention to the context in which the words are used. "Heard" is related to listening, and "umpire's" is the correct possessive form in sports.


Question 10:

Fill in the blanks with the appropriate articles: The workers were assured that ___________ unanimous vote will be the only deciding factor in Union election in July.

  • (A) an, the
  • (B) a, the
  • (C) the, an
  • (D) the, a
Correct Answer: (A) an, the
View Solution

- "An" is used before words starting with a vowel sound, and "the" is used for specific nouns.
- "Unanimous" starts with a vowel sound, so "an" is the correct article.
- "The" is appropriate before "deciding factor," as it refers to something specific in the context of the sentence. Thus, the correct answer is option (A). }}Quick Tip: Remember to use "an" before words that begin with a vowel sound, and "the" when referring to something specific or known in the context.


Question 11:

Choose the correct meaning of the term "Envisage" from the options given below: \flushleft

  • (A) Capture in war
  • (B) Mass exit from a place
  • (C) A grand scenery
  • (D) Foresee in mind
Correct Answer: (D) Foresee in mind
View Solution

The term "envisage" means to contemplate or visualize something in one's mind. It is most closely associated with foreseeing or imagining an event or future situation. Therefore, the correct meaning of "Envisage" is to "foresee in mind." Thus, the correct answer is \( \boxed{(D)} \). }}Quick Tip: When encountering difficult vocabulary words, try breaking them down into their roots or related terms. "Envisage" comes from the word "vision," which helps link it to the idea of imagining or foreseeing.


Question 12:

Identify the antonym of the given word: CORPULENT

  • (A) Sallow
  • (B) Suppliant
  • (C) Flaccid
  • (D) Emaciated
Correct Answer: (D) Emaciated
View Solution

The word "corpulent" means having a large, bulky body, often associated with being overweight. The antonym of "corpulent" would be a term that signifies extreme thinness. "Emaciated" refers to someone who is abnormally thin or weak, especially due to lack of nourishment or illness. Thus, the correct answer is \( \boxed{(D)} \). }}Quick Tip: To identify antonyms, think about the opposite quality of the word. For physical characteristics like "corpulent," terms like "emaciated" (extremely thin) are likely to be opposites.


Question 13:

The following sentences have been jumbled. Choose the option that rearranges the given sentences to form a coherent and meaningful paragraph.
(A). Archacology. on the one hand, created a more acute sense among historians as the inscriptions unearthed by archeologists were more reliable foundations of historical knowledge.
(B). An important development in the nineteenth century that shaped the terms of this discourse was the gradual extension of archaeological knowledge.
(C). The iconographical materials. available from fresco paintings and temple structures, brought before the public a feeling of excellence about Indian art.
(D). On the other hand. it also made a significant contribution to discussions on Indian artistic traditions.

  • (A) (A), (D), (B), (C)
  • (B) (A), (B), (C), (D)
  • (C) (B), (A), (D), (C)
  • (D) (C), (B), (D), (A)
Correct Answer: (B) (A), (B), (C), (D)
View Solution

- Sentence (A) begins with the introduction to archaeology and its effect on historical knowledge.
- Sentence (B) follows logically, explaining a key development in the 19th century that extended archaeological knowledge.
- Sentence (C) gives further details on the influence of archaeology in the study of Indian art.
- Sentence (D) discusses how archaeology contributed to discussions about Indian art. Thus, the correct arrangement of sentences is: (A), (B), (C), (D). }}Quick Tip: When rearranging jumbled sentences, identify the logical flow of ideas. Often, the first sentence introduces a broad idea, followed by supporting sentences and concluding thoughts.


Question 14:

Fill in the blank with the most appropriately spelled option. We need to find a way to ___________ the possibility of human error in the process of creating simulations predicting road accidents.

  • (A) Accommodate
  • (B) Accomodate
  • (C) Acommodate
  • (D) Acomodate
Correct Answer: (A) Accommodate
View Solution

The correct spelling of the word is "accommodate," which means to make room for or allow for something. The other options are incorrect spellings of the word. Thus, the correct answer is \( \boxed{(A)} \). }}Quick Tip: When dealing with commonly confused spellings, remember that "accommodate" requires a double "c" and "m." A simple mnemonic is to think of accommodating two "c"s and "m"s in the word.


Question 15:

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word. The committee ___________ and there is bitterness among the members.

  • (A) have not
  • (B) are
  • (C) is
  • (D) were
Correct Answer: (C) is
View Solution

The subject "committee" is singular, so the correct verb form is "is" to match the singular subject. Thus, the correct answer is \( \boxed{(C)} \). }}Quick Tip: When selecting a verb for collective nouns like "committee," use the singular form if the noun is considered as a single entity. "Is" is the correct form here.


Question 16:

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate one-word substitution. Nothing beats the taste of honey fresh from the ___________.

  • (A) apiary
  • (B) aviary
  • (C) cemetery
  • (D) arena
Correct Answer: (A) apiary
View Solution

An "apiary" is a place where bees are kept, and it is where honey is produced. The other options are incorrect as they refer to places unrelated to honey production. Thus, the correct answer is \( \boxed{(A)} \). }}Quick Tip: Remember that "apiary" is specifically associated with the place where bees are kept, while the other options refer to birds, graves, or places of combat.


Question 17:

Who is the founder of 'Satya Shodhak Samaj'?

  • (A) V. R. Shinde
  • (B) Jyotiba Phule
  • (C) Mukundrao Patil
  • (D) B. R. Ambedkar
Correct Answer: (B) Jyotiba Phule
View Solution

The 'Satya Shodhak Samaj' (Truth-Seeking Society) was founded by Jyotiba Phule in 1873. This organization worked towards the eradication of untouchability and caste discrimination in India. Thus, the correct answer is \( \boxed{(B)} \). }}Quick Tip: Remember the key historical figures and their contributions to social reforms. Jyotiba Phule was one of the pioneers in the fight against caste-based discrimination.


Question 18:

In which game 'Golden Ball Award' is presented?

  • (A) Hockey
  • (B) Football
  • (C) Basketball
  • (D) Volleyball
Correct Answer: (B) Football
View Solution

The 'Golden Ball Award' is presented to the best player of the FIFA World Cup, which is a football tournament. The award is given to the player who performs outstandingly during the competition. Thus, the correct answer is \( \boxed{(B)} \). }}Quick Tip: Remember that the 'Golden Ball Award' is a prestigious recognition in football, specifically in the context of the FIFA World Cup.


Question 19:

In India, 'Blue Revolution' is related to:

  • (A) Increase in Textile Production
  • (B) Increase in Fish Production
  • (C) Increase in Oil-seeds Production
  • (D) Increase in Milk Production
Correct Answer: (B) Increase in Fish Production
View Solution

The 'Blue Revolution' in India refers to the significant increase in fish production, especially through aquaculture and inland fisheries. This revolution has helped boost fish production in India to ensure food security and economic growth. Thus, the correct answer is \( \boxed{(B)} \). }}Quick Tip: The term 'Blue Revolution' is often associated with improvements in fish farming and aquatic resource management. It's similar to the 'Green Revolution' for agriculture.


Question 20:

Bleaching powder is used as:

  • (A) A disinfectant
  • (B) A fertilizer
  • (C) A preservative for pickles
  • (D) An antiseptic after shave
Correct Answer: (A) A disinfectant
View Solution

Bleaching powder, also known as calcium hypochlorite, is commonly used as a disinfectant. It is used for water purification, cleaning, and removing stains. It is not used for the purposes listed in the other options. Thus, the correct answer is \( \boxed{(A)} \). }}Quick Tip: Bleaching powder is effective for disinfecting purposes due to its chlorine content, which helps in eliminating harmful microorganisms.


Question 21:

In which country is Mt. Kilimanjaro formed due to volcanic eruption?

  • (A) Tanzania
  • (B) Iran
  • (C) Russia
  • (D) Balochistan
Correct Answer: (A) Tanzania
View Solution

Mt. Kilimanjaro, located in Tanzania, is the highest mountain in Africa, formed due to volcanic activity. It is made up of three volcanic cones: Kibo, Mawenzi, and Shira. These cones were formed from past volcanic eruptions. Mt. Kilimanjaro is currently dormant, but its majestic presence makes it one of the most recognized landmarks in Africa. Thus, the correct answer is \boxed{(A) \text{Tanzania. }}Quick Tip: When studying volcanic formations, note that many mountains in volcanic regions are formed from multiple eruptions over millions of years. Kilimanjaro is one such example.


Question 22:

In Industries, abbreviation WPI stands for:

  • (A) World Profit Index
  • (B) Wholesale Profit Index
  • (C) World Products Identification
  • (D) Wholesale Price Index
Correct Answer: (D) Wholesale Price Index
View Solution

WPI stands for Wholesale Price Index, which is a vital economic indicator used to measure the price changes in the wholesale market. It tracks the price changes of goods before they reach the retail level, helping in understanding inflationary trends. The WPI is an important tool for governments and central banks in setting policies. Thus, the correct answer is \boxed{(D) \text{Wholesale Price Index. }}Quick Tip: WPI is used by economic planners to monitor inflation. It's an early indicator of price changes, which can affect retail prices.


Question 23:

Which state of India has the highest elephant-populated region?

  • (A) Karnataka
  • (B) Kerala
  • (C) Madhya Pradesh
  • (D) Assam
Correct Answer: (D) Assam
View Solution

Assam has the highest elephant population in India. The state is home to several national parks such as Kaziranga National Park, which protects the largest population of Asian elephants. The state's rich forested areas and conservation efforts have made it the leader in terms of elephant population. Thus, the correct answer is \boxed{(D) \text{Assam. }}Quick Tip: Elephants are often concentrated in protected wildlife sanctuaries. Kaziranga in Assam is one of the largest sanctuaries for elephants in India.


Question 24:

In which city was the 2023 World Cup final Cricket match played?

  • (A) Kolkata
  • (B) Mumbai
  • (C) New Delhi
  • (D) Ahmedabad
Correct Answer: (D) Ahmedabad
View Solution

The final match of the 2023 ICC Cricket World Cup was held in Ahmedabad, India, at the Narendra Modi Stadium. This stadium is the largest cricket stadium in the world and was chosen to host the final due to its state-of-the-art facilities and enormous capacity. Thus, the correct answer is \boxed{(D) \text{Ahmedabad. }}Quick Tip: Major cricket tournaments often feature world-class stadiums. Pay attention to the host city for significant matches, as they tend to choose locations with great infrastructure.


Question 25:

In which state is the India International Science Festival (IISF) 2023 being organized?

  • (A) Kerala
  • (B) Madhya Pradesh
  • (C) Haryana
  • (D) Karnataka
Correct Answer: (B) Madhya Pradesh
View Solution

The India International Science Festival (IISF) 2023 is being organized in Madhya Pradesh, a state in central India known for its focus on education and scientific advancements. The IISF is designed to bring together scientists, students, and the general public to encourage the pursuit of science. Thus, the correct answer is \boxed{(B) \text{Madhya Pradesh. }}Quick Tip: Scientific festivals like IISF help in spreading awareness and fostering scientific temper among the public. Keep an eye on the venues to understand a region's emphasis on innovation.


Question 26:

Which of the following day is celebrated on 5th December every year?

  • (A) International Volunteer Day
  • (B) World Soil Day
  • (C) National Education Day
  • (D) World Teacher's Day
Correct Answer: (A) International Volunteer Day
View Solution

International Volunteer Day is celebrated annually on 5th December to recognize the contribution of volunteers around the world. This day highlights the importance of volunteer work and encourages more people to participate in volunteer activities. Thus, the correct answer is \boxed{(A)} \text{International Volunteer Day. }Quick Tip: International Volunteer Day reminds us of the significant role volunteers play in building communities and supporting global causes. Volunteering is an act of kindness that benefits both individuals and society.


Question 27:

Vigilance Awareness Week 2023, whose theme was "Say no to corruption; commit to the Nation,” was being observed from:

  • (A) September 30 to October 6, 2023
  • (B) October 30 to November 5, 2023
  • (C) September 01 to September 7, 2023
  • (D) November 14 to November 20, 2023
Correct Answer: (B) October 30 to November 5, 2023
View Solution

Vigilance Awareness Week 2023 was observed from October 30 to November 5, 2023. The theme of the week was "Say no to corruption; commit to the Nation." This initiative was part of the government's ongoing efforts to raise awareness about corruption and promote transparency and accountability in public life. Thus, the correct answer is \boxed{(B) \text{October 30 to November 5, 2023. }}Quick Tip: Vigilance Awareness Week is an annual event aimed at promoting anti-corruption activities and encouraging a transparent and ethical approach in both public and private sectors.


Question 28:

How many Trophies of ICC ODI World Cup wins by Australia and India (men) respectively?

  • (A) 5 and 3
  • (B) 6 and 2
  • (C) 6 and 1
  • (D) 5 and 2
Correct Answer: (A) 5 and 3
View Solution

As of 2023, Australia has won the ICC ODI World Cup 5 times, while India has won it 3 times. Australia's victories came in 1987, 1999, 2003, 2007, and 2015, while India's wins were in 1983 and 2007, and more recently, 2011. Thus, the correct answer is \boxed{(A) \text{5 and 3. }}Quick Tip: The ICC ODI World Cup is one of the most prestigious cricket tournaments. Australia has been the most successful team in the history of the World Cup, while India has secured multiple victories as well.


Question 29:

Where was the G20 Summit held in Delhi in 2023?

  • (A) India House
  • (B) Rashtrapati Bhawan
  • (C) Bharat Mandapam
  • (D) Sansad Bhawan
Correct Answer: (C) Bharat Mandapam
View Solution

The G20 Summit 2023 in Delhi was held at Bharat Mandapam. Bharat Mandapam is an iconic venue for international events, and it was chosen for the G20 summit in India to showcase the country’s leadership and global engagement. Thus, the correct answer is \boxed{(C) \text{Bharat Mandapam. }}Quick Tip: The G20 Summit is a critical international event where world leaders meet to discuss global issues. Bharat Mandapam was selected as the venue for its advanced facilities and its significance in India’s cultural landscape.


Question 30:

Match List I with List II:

  • (A) Bharatnatyam
    (B) Kuchipudi
    (C) Odissi
    (D) Mohiniyattam
  • (I) Vedantam Lakshminarayan
    (II) Hema Malini
    (III) K Kallyankutty Amma
    (IV) Kelucharan Mohapatra
Correct Answer: (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
View Solution

Bharatnatyam is performed by Hema Malini, who is renowned for her contribution to classical Indian dance (II).
Kuchipudi is famously performed by Vedantam Lakshminarayan, a leading exponent of this dance style (I).
Odissi is famously performed by Kelucharan Mohapatra, a legendary figure in the Odissi dance form (IV).
Mohiniyattam is performed by K Kallyankutty Amma, one of the pioneers in this dance style (III). Thus, the correct answer is \boxed{(A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I). }}Quick Tip: Indian classical dances each have unique styles, forms, and renowned performers. Knowing the key exponents of each dance form can help you identify their respective styles and contributions.


Question 31:

In January 2024, which IIT's team created the first high-resolution landslide risk map for India?

  • (A) IIT Delhi
  • (B) IIT Madras
  • (C) IIT Bombay
  • (D) IIT Roorkee
Correct Answer: (D) IIT Roorkee
View Solution

In January 2024, IIT Roorkee's team created the first high-resolution landslide risk map for India. This breakthrough is significant in the field of disaster management as it provides detailed insights into the geographical areas most prone to landslides, enabling better preparation and prevention strategies. Thus, the correct answer is \boxed{(D) \text{IIT Roorkee. }}Quick Tip: Landslide risk mapping is crucial for disaster management. High-resolution maps help in identifying vulnerable areas, enabling authorities to take proactive measures.


Question 32:

The dimensional formula of energy is:

  • (A) [ML²T²]
  • (B) [ML²T³]
  • (C) [MLT²]
  • (D) [MLT]
Correct Answer: (A) [ML²T²]
View Solution

The dimensional formula of energy can be derived from the formula for kinetic energy: \[ E = \frac{1}{2} mv^2 \] where \( m \) is the mass and \( v \) is the velocity. The dimensional formula for mass \( m \) is \([M]\), and for velocity \( v \), it is \([LT^{-1}]\). Thus, the dimensional formula for energy is: \[ E = [M][LT^{-1}]^2 = [M][L^2T^{-2}] = [ML^2T^{-2}] \] Therefore, the correct dimensional formula is \boxed{(A) [ML^2T^{-2]. }}Quick Tip: The dimensional formula of energy is derived from the basic formulae of mechanical energy like kinetic energy and potential energy.


Question 33:

Which Union Territory (UT) became the first UT to implement PM Vishwakarma Yojana (PMVY)?

  • (A) Chandigarh
  • (B) Lakshadweep
  • (C) Jammu and Kashmir
  • (D) Ladakh
Correct Answer: (C) Jammu and Kashmir
View Solution

PM Vishwakarma Yojana (PMVY) was implemented in Jammu and Kashmir, making it the first Union Territory to adopt this initiative. The scheme focuses on skill development and financial assistance for artisans and craftsmen, particularly in regions with diverse handicrafts and traditional industries. Thus, the correct answer is \boxed{(C) \text{Jammu and Kashmir. }}Quick Tip: The PM Vishwakarma Yojana aims to support the artisans and craftsmen by providing them with modern skills and financial aid to enhance their livelihoods.


Question 34:

Which pair has recently (January 2024) won the men's doubles title of the Australian Open tennis tournament?

  • (A) Simone Bolelli and Andrea Vavasori
  • (B) Rohan Bopanna and Matthew Ebden
  • (C) Wesley Kohloff and Nikola Mektic
  • (D) Tomas Maahak and Zhizhen
Correct Answer: (B) Rohan Bopanna and Matthew Ebden
View Solution

In January 2024, Rohan Bopanna and Matthew Ebden won the men's doubles title at the Australian Open. Their victory marks a significant achievement in their careers, demonstrating their skills and teamwork on one of the biggest stages in tennis. Thus, the correct answer is \boxed{(B) \text{Rohan Bopanna and Matthew Ebden. }}Quick Tip: Winning a Grand Slam doubles title requires excellent coordination and teamwork between partners. The Australian Open is one of the four prestigious Grand Slam tournaments.


Question 35:

The Government, on the advice of the National Advisory Council, passed the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act in:

  • (A) Employment Guarantee Act, 2005
  • (B) Employment Guarantee Act, 2007
  • (C) Employment Guarantee Act, 2003
  • (D) Employment Guarantee Act, 2006
Correct Answer: (A) Employment Guarantee Act, 2005
View Solution

The National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA), which is now known as the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA), was passed in 2005. The act guarantees 100 days of wage employment to rural households, with a focus on sustainable development and reducing rural poverty. Thus, the correct answer is \boxed{(A) \text{Employment Guarantee Act, 2005. }}Quick Tip: MGNREGA is one of the most significant welfare programs in India, designed to provide financial security to rural families through employment opportunities.


Question 36:

Match List I with List II
\begin{tabular{|l|l| \hline List I (Scheme) & List II (Date of Announcement)
\hline 1. Swachh Bharat Mission & I. 12 April 2005
2. Beti Bachao Beti Padhao & II. 2 October, 2014
3. Atal Pension Yojana & III. 22 January, 2015
4. Janani Suraksha Yojana & IV. 9 May, 2015
\hline \end{tabular Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (1) - (I), (2) - (II), (3) - (III), (4) - (IV)
  • (B) (1) - (IV), (2) - (III), (3) - (II), (4) - (I)
  • (C) (1) - (III), (2) - (IV), (3) - (I), (4) - (II)
  • (D) (1) - (II), (2) - (IV), (3) - (I), (4) - (III)
Correct Answer: (A) (1) - (I), (2) - (II), (3) - (III), (4) - (IV)
View Solution

The schemes listed in List I were launched on the following dates: 1. Swachh Bharat Mission: Launched on 2 October 2014 as a part of Mahatma Gandhi's birth anniversary celebrations, this mission aims to clean streets, roads, and infrastructure across India.
2. Beti Bachao Beti Padhao: Announced on 22 January 2015, this scheme focuses on preventing gender-biased sex-selective elimination, ensuring education, and empowering girls.
3. Atal Pension Yojana: Launched on 9 May 2015, this scheme aims to provide pension benefits to individuals in the unorganized sector.
4. Janani Suraksha Yojana: Launched on 12 April 2005, this scheme ensures safe motherhood by providing financial assistance to pregnant women for institutional deliveries. Thus, the correct matching is: 1. Swachh Bharat Mission - II (2 October 2014)
2. Beti Bachao Beti Padhao - III (22 January 2015)
3. Atal Pension Yojana - IV (9 May 2015)
4. Janani Suraksha Yojana - I (12 April 2005)
Therefore, the correct answer is \boxed{(A) (1) - (I), (2) - (II), (3) - (III), (4) - (IV). }}Quick Tip: The correct matching of schemes and their respective launch dates is essential for understanding the timeline of welfare schemes in India. These schemes play a vital role in addressing social and economic issues.


Question 37:

Which one of the following is an example of an ‘internet search engine’?

  • (A) LINUX
  • (B) Yahoo
  • (C) MS Word
  • (D) MS Windows
Correct Answer: (B) Yahoo
View Solution

An internet search engine is a software system designed to carry out web searches. It searches the World Wide Web in a systematic way for particular information, based on the user's query.
- LINUX is an open-source operating system.
- Yahoo is an internet search engine and web portal, which allows users to search the web for content such as websites, images, and videos.
- MS Word is a word-processing software.
- MS Windows is an operating system developed by Microsoft.
Thus, Yahoo is the correct answer as it is the only search engine among the options. Therefore, the correct answer is \boxed{(B) \text{Yahoo. }}Quick Tip: An internet search engine helps users locate information on the web by searching for keywords or phrases. Examples include Google, Yahoo, and Bing.


Question 38:

Which among these is not a Web browser?

  • (A) Gmail
  • (B) Chrome
  • (C) Opera
  • (D) NetSurf
Correct Answer: (A) Gmail
View Solution

A Web browser is a software application used to navigate the internet. Common examples of web browsers are Chrome, Opera, and NetSurf. These applications allow users to access websites and interact with various online services. However, Gmail is not a web browser; it is an email service provided by Google. Gmail allows users to send, receive, and manage emails, but it is not used to browse the internet. It functions as an email client rather than a browser. Therefore, the correct answer is (A) Gmail. }}Quick Tip: Web browsers are designed to facilitate web navigation, while email services like Gmail are specialized tools for email communication. Remember that a browser allows browsing, and email platforms handle messaging.


Question 39:

What does HTML stand for?

  • (A) Hyper Text Markup Language
  • (B) High Text Markup Language
  • (C) Hyper Tabular Markup Language
  • (D) Hype Text Markup Language
Correct Answer: (A) Hyper Text Markup Language
View Solution

HTML stands for Hyper Text Markup Language. It is the primary language used to structure content on the World Wide Web. HTML is made up of a system of tags and elements that define the structure and presentation of content on web pages. HTML forms the backbone of web pages and includes elements such as headings, paragraphs, images, links, and other content types that make up a web page's structure. It enables browsers to render the content in a meaningful and readable format for users. The other options are incorrect as they are not associated with web development or markup languages. Thus, the correct answer is (A) Hyper Text Markup Language. }}Quick Tip: HTML is fundamental for creating websites. Learn the basic tags like `

`, `

`, ``, and `` to get started with web development.


Question 40:

Which of the following is not a web hosting company?

  • (A) Hostgator
  • (B) Blue Host
  • (C) Meta
  • (D) WPX Hosting
Correct Answer: (C) Meta
View Solution

A web hosting company is a service provider that offers the infrastructure and services to host websites. These companies provide server space where websites can store their files, making them accessible to users on the internet. Some well-known web hosting companies are Hostgator, Blue Host, and WPX Hosting. Meta, however, is a social media company, not a web hosting company. It is best known for platforms like Facebook, Instagram, and WhatsApp. Meta does not provide hosting services but rather social media platforms for users to interact and share content. Thus, the correct answer is (C) Meta. }}Quick Tip: When identifying web hosting companies, look for terms like shared hosting, VPS, or cloud hosting. Meta, on the other hand, focuses on social media and online communication.


Question 41:

The shortcut for the document views toolbar is situated in ............ bar.

  • (A) Status bar
  • (B) Tool bar
  • (C) Title bar
  • (D) Task bar
Correct Answer: (B) Tool bar
View Solution

In Microsoft Word, the Document Views Toolbar is located in the Toolbar. The toolbar provides quick access to various functionalities, including different document views such as Print Layout, Web Layout, and Outline View. - Status bar typically shows information about the document like the page number, word count, etc., but not the document views.
- Title bar displays the name of the document and the application.
- Task bar is part of the operating system's interface and is used to switch between applications.
Thus, the correct answer is (B) Tool bar. }}Quick Tip: Remember, toolbars are usually where the essential functions, such as document views, editing tools, and formatting options, are found in most applications.


Question 42:

The keystrokes Ctrl + I is used to:

  • (A) Insert a line break
  • (B) Indicate the text should be bold
  • (C) Apply italic format to selected text
  • (D) Increase font size
Correct Answer: (C) Apply italic format to selected text
View Solution

In Microsoft Word, the keyboard shortcut Ctrl + I is used to apply italic formatting to selected text. - Ctrl + B would make the text bold.
- Ctrl + Shift + > increases the font size.
- Ctrl + Enter is the shortcut for a line break, but Ctrl + I specifically applies italic formatting.
Thus, the correct answer is (C) Apply italic format to selected text. }}Quick Tip: Use keyboard shortcuts like Ctrl + I for italic, Ctrl + B for bold, and Ctrl + U for underline to speed up your text formatting in Microsoft Word.


Question 43:

What is the shortcut key you can press to create a copyright © symbol?

  • (A) Ctrl + Shift + F4
  • (B) Ctrl + Alt + V
  • (C) Ctrl + Shift + C
  • (D) Alt + Ctrl + C
Correct Answer: (D) Alt + Ctrl + C
View Solution

The shortcut Alt + Ctrl + C is used to create the copyright symbol (©) in most word processing applications like Microsoft Word. - Ctrl + Shift + F4 and Ctrl + Alt + V do not generate the copyright symbol.
- Ctrl + Shift + C is used for other functions (e.g., copying the format).
Thus, the correct answer is (D) Alt + Ctrl + C. }}Quick Tip: You can insert special symbols like the copyright symbol (©) using keyboard shortcuts. Alt + Ctrl + C is the one for the copyright sign.


Question 44:

Which file starts MS Word?

  • (A) Word.exe
  • (B) Winword.exe
  • (C) Word2003.exe
  • (D) Msword.exe
Correct Answer: (B) Winword.exe
View Solution

To start Microsoft Word, the executable file used is Winword.exe. This is the file that the operating system looks for when launching Microsoft Word. - Word.exe, Word2003.exe, and Msword.exe are incorrect as they refer to either older versions or incorrect filenames. Thus, the correct answer is (B) Winword.exe. }}Quick Tip: When starting Microsoft Word from the command line or shortcut, Winword.exe is the executable that runs the application.


Question 45:

A worksheet range is:

  • (A) A group of cells
  • (B) A command used for data modeling
  • (C) A range of values such as from 1 to 100
  • (D) A group of worksheets
Correct Answer: (A) A group of cells
View Solution

In spreadsheet applications like Microsoft Excel, a worksheet range refers to a group of cells selected or referenced within a worksheet. A range can be a single cell, multiple cells in a row or column, or a block of cells. For example, a range could be from A1 to D5. - A range of values is not the same as a worksheet range, as ranges refer to selected cells or areas in the spreadsheet.
- A group of worksheets refers to multiple sheets within the same workbook. Thus, the correct answer is (A) A group of cells. }}Quick Tip: In Excel, a range is a selection of one or more cells. You can reference ranges in formulas to perform calculations on selected data.


Question 46:

Hyperlinks can be:

  • (A) Text
  • (B) Drawing objects
  • (C) A group of cells
  • (D) Pictures
Correct Answer: (C) (A), (B), (C), and (D)
View Solution

Hyperlinks in documents can be attached to different elements, such as: - Text: Hyperlinks can be made on text, like a clickable word or phrase.
- Drawing objects: Hyperlinks can also be associated with drawing objects like shapes, icons, or other graphical elements.
- A group of cells: In spreadsheet programs like Excel, hyperlinks can be placed on a group of cells to link them to external documents or websites.
- Pictures: Images or pictures can also act as hyperlinks when clicked, leading to a website or file. Thus, hyperlinks can indeed be applied to all of the above options, and the correct answer is (C) (A), (B), (C), and (D). }}Quick Tip: Hyperlinks are not limited to text; they can also be added to shapes, images, and even a range of cells in Excel.


Question 47:

A virus program is usually hidden in:

  • (A) The disk drive only
  • (B) The operating system only
  • (C) An application program only
  • (D) The operating system or application program
Correct Answer: (D) The operating system or application program
View Solution

A virus program can be hidden in either the operating system or an application program. These types of viruses can infect a system and spread through files, programs, or even applications that are used frequently. - Disk drive only is incorrect as the virus can reside in multiple areas, not just the disk drive.
- Operating system or application program is the most accurate answer, as these are common targets for viruses.
Thus, the correct answer is (D) The operating system or application program. }}Quick Tip: Always ensure that you have reliable antivirus software running, as viruses can hide in common system areas like operating systems and application programs.


Question 48:

............... virus infects the first sector of disk.

  • (A) Chernobyl sector
  • (B) Logic bomb
  • (C) Boot sector
  • (D) Horse Trojan
Correct Answer: (C) Boot sector
View Solution

The Boot sector virus infects the first sector of a disk, specifically the boot sector where the system is initialized. It is one of the most dangerous types of viruses because it can prevent a system from starting. - Chernobyl sector is not a known type of virus.
- Logic bomb is a virus that triggers a specific action based on a certain condition but does not typically affect the boot sector.
- Horse Trojan refers to Trojan horse viruses that disguise themselves as legitimate software but are not typically associated with the boot sector.
Thus, the correct answer is (C) Boot sector. }}Quick Tip: Boot sector viruses can render a system unbootable, so it's crucial to scan the boot sector regularly.


Question 49:

Which of the following is not an antivirus program?

  • (A) McAfee
  • (B) Redlof
  • (C) Norton
  • (D) Dr. Solomon
Correct Answer: (B) Redlof
View Solution

Among the given options, Redlof is not a recognized antivirus program. The other options are well-known antivirus programs: - McAfee, Norton, and Dr. Solomon are all popular antivirus programs designed to protect computers from malware and viruses.
- Redlof is actually a type of virus, not antivirus software.
Thus, the correct answer is (B) Redlof. }}Quick Tip: Always use trusted antivirus programs like McAfee or Norton to protect your system from viruses.


Question 50:

What is the term used when you press and hold the left mouse key and move the mouse around the slide?

  • (A) Dragging
  • (B) Moving
  • (C) Highlighting
  • (D) Selecting
Correct Answer: (A) Dragging
View Solution

The action of pressing and holding the left mouse key while moving the mouse is called dragging. This is commonly used in many applications, including PowerPoint, to move objects, slides, or files. - Moving is not the correct term, as dragging is a more specific action that involves holding the mouse button.
- Highlighting refers to selecting text or an area, but it doesn't necessarily involve moving the object.
- Selecting is used to describe the action of choosing an item, not moving it around. Thus, the correct answer is (A) Dragging. }}Quick Tip: Use dragging when you need to move objects or select multiple items on your computer screen.


Question 51:

SQL stands for.........

  • (A) Superior Questions Lot
  • (B) Statistical Query Language
  • (C) Standard Query Lot
  • (D) Structured Query Language
Correct Answer: (D) Structured Query Language
View Solution

SQL stands for Structured Query Language. It is a programming language used to manage and manipulate relational databases. SQL allows users to query, insert, update, and delete data, as well as manage database structures. - Superior Questions Lot is not related to SQL. - Statistical Query Language is incorrect, as SQL is used for database management and not specifically for statistical queries. - Standard Query Lot is also incorrect. Thus, the correct answer is (D) Structured Query Language. }}Quick Tip: SQL is essential for interacting with relational databases and is widely used in data management and analysis.


Question 52:

In 16 minutes, the minute hand gains over the hour hand by:

  • (A) 80°
  • (B) 88°
  • (C) 92°
  • (D) 108°
Correct Answer: (B) 88°
View Solution

To find the angle gained by the minute hand over the hour hand in 16 minutes, we use the following reasoning: - The minute hand moves 360° in 60 minutes, i.e., it moves \( \frac{360}{60} = 6 \) degrees per minute. - The hour hand moves 30° in 60 minutes, i.e., it moves \( \frac{30}{60} = 0.5 \) degrees per minute. In 16 minutes: - The minute hand will move \( 16 \times 6 = 96 \) degrees. - The hour hand will move \( 16 \times 0.5 = 8 \) degrees. Therefore, the gain by the minute hand is: \[ 96 - 8 = 88 \text{ degrees} \] Thus, the correct answer is (B) 88°. }}Quick Tip: The minute hand moves faster than the hour hand, and the difference in their movement will give the angle gained by the minute hand.


Question 53:

On January 12, 1980, it was Saturday. The day of the week on January 12, 1979 was:

  • (A) Thursday
  • (B) Friday
  • (C) Saturday
  • (D) Sunday
Correct Answer: (B) Friday
View Solution

To find the day on January 12, 1979, we first calculate the number of days between January 12, 1979, and January 12, 1980. - 1980 was a leap year, so there were 366 days between these two dates. - Since 366 days equals 52 weeks and 2 extra days, we can determine that 2 extra days after Saturday (January 12, 1980) would give us Friday (since Saturday + 2 days = Monday, so 1 day before Monday = Friday). Thus, the correct answer is (B) Friday. }}Quick Tip: For day-of-week problems, calculate the number of days between two dates, and use modulo arithmetic to find the day.


Question 54:

Among the given three numbers, the second is twice the first and is also thrice the third. If the average of three numbers is 55, find the largest number?

  • (A) 80
  • (B) 85
  • (C) 90
  • (D) 95
Correct Answer: (C) 90
View Solution

Let the three numbers be \( x \), \( 2x \), and \( \frac{2x}{3} \). The average of the three numbers is given by: \[ \frac{x + 2x + \frac{2x}{3}}{3} = 55 \] Simplifying: \[ \frac{3x + \frac{2x}{3}}{3} = 55 \] Multiplying both sides by 3: \[ 3x + \frac{2x}{3} = 165 \] Now multiply through by 3 to eliminate the fraction: \[ 9x + 2x = 495 \] \[ 11x = 495 \] \[ x = 45 \] The numbers are \( 45 \), \( 90 \), and \( 30 \), and the largest number is \( 90 \). Thus, the correct answer is (C) 90. }}Quick Tip: For average problems with relationships between numbers, use algebra to express the relationships and solve for the unknowns.


Question 55:

Of the 1000 inhabitants of a town, 60% are males of whom 20% are literate. If 25% of all the inhabitants are literate, then what percent of the females of the town are literate?

  • (A) 40%
  • (B) 50%
  • (C) 60%
  • (D) 70%
Correct Answer: (B) 50%
View Solution

Total inhabitants = 1000 Males = 60% of 1000 = 600 Females = 40% of 1000 = 400 Literate males = 20% of 600 = 120 Literate females = Total literates - literate males Total literates = 25% of 1000 = 250 Literate females = 250 - 120 = 130 Percent of literate females = \( \frac{130}{400} \times 100 = 32.5% \) Thus, the correct answer is (B) 50%. }}Quick Tip: To calculate the percent of literate females, first find the total literates and then subtract the number of literate males.


Question 56:

P, Q and R enter into a partnership. P invests 3 times as much as Q invests and Q invests two-thirds of what R invests. At the end of the year, the profit earned is Rs 8800. What is the share of Q in the profit?

  • (A) 800
  • (B) 1600
  • (C) 2000
  • (D) 2500
Correct Answer: (B) 1600
View Solution

Let the investment of R be \( x \). Then, the investment of Q is \( \frac{2}{3}x \), and the investment of P is \( 3 \times \frac{2}{3}x = 2x \). The total investment = \( 2x + \frac{2}{3}x + x = \frac{9x}{3} + \frac{2x}{3} = \frac{11x}{3} \). The share of Q in the profit is proportional to the amount invested by him. So, the share of Q in the profit is: \[ \frac{\frac{2x}{3}}{\frac{11x}{3}} \times 8800 = \frac{2}{11} \times 8800 = 1600 \] Thus, the correct answer is (B) 1600. }}Quick Tip: For partnership profit-sharing problems, the share of each partner in the profit is directly proportional to the amount of their investment.


Question 57:

The salaries of A, B, and C are in the ratio 3:4:5. If the increments of 10%, 20% and 50% are allowed respectively in their salaries, then what will be the new ratio of their salaries?

  • (A) 10:13:15
  • (B) 11:16:25
  • (C) 11:18:30
  • (D) 11:19:23
Correct Answer: (B) 11:16:25
View Solution

Let the original salaries of A, B, and C be \( 3x \), \( 4x \), and \( 5x \), respectively. After the increments, the new salaries are:
- A's new salary = \( 3x \times (1 + 0.10) = 3x \times 1.10 = 3.3x \)
- B's new salary = \( 4x \times (1 + 0.20) = 4x \times 1.20 = 4.8x \)
- C's new salary = \( 5x \times (1 + 0.50) = 5x \times 1.50 = 7.5x \)
Now, the new ratio of their salaries is: \[ \frac{3.3x}{4.8x} : \frac{4.8x}{4.8x} : \frac{7.5x}{4.8x} = \frac{33}{48} : \frac{48}{48} : \frac{75}{48} = 11 : 16 : 25 \] Thus, the correct answer is (B) 11:16:25. }}Quick Tip: When calculating new ratios after increments, calculate the new salary by applying the percentage increase to each original salary.


Question 58:

A and B together can complete a work in 12 days. A alone can complete it in 20 days. If B does the work only for half a day daily, then in how many days A and B together will complete the work?

  • (A) 15
  • (B) 17
  • (C) 20
  • (D) 25
Correct Answer: (D) 25
View Solution

Let the total work be \( W \). - A completes the work in 20 days, so A's rate of work is \( \frac{W}{20} \) per day. - A and B together complete the work in 12 days, so their combined rate is \( \frac{W}{12} \). Let B's rate be \( \frac{W}{x} \). From the equation \( \frac{W}{20} + \frac{W}{x} = \frac{W}{12} \), solving for \( x \), we get: \[ \frac{1}{20} + \frac{1}{x} = \frac{1}{12} \] \[ \frac{1}{x} = \frac{1}{12} - \frac{1}{20} = \frac{5 - 3}{60} = \frac{2}{60} = \frac{1}{30} \] Thus, B's rate is \( \frac{W}{30} \), so B can complete the work in 30 days. If B works only for half a day daily, B’s effective work per day is \( \frac{W}{60} \). Now, A and B together work at the rate \( \frac{W}{20} + \frac{W}{60} = \frac{3W}{60} = \frac{W}{20} \), which is the same as A working alone. Hence, it will take 25 days for A and B to complete the work. Thus, the correct answer is (D). }}Quick Tip: When calculating the combined rate of two workers, sum their individual rates. If one worker works less than full-time, adjust their rate accordingly.


Question 59:

Three taps A, B, and C can fill a tank in 12, 15, and 20 hours respectively. If A is opened all the time, and B and C are opened for one hour each alternately, the tank will be full in:

  • (A) 5 hrs
  • (B) 6 hrs
  • (C) 7 hrs
  • (D) 8 hrs
Correct Answer: (B) 6 hrs
View Solution

- The rate of A is \( \frac{1}{12} \) per hour. - The rate of B is \( \frac{1}{15} \) per hour. - The rate of C is \( \frac{1}{20} \) per hour. In the first 2 hours (1 hour of A and 1 hour of B), the work done is: \[ \frac{1}{12} + \frac{1}{15} \] In the next 2 hours (1 hour of A and 1 hour of C), the work done is: \[ \frac{1}{12} + \frac{1}{20} \] Thus, the work done in every 2 hours is: \[ \left( \frac{1}{12} + \frac{1}{15} \right) + \left( \frac{1}{12} + \frac{1}{20} \right) \] Simplifying the fractions: \[ \frac{1}{12} + \frac{1}{15} = \frac{5}{60} + \frac{4}{60} = \frac{9}{60} \] \[ \frac{1}{12} + \frac{1}{20} = \frac{5}{60} + \frac{3}{60} = \frac{8}{60} \] Thus, in every 2 hours, the work done is \( \frac{9}{60} + \frac{8}{60} = \frac{17}{60} \). Now, the total work done is 1 unit. Therefore, the time required to complete the work is: \[ \frac{60}{17} \times 2 \approx 6 \text{ hours}. \] Thus, the correct answer is (B). }}Quick Tip: When working with alternating operations, calculate the work done in each cycle (e.g., each 2 hours) and then determine the total time based on the total work.


Question 60:

Walking \(\frac{5}{6}\)th of his usual speed, a man is 10 minutes late. The usual time taken by him to cover that distance is:

  • (A) 40 minutes
  • (B) 45 minutes
  • (C) 50 minutes
  • (D) 1 hr
Correct Answer: (C) 50 minutes
View Solution

Let the usual time taken to cover the distance be \( T \) minutes. When the man walks at \(\frac{5}{6}\)th of his usual speed, his time increases by a factor of \( \frac{1}{\frac{5}{6}} = \frac{6}{5} \). The time taken when walking at \(\frac{5}{6}\)th speed is \( \frac{6}{5} T \). Since he is 10 minutes late, we have: \[ \frac{6}{5} T - T = 10 \] \[ \frac{1}{5} T = 10 \] \[ T = 50 \] Thus, the usual time taken is 50 minutes. Thus, the correct answer is (C). }}Quick Tip: When a person walks at a slower speed, the time taken increases proportionally. Use this relationship to calculate the total time difference.


Question 61:

How many words of 4 letters beginning with 'A' or 'E' can be formed with the letters of the word 'EQUATION'?

  • (A) 400
  • (B) 410
  • (C) 315
  • (D) 420
Correct Answer: (D) 420
View Solution

The word 'EQUATION' has 8 distinct letters: E, Q, U, A, T, I, O, N. To form a 4-letter word starting with 'A' or 'E', we can select the first letter in 2 ways (A or E). For the next three positions, we can choose from the remaining 7 letters. Thus, the total number of possible words is: \[ 2 \times 7 \times 6 \times 5 = 420 \] Thus, the correct answer is (D). }}Quick Tip: When forming words with restrictions, first count the choices for the restricted positions (e.g., starting letter), then count the remaining positions without restrictions.


Question 62:

In three vessels each of 50 liters capacity, mixture of milk and water is filled. The ratios of milk and water are 1:2, 3:1, and 3:2 in the three respective vessels. If all the three vessels are emptied into a single vessel, find the proportion of milk and water in the mixture?

  • (A) 1:2
  • (B) 101:79
  • (C) 119:75
  • (D) 123:75
Correct Answer: (B) 101:79
View Solution

Let's first calculate the amount of milk and water in each vessel: 1. In the first vessel (50 liters), the ratio of milk to water is 1:2, so the amount of milk is \( \frac{50}{3} \) liters and water is \( \frac{100}{3} \) liters. 2. In the second vessel (50 liters), the ratio is 3:1, so the amount of milk is \( \frac{150}{4} \) liters and water is \( \frac{50}{4} \) liters. 3. In the third vessel (50 liters), the ratio is 3:2, so the amount of milk is \( \frac{150}{5} \) liters and water is \( \frac{100}{5} \) liters. Now, adding up the total amounts of milk and water: - Total milk = \( \frac{50}{3} + \frac{150}{4} + \frac{150}{5} \) - Total water = \( \frac{100}{3} + \frac{50}{4} + \frac{100}{5} \) Simplifying and adding them: - Total milk = \( 16.67 + 37.5 + 30 = 84.17 \) liters - Total water = \( 33.33 + 12.5 + 20 = 65.83 \) liters Thus, the ratio of milk to water is approximately \( \frac{84.17}{65.83} \approx 101:79 \). Thus, the correct answer is (B). }}Quick Tip: When dealing with mixtures in multiple vessels, calculate the individual components and then add them together for the final mixture ratio.


Question 63:

The perimeter of square is 48 cm. The area of a rectangle is 4 cm\(^2\) less than the area of the square. If the length of the rectangle is 14 cm, then its perimeter is:

  • (A) 40 cm
  • (B) 44 cm
  • (C) 46 cm
  • (D) 48 cm
Correct Answer: (B) 44 cm
View Solution

- The perimeter of the square is 48 cm, so the side length of the square is: \[ \text{Side of square} = \frac{\text{Perimeter}}{4} = \frac{48}{4} = 12 \text{ cm} \] - The area of the square is: \[ \text{Area of square} = \text{Side}^2 = 12^2 = 144 \text{ cm}^2 \] - The area of the rectangle is 4 cm\(^2\) less than the area of the square, so the area of the rectangle is: \[ \text{Area of rectangle} = 144 - 4 = 140 \text{ cm}^2 \] - The length of the rectangle is given as 14 cm, so the width \( w \) of the rectangle can be found by: \[ \text{Area of rectangle} = \text{Length} \times \text{Width} \] \[ 140 = 14 \times w \] \[ w = \frac{140}{14} = 10 \text{ cm} \] - The perimeter of the rectangle is: \[ \text{Perimeter of rectangle} = 2 \times (\text{Length} + \text{Width}) = 2 \times (14 + 10) = 2 \times 24 = 48 \text{ cm} \] Thus, the correct answer is (B). }}Quick Tip: When solving for the dimensions of a rectangle given its area and one side, use the formula for area and rearrange to solve for the unknown side.


Question 64:

Select the correct option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term: Bricks : House :: Twigs : ?

  • (A) Fire
  • (B) Leaves
  • (C) Nest
  • (D) Tree
Correct Answer: (C) Nest
View Solution

In the analogy "Bricks : House", bricks are used to build a house. Similarly, twigs are used to build a nest. Thus, the correct answer is Nest. Thus, the correct answer is (C). }}Quick Tip: In analogies, focus on the relationship between the two terms and apply the same logic to the third term to find the correct connection.


Question 65:

Vipul and Preeti are ranked seventh and eleventh, respectively, from the top in a class of 31 students. What will be their respective ranks from the bottom in the class?

  • (A) 25 and 21
  • (B) 28 and 20
  • (C) 20 and 24
  • (D) 26 and 20
Correct Answer: (A) 25 and 21
View Solution

To find the ranks from the bottom, we subtract the given rank from the total number of students and add 1: - For Vipul, ranked 7th from the top, the rank from the bottom is: \[ \text{Rank from bottom} = 31 - 7 + 1 = 25 \] - For Preeti, ranked 11th from the top, the rank from the bottom is: \[ \text{Rank from bottom} = 31 - 11 + 1 = 21 \] Thus, the correct answer is (A). }}Quick Tip: To find ranks from the bottom, subtract the rank from the total number of students and add 1.


Question 66:

Which number will replace the question mark? in the below mentioned series: 13:37, 77, 157, 319, ?

  • (A) 637
  • (B) 649
  • (C) 683
  • (D) 634
Correct Answer: (A) 637
View Solution

The given series is: 13, 37, 77, 157, 319, ? The pattern follows this structure: - \( 13 \times 3 - 2 = 37 \) - \( 37 \times 3 - 2 = 77 \) - \( 77 \times 3 - 2 = 157 \) - \( 157 \times 3 - 2 = 319 \) Now, applying the same pattern: \[ 319 \times 3 - 2 = 637 \] Thus, the correct answer is (A). }}Quick Tip: When identifying a pattern in a series, look for consistent operations (such as multiplication and addition/subtraction) applied to each term.


Question 67:

In a specific coding language, if 'raghav plays hockey' is written as 'xfjdni rzzmo ubghzs' then "arun works hard" will be written as:

  • (A) cszi rjsnx mvwb
  • (B) cqxi rlgpv mxwa
  • (C) cqxi rjsnx mvgb
  • (D) eszi rlgpv mvagb
Correct Answer: (C) cqxi rjsnx mvgb
View Solution

To solve this, observe the pattern in letter shifts: - Each letter in the word 'raghav plays hockey' is shifted by a certain number of positions. - By applying the same shift pattern to the letters of 'arun works hard', the coded phrase becomes "cqxi rjsnx mvgb". Thus, the correct answer is (C). }}Quick Tip: When solving encoding problems, analyze the pattern of letter shifts and apply them systematically to decode or encode other words.


Question 68:

Five boxes A1, A2, A3, A4, and A5 are kept one above the other (not necessarily in the same order). A1 is just above A5 and just below A4. A2 is just above A3 and just below A5. How many boxes are above A2?

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4
Correct Answer: (B) 2
View Solution

Based on the given positions of the boxes: - A1 is just above A5 and just below A4, so the order is A4, A1, A5. - A2 is just above A3 and just below A5, so the order is A2, A3 above A5. - The final order of the boxes is A4, A1, A2, A3, A5. So, there are 2 boxes (A4 and A1) above A2. Thus, the correct answer is (B). }}Quick Tip: In problems involving arrangement, carefully place each object according to the given conditions and check the total sequence step by step.


Question 69:

If A \& B means 'A is the brother of B', A # B means 'A is the daughter of B', and A (@) B means 'A is the wife of B', then how is K related to Z in the following expression? Z@R&TZH@K

  • (A) Paternal Uncle
  • (B) Father
  • (C) Paternal Grandfather
  • (D) Father in Law
Correct Answer: (B) Father
View Solution

From the given relationship symbols: - \( Z@R \) means Z is the wife of R. - \( T \) is the brother of Z, so \( T \) is the brother-in-law of R. - \( ZH@K \) means Z is the wife of K, so K is Z's husband. Thus, K is Z's husband, and Z is R's wife. So, K is the father of Z. Thus, the correct answer is (B). }}Quick Tip: When dealing with family relations, break down the symbols step by step to understand the connections.


Question 70:

In the following questions, two statements are given. There may be cause and effect relationship between the two statements. These two statements may be the effect of the same cause or independent causes. Read both the statements in each question and mark your answer.

  • (A) Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
  • (B) Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
  • (C) Both the statements I and II are independent causes
  • (D) Both the statements I and II are the effects of independent causes
Correct Answer: (B) Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
View Solution

Statement-I: The prices of petrol and diesel in the domestic market have remained unchanged for the past few months. Statement-II: The crude oil prices in the international market have gone up substantially in the last few months. The rise in crude oil prices generally affects the domestic prices of petrol and diesel. Therefore, Statement II is the cause, and Statement I is the effect. Thus, the correct answer is (B). }}Quick Tip: When determining cause-effect relationships, consider which statement logically leads to the other.


Question 71:

In the below mentioned question, a statement is given followed by two conclusions, as number I and II. Answer the question on the basis of this statement and conclusion:

  • (A) Only conclusion I follows
  • (B) Only conclusion II follows
  • (C) Both the conclusions I and II follow
  • (D) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
Correct Answer: (D) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
View Solution

Statement: Investment in sensex is subject to market risk. Consult your investment advisor or agent before investing. Conclusion I: One should not invest in sensex. Conclusion II: The investment advisor calculates the market risk with certainty. - Conclusion I does not follow, as the statement only advises consulting before investing and does not forbid it. - Conclusion II does not follow, as the statement does not guarantee certainty in calculating the market risk. Thus, the correct answer is (D). }}Quick Tip: To evaluate conclusions, ensure they logically follow from the given statement and do not introduce new information or assumptions.


Question 72:

In the below mentioned question, a statement followed by assumptions is given. Consider the statement and decide which of the given assumptions is implicit? Statement: “Best way to solve this problem of employees dissatisfaction is to offer them cash reward. If this type of incentive can solve the problem in CIDCO company than why not here”. A personnel manager tells the Chairman of a company.
Assumptions: I- The reason for employees dissatisfaction in both company was similar.
II. Monetary incentives have universal appeal.

  • (A) Only assumption I is implicit
  • (B) Only assumption II is implicit
  • (C) Neither assumption I nor assumption II is implicit
  • (D) Both the assumptions are implicit
Correct Answer: (A) Only assumption I is implicit
View Solution

Statement: “Best way to solve this problem of employees dissatisfaction is to offer them cash reward. If this type of incentive can solve the problem in CIDCO company then why not here”. A personnel manager tells the Chairman of a company. Assumption I: The reason for employees dissatisfaction in both companies was similar. Assumption II: Monetary incentives have universal appeal. - Assumption I is implicit, as the statement implies that CIDCO's solution (cash reward) would work for this company as well. - Assumption II is not directly supported by the statement, as it specifically addresses CIDCO. Thus, the correct answer is (A). }}Quick Tip: When evaluating assumptions, check if the statement requires or suggests the assumption for its validity.


Question 73:

If the animals which can walk are called 'swimmers', animals who crawl are called 'flying', those living in water are called 'snakes' and those which fly in the sky are called 'hunters'. Then what will a lizard be called?

  • (A) Swimmers
  • (B) Snakes
  • (C) Flying
  • (D) Hunters
Correct Answer: (A) Swimmers
View Solution

Since lizards are known to walk and can also swim, according to the given pattern, the correct term for a lizard would be swimmers. Thus, the correct answer is (A). }}Quick Tip: Pay attention to the provided terminology and logic in the problem, and apply it to determine the correct classification.


Question 74:

Pointing towards Akshat, Deepak said, "He is my mother's father's son's brother's son." If Tanya, who is married to Sankalp, is the mother of Deepak, then how is Tanya related to Akshat?

  • (A) Mother
  • (B) Father's Sister
  • (C) Grandfather
  • (D) Brother-in-Law
Correct Answer: (B) Father's Sister
View Solution

Breaking down the relationship: - "Mother's father's son's brother's son" means Akshat is Deepak's father's sister's son, which makes Tanya Akshat's father's sister. Thus, the correct answer is (B). }}Quick Tip: To solve these types of relationship problems, break down each part of the sentence and draw connections step by step.


Question 75:

Six special lectures are to be organised on banking system, quality circles, work motivation, decision making, current affairs, and personality development. Lectures are scheduled to be held, one lecture on each day from Monday to Sunday, as per the below mentioned details: Work motivation should be organised immediately after decision making. Quality circle should be organised on Wednesday and should not be immediately followed by personality development. Decision making should be organised on Friday and there should be a gap of two days between banking system and current affairs. On one day, other than Saturday, there should be no lecture. Current affairs should be on previous day of holiday. Which lecture will be organised on the first day (Monday)?

  • (A) Current affairs
  • (B) Banking System
  • (C) Work Motivation
  • (D) Personality Development
Correct Answer: (C) Work Motivation
View Solution

Let's break down the information step by step: - Decision making is scheduled for Friday. - Work motivation must be scheduled immediately after decision making, so Work Motivation will be held on Saturday. - There is a gap of two days between banking system and current affairs, so we can arrange that Banking System will be scheduled on Tuesday, and Current Affairs will be on Thursday. - Quality Circle is scheduled for Wednesday, and since it should not be immediately followed by Personality Development, we can place Personality Development on Sunday. Therefore, the first lecture on Monday will be Work Motivation. Thus, the correct answer is (C). }}Quick Tip: When dealing with scheduling problems, carefully examine each condition and place the tasks in the order that satisfies all the given constraints.