AP PGECET 2024 Chemical Engineering Question Paper is available for download here. Sri Venkateswara University, Tirupati on behalf of APSCHE conducted AP PGECET 2024 Chemical Engineering on May 31 in Shift 1 from 9 AM to 11 AM. AP PGECET Question Paper 2024 consists of 120 MCQ-based questions in total carrying 1 mark each to be attempted in the duration of 2 hours.

AP PGECET 2024 Chemical Engineering Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

AP PGECET 2024 Chemical Engineering​ Question Paper with Answer Key download iconDownload Check Solution

Question 1:

Which of the following states that the total pressure exerted by a gaseous mixture is equal to the sum of the partial pressures?

  • (1) Amagat’s law
  • (2) Raoult’s law
  • (3) Dalton’s law
  • (4) Avogadro’s law

Question 2:

If air has 21% and 79% of Oxygen and Nitrogen by volume respectively. What is the average molecular weight?

  • (A) \( 29.3 \)
  • (B) \( 29 \)
  • (C) \( 28.84 \)
  • (D) \( 28 \)

Question 3:

An organic compound is found to contain \( \mathrm{C} = 54.5% \), \( \mathrm{O} = 36.4% \), and \( \mathrm{H} = 9.1% \) by weight. Its empirical formula is:

  • (1) \(\mathrm{CHO}_2\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{C_2H_4O}\)
  • (3) \(\mathrm{C_2H_6O}\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{C_3H_4O}\)

Question 4:

Cox charts are plotted

  • (A) Logarithm of vapour pressure of a substance versus logarithm of partial pressure of the reference substance
  • (B) Logarithm of vapour pressure of a substance versus logarithm of the vapour pressure of reference substance
  • (C) Logarithm of vapour pressure of a substance versus temperature
  • (D) Logarithm of vapour pressure of a substance versus partial pressure

Question 5:

The number of degrees of freedom for a mixture of liquid water and liquid toluene (immiscible in water) in equilibrium with their vapours is:

  • (1) 3
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 1
  • (4) 0

Question 6:

The solubility of sodium chloride in water at 290K is 35.8 kg/100 kg water. What is the mass fraction of sodium chloride in the solution?

  • (1) 0.264
  • (2) 0.358
  • (3) 0.642
  • (4) 0.736

Question 7:

The ratio of moles of the reactant converted to the desired product and moles of the reactant converted to undesired product is called as:

  • (1) Conversion
  • (2) Selectivity
  • (3) Reaction yield
  • (4) Plant yield

Question 8:

A recycle ratio is defined as:

  • (1) Recycle stream/fresh feed stream
  • (2) Recycle stream/gross feed stream
  • (3) Gross feed stream/recycle stream
  • (4) Fresh feed stream/recycle stream

Question 9:

In which of the following process involving an ideal gas, the change in internal energy and the change in enthalpy would be zero?

  • (1) Isobaric process
  • (2) Isothermal process
  • (3) Adiabatic process
  • (4) Polytropic process

Question 10:

The Vander Waals equation of state is given by:

  • (1) \( P = \frac{RT}{(v - b)} - \frac{a}{T^{0.5} v (v + b)} \)
  • (2) \( P = \frac{RT}{(v - b)} - \frac{a}{v^2} \)
  • (3) \( P = \frac{RT}{(v - b)} - \frac{{a'}{T}}{v(v + b)} \)
  • (4) \( P = \frac{RT}{(v - b)} - \frac{a \alpha}{v(v + b) + b(v - b)} \)

Question 11:

Entropy of a system is:

  • (1) A measure of disorder of the system
  • (2) A measure of orderly behaviour of the system
  • (3) Independent of Temperature
  • (4) Independent of Pressure

Question 12:

When the reactants and products are at their standard states, the change in enthalpy accompanying the formation of 1 mole of a substance from the constituent elements is termed as:

  • (1) The standard heat of reaction
  • (2) The standard heat of formation
  • (3) The standard heat of combustion
  • (4) The standard heat of accumulation

Question 13:

The Carnot cycle consists of an alternate series of

  • (1) Two reversible isothermal processes and two reversible adiabatic processes
  • (2) Two reversible isobaric processes and two reversible adiabatic processes
  • (3) Two reversible isothermal processes and two reversible isobaric processes
  • (4) Two reversible isothermal processes and two polytropic processes

Question 14:

For an ideal gas mixture, the fugacity of a component is equal to

  • (1) Vapour pressure of that component
  • (2) Partial pressure of the component
  • (3) The total pressure of the mixture
  • (4) The vapour pressure of the component at STP

Question 15:

For an ideal gas mixture undergoing a reversible gaseous phase chemical reaction, the equilibrium constant:


Question 16:

The Gibbs free energy change (\(\Delta G^\circ\)) and equilibrium constant (K) for a chemical reaction are related by

  • (1) \(\Delta G^\circ = RT \ln K\)
  • (2) \(\Delta G^\circ = T \ln K\)
  • (3) \(\Delta G^\circ = RTK\)
  • (4) \(\Delta G^\circ = -RT \ln K\)

Question 17:

An ideal fluid is the one which:


Question 18:

The flow of incompressible fluids without the presence of shear is referred to as

  • (1) Potential flow
  • (2) Turbulent flow
  • (3) Laminar flow
  • (4) Fully developed flow

Question 19:

The Bernoulli equation states that in a steady irrotational flow of an incompressible fluid,

  • (1) The total potential energy at any point is constant
  • (2) The total kinetic energy at any point is constant
  • (3) The total energy at any point is constant
  • (4) The total pressure energy at any point is constant

Question 20:

When the flow of a fluid through a circular pipe, the friction factor is

  • (1) \( f = \frac{16}{N_{Re}} \)
  • (2) \( f = \frac{24}{N_{Re}} \)
  • (3) \( f = 0.079 N_{Re}^{-1/2} \)
  • (4) \( f = 0.079 N_{Re}^{-1/4} \)

Question 21:

Pitot tube is used for measuring:


Question 22:

Kozney Carman equation is used for finding

  • (1) Volumetric flow rate through a pipe line
  • (2) Velocity of fluids through a duct
  • (3) Pressure drop through a packed bed
  • (4) Pressure drop through a fluidized bed

Question 23:

In which of the following pumps, the displacement of fluid is by rotating action

  • (1) Centrifugal pump
  • (2) Gear pump
  • (3) Plunger pump
  • (4) Piston pump

Question 24:

Which of the following happens when the gas velocity increases in fluidization?

  • (1) Bulk density of the bed increases and fluidization become less aggressive
  • (2) Bulk density of the bed decreases and fluidization become less aggressive
  • (3) Bulk density of the bed increases and fluidization become more aggressive
  • (4) Bulk density of the bed decreases and fluidization become more aggressive

Question 25:

100-mesh screen means

  • (1) 100 little square openings per one linear cm of screen
  • (2) 100 little square openings per one linear mm of screen
  • (3) 100 little square openings per one linear inch of screen
  • (4) 100 little square openings per one linear feet of screen

Question 26:

The work required for crushing a given material is proportional to the logarithm of the ratio between the initial and final diameters is a statement of:


Question 27:

In a ball mill, centrifugal force will be exactly balanced by the weight of the ball when mill runs at

  • (1) Minimum speed
  • (2) Maximum speed
  • (3) Critical speed
  • (4) Optimum speed

Question 28:

The mass of material that can be fed per unit time to a unit area of the screen is called as

  • (1) Effectiveness of the screen
  • (2) Capacity of the screen
  • (3) Ability of the screen
  • (4) Productivity of the screen

Question 29:

Which of the following is a process of gravity concentration where solids are separated based upon the differences in the behavior of particles through a moving fluid which in turn, depends upon densities/specific gravities.

  • (1) Classification
  • (2) Sedimentation
  • (3) Centrifugation
  • (4) Jigging

Question 30:

The filter aid is a granular or fibrous material and is used to

  • (1) Increase the cake resistance
  • (2) Increase the cake porosity
  • (3) Increase the pressure drop across the cake
  • (4) Increase the filter medium resistance

Question 31:

A fluid energy mill is used for:


Question 32:

In a batch thickener, the rate of sedimentation can be artificially increased by

  • (1) The addition of coagulating agents
  • (2) Cooling the suspension to room temperature
  • (3) Promoting the free settling
  • (4) Controlling the flow rate

Question 33:

The critical radius of insulation is

  • (1) \( \frac{The thermal conductivity of an insulating material}{Heat transfer coefficient at the outer surface of insulation} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{The thermal conductivity of metal to be insulated}{Heat transfer coefficient at the outer surface of insulation} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{The thermal conductivity of an insulating material}{Heat transfer coefficient at the inside surface of insulation} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{The thermal conductivity of metal to be insulated}{Heat transfer coefficient at the inside surface of insulation} \)

Question 34:

The Peclet number is defined as the product of

  • (1) The Reynolds number and Graetz number
  • (2) The Prandtl number and Nusselt number
  • (3) The Reynolds number and Prandtl number
  • (4) The Reynolds number and Nusselt number

Question 35:

Ratio of emissive power of a body to the emissive power of a perfectly black body, is known

  • (1) Emissivity
  • (2) Absorptivity
  • (3) Transmissivity
  • (4) Reflectivity

Question 36:

In a shell and tube heat exchanger, steam is condensing on the shell side and a cold fluid is flowing through the tubes in the turbulent flow region, then the Wilson plot is used to:


Question 37:

In a heat exchanger, for the same terminal temperatures, the logarithmic mean temperature difference for counter flow is

  • (1) Appreciable greater than that for co-current flow
  • (2) Appreciable lower than that for co-current flow
  • (3) Almost equal to that for co-current flow
  • (4) Appreciable lower than that for cross flow

Question 38:

Dropwise condensation,

  • (1) Requires smooth, clean uncontaminated surfaces
  • (2) Is stable and easy to maintain
  • (3) Have higher heat transfer coefficients
  • (4) Have lower heat transfer coefficients

Question 39:

As per the Stefan-Boltzmann law the total energy emitted by a black body is directly proportional to

  • (1) The third power of its absolute temperature
  • (2) The fourth power of its absolute temperature
  • (3) The fifth power of its absolute temperature
  • (4) The sixth power of its absolute temperature

Question 40:

In shell and tube heat exchanger, external cleaning of the tubes is easy in case of

  • (1) Equilateral triangular pitch arrangement of tube layout
  • (2) Right angle triangular pitch arrangement of tube layout
  • (3) Square pitch arrangement of tube layout
  • (4) Hexagonal pitch arrangement of tube layout

Question 41:

Use of multiple effect evaporator results in:


Question 42:

The heat flux in the nucleate boiling regime is proportional to

  • (1) \((\Delta T)^2\)
  • (2) \((\Delta T)^4\)
  • (3) \((\Delta T)^3\)
  • (4) \(\sqrt{\Delta T}\)

Question 43:

The steady state gas phase reaction 3A + B \(\rightarrow\) C + 2D takes place on a catalyst surface. What will be the value of the flux ratio \( N_A / N_D \)?

  • (1) -2
  • (2) -0.5
  • (3) -1.5
  • (4) 2

Question 44:

Lewis number is the ratio of

  • (1) Thermal diffusivity to mass diffusivity
  • (2) Mass diffusivity to momentum diffusivity
  • (3) Mass diffusivity to thermal diffusivity
  • (4) Momentum diffusivity to thermal diffusivity

Question 45:

The penetration theory relates average mass transfer coefficient (\( k \)) with diffusivity (\( D \))

  • (1) \( k \propto D \)
  • (2) \( k \propto \sqrt{D} \)
  • (3) \( k \propto D^{1.5} \)
  • (4) \( k \propto D^2 \)

Question 46:

The absorption factor can be increased by:


Question 47:

A plate is called a theoretical plate when

  • (1) The vapour and liquid leaving the plate are in equilibrium
  • (2) The vapour and liquid entering the plate are in equilibrium
  • (3) The vapour leaving the plate is in equilibrium with the liquid entering the plate
  • (4) The liquid leaving the plate is in equilibrium with the vapour entering the plate

Question 48:

If reflux in a distillation column is 100 mol/hr and the overhead product rate is 50 mol/hr, the reflux ratio is

  • (1) 0.5
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 50
  • (4) 150

Question 49:

At a given temperature, the humid volume is

  • (1) Linear function of humidity
  • (2) Inverse function of humidity
  • (3) Square function of humidity
  • (4) No specific function of humidity

Question 50:

In liquid-liquid extraction, if the selectivity is unity, then

  • (1) Separation of the components is most effective
  • (2) No separation is possible
  • (3) Amount of solvent required is minimum
  • (4) Solvent flow rate should be very high

Question 51:

Higher temperature increases the rate of leaching in a solid-liquid system due to:


Question 52:

Moisture in a solid exerting an equilibrium vapour pressure equal to that of the pure liquid at that temperature is

  • (1) Bound moisture
  • (2) Unbound moisture
  • (3) Critical moisture
  • (4) Equilibrium moisture

Question 53:

In case of adsorption hysteresis, the desorption equilibrium pressure is

  • (1) Always lower than that obtained during adsorption
  • (2) Always higher than that obtained during adsorption
  • (3) Same as that obtained during adsorption
  • (4) Can be either higher or lower than that obtained during adsorption

Question 54:

Flooding in a distillation column is detected by a sharp

  • (1) Increase in Murphree plate efficiency
  • (2) Increase in pressure drop
  • (3) Decrease in pressure drop
  • (4) Decrease in liquid holdup in the column

Question 55:

The activation energy at high temperatures is lower than at lower temperatures, which represents

  • (1) Diffusion regime
  • (2) Reaction regime
  • (3) Kinetic regime
  • (4) Intermediate regime

Question 56:

A reaction is of zero order when the rate of reaction is

  • (1) Directly proportional to the concentration of reactant
  • (2) Inversely proportional to the concentration of reactant
  • (3) Independent of the concentration of reactant
  • (4) Independent of temperature and pressure

Question 57:

The most suitable reactor to carry out an auto-thermal reaction is a:


Question 58:

For a steady-state mixed reactor the space-time is equivalent to the holding time for

  • (1) Constant fluid density systems
  • (2) Variable fluid density systems
  • (3) Non-isothermal gas reactions
  • (4) Gas reactions with changing number of moles

Question 59:

For identical feed comp., flow rate, conversion and for all positive reaction orders the ratio of the volume of mixed reactor to the volume of plug flow reactor

  • (1) Is independent of the order of reaction
  • (2) Increases with increase in the order of reaction
  • (3) Decreases with increase in the order of reaction
  • (4) Increases with increase in the percentage of conversion

Question 60:

In a semi-batch reactor

  • (1) Rate of reaction can be controlled
  • (2) Maximum conversion can be controlled
  • (3) Both the reactants flow counter-currently
  • (4) Residence time is constant

Question 61:

The best combination of reactors for an exothermic reaction is:


Question 62:

If the conversion of a first-order liquid phase reaction occurring in a CSTR is 75%, molar feed rate is 5 mol/min, the rate of the reaction is 5 \(\frac{mol}{litre \cdot min}\) then the volume of the reactor (in litre) is?

  • (1) 0.33
  • (2) 0.4
  • (3) 0.75
  • (4) 0.5

Question 63:

If \( \tau = 5 \) s, first order rate constant, \( k = 0.25 \) sec\(^{-1}\) and the number of tanks, \( N \) is 5, then the conversion is

  • (1) 87.45%
  • (2) 33%
  • (3) 75%
  • (4) 67.2%

Question 64:

Which of the following is true for gas-phase reactions?

  • (1) Decrease in moles of the product increases the volume of the reaction mixture
  • (2) Increase in moles of the product does not affect the volume of the reaction mixture
  • (3) Increase in moles of the product increases the volume of the reaction mixture
  • (4) Increase in moles of the product decreases the volume of the reaction mixture

Question 65:

Which of the following represents heterogeneous catalytic reaction?

  • (1) Reduction of iron ore
  • (2) Ammonia synthesis
  • (3) Burning of coal
  • (4) Roasting of ores

Question 66:

What is the activity of a catalyst when a time \( t = 0 \)?


Question 67:

If an instrument produces the same reading at different times for the same variation in the measured variable, then it is said to

  • (1) Have no hysteresis
  • (2) Have no accuracy
  • (3) Have no dead zone
  • (4) Have no drift

Question 68:

Which of the following pressure gauge operation depends on the variation of the thermal conductivity of a gas at low pressure,

  • (1) Bourdon tube gauge
  • (2) Hydrostatic gauge
  • (3) Pirani gauge
  • (4) McLeod gauge

Question 69:

Which of the following measuring device is not suitable for the measurement of the rate of flow of liquids

  • (1) Nutating-Disc Meter
  • (2) Hot-Wire Anemometer
  • (3) Laser-Doppler Anemometer
  • (4) Venturi Meter

Question 70:

Bourdon gauges are used for measurement of pressures

  • (1) Local atmospheric pressures
  • (2) Local absolute pressures
  • (3) Low range vacuum pressures
  • (4) Large range gauge pressures

Question 71:

If initial conditions for a system are inherently zero, what does it physically mean?


Question 72:

If the system is stable, the response is smooth and non-oscillatory (damping coefficient, \(\xi > 1\)), the response is referred to as

  • (1) Overdamped
  • (2) Critically damped
  • (3) Underdamped
  • (4) Undamped

Question 73:

Response of a linear control system for a change in set point is called

  • (1) Frequency response
  • (2) Transient response
  • (3) Servo problem
  • (4) Regulatory problem

Question 74:

Which of the following controllers has more oscillatory behaviour in response?

  • (1) P-controller
  • (2) PI-controller
  • (3) PD-controller
  • (4) PID-controller

Question 75:

A servo control loop responds for

  • (1) Load changing
  • (2) Set point changing
  • (3) Both load and set point changing
  • (4) Neither load nor set point changing

Question 76:

In a Second-order system of under-damped case, the decay ratio and overshoot are related as:


Question 77:

Bode diagram is generated from output response of the system subjected to _____________________ input

  • (1) Impulse
  • (2) Step
  • (3) Ramp
  • (4) Sinusoidal

Question 78:

Routh test

  • (1) Criterion provides information about the actual location of roots
  • (2) Cannot be used to test the stability of a control system containing transportation lag
  • (3) Criterion is not applicable to systems with polynomial characteristic equation
  • (4) Cannot determine as to how many roots of the characteristic equation have positive real roots

Question 79:

Main function of baffles on the shell side of a heat exchanger is to

  • (1) Decrease the pressure drop
  • (2) Reduce the scale deposit
  • (3) Hold the tubes in position
  • (4) Create turbulence

Question 80:

In which of the following type of heat exchanger the heat exchange between the two fluids occur by their complete physical mixing?

  • (1) Direct contact heat exchanger
  • (2) Indirect heat exchanger
  • (3) Recuperator
  • (4) Regenerator

Question 81:

In a multistage compressor, intercooling is done to:


Question 82:

A specific advantage of using steam as a heating medium in exchangers is its

  • (1) Inexpensiveness
  • (2) High value of latent heat
  • (3) High film coefficient
  • (4) Non-corrosive condensate

Question 83:

The number of bubble caps to be used per tray is determined from

  • (1) The vapour load
  • (2) The liquid load
  • (3) Tray diameter
  • (4) Allowable gas velocity

Question 84:

In the tray distillation column, flooding determines

  • (1) Maximum vapor flow allowed
  • (2) Maximum pressure allowed
  • (3) Minimum vapor flow
  • (4) Minimum pressure allowed

Question 85:

Liquid remaining in unit volume of bed after bed is drained is called as

  • (1) Final holdup
  • (2) Total holdup
  • (3) Static holdup
  • (4) Dynamic holdup

Question 86:

Which is the suitable contacting equipment for gas-liquid operations involving liquids with dispersed solids?


Question 87:

If an amount \(R\) is paid at the end of every year for '\(n\)' years, then the net present value of the annuity at an interest rate of '\(i\)' is

  • (1) \(R[\{(1 + i)^n - 1\}/i]\)
  • (2) \(R[\{(1 + i)^n - 1\}/\{i(1 + i)^n\}]\)
  • (3) \(R(1 + i)^n\)
  • (4) \(R/(1 + i)^n\)

Question 88:

Which of the following is a component of working capital investment?

  • (1) Utilities plant
  • (2) Maintenance and repair inventory
  • (3) Process equipment
  • (4) Depreciation

Question 89:

Operating profit of a chemical plant is equal to

  • (1) Profit before interest and tax
  • (2) Profit after tax plus depreciation
  • (3) Net profit and tax
  • (4) Profit after tax

Question 90:

Which of the following methods of depreciation calculations results in book values greater than those obtained with straight line method?

  • (1) Multiple straight-line method
  • (2) Sinking fund method
  • (3) Declining balance method
  • (4) Sum of the years digit method

Question 91:

Thermal diffusivity of a material (\( \alpha \)) is defined as:


Question 92:

The catalyst used in the low-pressure Ziegler process for polyethylene manufacture _____________________

  • (1) Is Nickel
  • (2) Consists of aluminium triethyl combined with titanium tetrachloride
  • (3) Consists of aluminium chloride combine with titanium dioxide
  • (4) Is vanadium pentoxide

Question 93:

The major chemical recovered from the black liquor in Kraft Pulp Process is

  • (1) Sodium sulphate
  • (2) Sodium carbonate
  • (3) Sodium hydroxide
  • (4) Sodium bicarbonate

Question 94:

Each term of the Bernoulli's equation written in the form \(\frac{p}{\rho} + \frac{g}{g_c}(Z) + \frac{v^2}{2g_c} = Constant\), represents the total energy per unit

  • (1) Mass
  • (2) Volume
  • (3) Specific weight
  • (4) Specific volume

Question 95:

What is the disadvantage of Solvay process?

  • (1) Higher salt consumption
  • (2) No co-products to dispose
  • (3) Use of low-grade brine
  • (4) Less electric power

Question 96:

What is undesirable in urea production?


Question 97:

Washing soda is

  • (1) \(Na_2CO_3\)
  • (2) \(Na_2CO_3.H_2O\)
  • (3) \(Na_2CO_3.10H_2O\)
  • (4) \(NaHCO_3\)

Question 98:

Tetrafluoroethylene is known as

  • (1) Perspex
  • (2) Nylon-66
  • (3) Polyester
  • (4) Teflon

Question 99:

Oils and fats are

  • (1) Higher alcohols
  • (2) Esters of higher acids
  • (3) Alkaloids
  • (4) Carbohydrates

Question 100:

The monometallic catalyst used in the catalytic reforming of naphtha is

  • (1) Platinum
  • (2) Nickel
  • (3) Molybdenum
  • (4) Cobalt

Question 101:

What happens in a reversible adiabatic expansion process?


Question 102:

Economy of a multiple effect evaporator is not influenced much by the

  • (1) Boiling point elevations
  • (2) Temperature of the feed
  • (3) Rate of heat transfer
  • (4) Ratio of the weight of thin liquor to thick liquor

Question 103:

The terminal velocity of a small sphere settling in a viscous fluid varies as the

  • (1) First power of its diameter
  • (2) Inverse square of its diameter
  • (3) Inverse of the fluid viscosity
  • (4) Square of the difference in specific weight of solid and fluid

Question 104:

Water hammer is caused in steam carrying pipelines, because of

  • (1) Partial condensation of steam
  • (2) Vibration of pipeline
  • (3) High degree of super heat of steam
  • (4) Its exposure to torrential rain

Question 105:

Floating head heat exchangers are used for the

  • (1) Heat transfer between corrosive fluids
  • (2) Cases where temperature difference between the shell and the tubes is more (>50°C)
  • (3) Co-current heat transfer systems
  • (4) Counter-current heat transfer systems

Question 106:

Rate of a chemical reaction is not influenced by the:


Question 107:

A batch of material is dried under constant drying conditions. When drying is taking place from all the surfaces, the rate of drying during the constant rate period is

  • (1) Directly proportional to the solid thickness
  • (2) Inversely proportional to the solid thickness
  • (3) Independent of solid thickness
  • (4) Directly proportional to the square of solid thickness

Question 108:

The hydrodynamic and thermal boundary layers will merge when

  • (1) Prandtl number is one
  • (2) Schmidt number tends to infinity
  • (3) Nusselt number tends to infinity
  • (4) Archimedes number is greater than 10,000

Question 109:

Find \(x, y, z\) and \(w\) given that \(3 \begin{bmatrix} x & y
z & w \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} x & 5
-1 & 2w \end{bmatrix} + \begin{bmatrix} 6 & x+y
z+w & 5 \end{bmatrix}\)

  • (1) \(x = 3,\ y = 4,\ z = 3,\ w = 5\)
  • (2) \(x = 3,\ y = 4,\ z = 5,\ w = 2\)
  • (3) \(x = 2,\ y = 4,\ z = 2,\ w = 5\)
  • (4) \(x = 3,\ y = 4,\ z = 2,\ w = 5\)

Question 110:

Find the largest eigenvalue of the matrix \(\begin{bmatrix} 5 & 4
1 & 2 \end{bmatrix}\)

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 6
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 3

Question 111:

Evaluate the limit: \[ \lim_{x \to 0} \left( x - \sin x \right) \left( \frac{1}{x} \right) \]

  • (1) 0
  • (2) 1
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 3

Question 112:

The mean of a binomial distribution is 5, then its variance is

  • (1) \(>\) 5
  • (2) 5
  • (3) \(<\) 5
  • (4) 25

Question 113:

General solution of \((D^2 - 5D + 6)y = 0\) is \(y(x) =\)

  • (1) \(c_1 e^{-3x} + c_2 e^{2x}\)
  • (2) \(c_1 e^{3x} + c_2 e^{-2x}\)
  • (3) \(c_1 e^{3x} + c_2 e^{2x}\)
  • (4) \(c_1 e^{-3x} + c_2 e^{-2x}\)

Question 114:

Integrating factor of the linear differential equation \(\frac{dy}{dx} + \frac{2y}{x} = x \log x\) is

  • (1) \(x\)
  • (2) \(x^2\)
  • (3) \(x^3\)
  • (4) \(x^4\)

Question 115:

In the Taylor series expansion of \(e^x\) about \(x = 2\), the coefficient of \((x - 2)^4\) is

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{4!}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{2^4}{4!}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{e^2}{4!}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{e^4}{4!}\)

Question 116:

The Laurent series of \( f(z) = \frac{z}{(z^2+1)(z^2+4)} \) for \( |z| < 1 \) is:


Question 117:

Let E and F be the events of a sample space S of an experiment, if \( P(S/F) = P(F/F) \), then \( P(S/F) \) is equal to:

  • (1) 0
  • (2) -1
  • (3) 1
  • (4) 2

Question 118:

If \(p = \frac{1}{8}; n = 640; q = \frac{7}{8}\), then variance Binomial Distribution

  • (1) 0.07
  • (2) 0.7
  • (3) 7.0
  • (4) 70.0

Question 119:

The function \(f(x,y) = x^2 + y^2 - xy - x - y + 5\) has

  • (1) Maximum at (1,1)
  • (2) Saddle point at (1,1)
  • (3) Minimum at (1,1)
  • (4) Minimum at (1,2)

Question 120:

From the given data value of \(\int_{1}^{2} \frac{1}{x} dx\) using Simpson’s 1/3rd rule is


  • (1) 0.06932
  • (2) 0.6932
  • (3) 6.932
  • (4) 0.006932