AP PGECET 2024 Food Technology Question Paper is available for download here. Sri Venkateswara University, Tirupati on behalf of APSCHE conducted AP PGECET 2024 Food Technology on May 30 in Shift 2 from 2.30 PM to 4.30 PM. AP PGECET Question Paper 2024 consists of 120 MCQ-based questions in total carrying 1 mark each to be attempted in the duration of 2 hours.

AP PGECET 2024 Food Technology Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

AP PGECET 2024 Food Technology​ Question Paper with Answer Key download iconDownload Check Solution
AP PGECET Food Technology 2024

Question 1:

Zeaxanthin is a

  • (1) Bacteriochlorophyll
  • (2) Carotenoid
  • (3) Steroid
  • (4) Protein

Question 2:

The disease pellagra is due to a deficiency of

  • (1) Vitamin C
  • (2) Biotin
  • (3) Folic acid
  • (4) Niacin

Question 3:

Enantiomers are

  • (1) Stereoisomers that are non-superimposable mirror images
  • (2) Optical isomers that are superimposable mirror images
  • (3) Stereoisomers that are non-superimposable and non-mirror images
  • (4) Isomers which differ in their configuration around a single carbon atom

Question 4:

Rhombic plate like osazones are formed by

  • (1) Glucose
  • (2) Galactose
  • (3) Maltose
  • (4) Sucrose

Question 5:

Which of the following is true about the rancidity?

  • (1) Oxidation of oil present in food
  • (2) Reduction of oil present in food
  • (3) Oxidation of sugars present in food
  • (4) Reduction of sugars present in food

Question 6:

The chemical formula of oleic acid is

  • (1) C\(_{18}\)H\(_{32}\)O\(_2\)
  • (2) C\(_{18}\)H\(_{34}\)O\(_2\)
  • (3) C\(_{17}\)H\(_{34}\)O\(_2\)
  • (4) C\(_{17}\)H\(_{32}\)O\(_2\)

Question 7:

Which among these is an index organism to find the efficacy of pasteurization is

  • (1) Staphylococcus aureus
  • (2) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  • (3) Escherichia coli
  • (4) Bacillus cereus

Question 8:

The most abundant naturally occurring non-essential amino acid present in human body is

  • (1) Glutamine
  • (2) Histidine
  • (3) Leucine
  • (4) Threonine

Question 9:

Which of the following is true about the myoglobin?

  • (1) Present in skeletal and cardiac muscle
  • (2) Present only in kidneys
  • (3) Present only in liver
  • (4) Present only in brain

Question 10:

...... is involved in vitamin A metabolism

  • (1) Tannins
  • (2) Beta Carotene
  • (3) Chlorophyll
  • (4) Anthocyanins

Question 11:

Linalool is a

  • (1) Monoterpene
  • (2) Diterpene
  • (3) Triterpene
  • (4) Tetraterpene

Question 12:

Identify the non-polar aliphatic amino acid

  • (1) Tryptophan
  • (2) Serine
  • (3) Histidine
  • (4) Valine

Question 13:

Cellulose is a polymer of

  • (1) Branched chain of glucose monomers joined by \(\beta\) 1-4 glycosidic linkages
  • (2) Unbranched chain of glucose monomers joined by \(\beta\) 1-4 glycosidic linkages
  • (3) Branched chain of glucose monomers joined by \(\alpha\) 1-4 glycosidic linkages
  • (4) Unbranched chain of glucose monomers joined by \(\alpha\) 1-4 glycosidic linkages

Question 14:

Ceramides are

  • (1) Protein synthesized by endoplasmic reticulum
  • (2) Sphingolipid synthesized by endoplasmic reticulum
  • (3) Carbohydrate synthesized by endoplasmic reticulum
  • (4) Sphingolipid synthesized by Golgi apparatus

Question 15:

Which of the following is the precursor of testosterone?

  • (1) Cholesterol
  • (2) Terpenoid
  • (3) Thyroxine
  • (4) Glucose

Question 16:

In an \(\alpha\)-helix hydrogen bonds are present

  • (1) Between chains that run side by side
  • (2) Only between amino acids of opposite charge
  • (3) Within a single chain
  • (4) Between polar amino acid and water

Question 17:

Which of the following has the lowest melting point?

  • (1) Fatty acids with sites of unsaturation with \(cis\) double bonds
  • (2) Fatty acids with sites of unsaturation with \(trans\) double bonds
  • (3) Fatty acids with no sites of unsaturation
  • (4) Fatty acids with longer hydrophobic tails

Question 18:

Which of the following is not true about the following?

  • (1) Chlorophyll ‘b’ contains aldehyde groups in their side chains
  • (2) Chlorophyll ‘a’ contains methyl groups in their side chains
  • (3) Chlorophyll ‘a’ contains aldehyde groups in their side chains
  • (4) Chlorophyll ‘a’ and chlorophyll ‘b’ contains the metal ion magnesium

Question 19:

The major component of bee wax is

  • (1) Triacontanoylpalmitate
  • (2) Tripalmitate
  • (3) Contanoyl acetate
  • (4) Diconanoylpalmitate

Question 20:

Identify the amino acid with imino acid group

  • (1) Histidine
  • (2) Glycine
  • (3) Alanine
  • (4) Proline

Question 21:

The component of coenzyme A is

  • (1) Folic acid
  • (2) Biotin
  • (3) Pantothenic acid
  • (4) Pyridoxine

Question 22:

Polyphenol oxidase is an enzyme that leads to

  • (1) Enzymatic browning of fruits and vegetables
  • (2) Enzymatic conversion of proteins into fats in fruits
  • (3) Enzyme that protects the fruits taste
  • (4) Enzyme that is used for artificial ripening of fruits

Question 23:

Kwashiorkor is a nutritional deficiency disorder occurs due to lack of ......... in diet

  • (1) Fats
  • (2) Carbohydrates
  • (3) Minerals
  • (4) Proteins

Question 24:

Adding micronutrients deliberately to the food products that are in deficit in the diet of a given population so as to correct or prevent identified deficiency and improve the health of individuals is known as

  • (1) Food fortification
  • (2) Food fruitification
  • (3) Food rancidity
  • (4) Food blanching

Question 25:

Microorganisms destroyed using thermal methods follows which order kinetics

  • (1) Zero order
  • (2) Second order
  • (3) First order
  • (4) Both zero order and first order

Question 26:

Clostridium botulinum is a

  • (1) Gram negative, spherical-shaped, spore forming, aerobic bacteria
  • (2) Gram positive, rod-shaped, spore forming, anaerobic motile bacteria
  • (3) Gram positive, rod-shaped, non-spore forming bacteria
  • (4) Gram positive, spherical-shaped, anaerobic, non-motile bacteria

Question 27:

Aflatoxins are produced by

  • (1) Aspergillus flavus
  • (2) Shigella dysenteriae
  • (3) Salmonella typhimurium
  • (4) Escherichia coli

Question 28:

Sauerkraut is a

  • (1) Fermented product of cabbage
  • (2) Fermented product of garlic
  • (3) Fermented product of potato
  • (4) Fermented product of onions

Question 29:

....... is the portion of the growth curve where rapid growth of bacteria is observed

  • (1) Lag phase
  • (2) Logarithmic phase
  • (3) Stationary phase
  • (4) Decline phase

Question 30:

Which of the following is true about tannins

  • (1) FeCl\(_3\) test is used to detect tannins
  • (2) Salkowski’s test is used to detect tannins
  • (3) Libermann-Buchard’s test is used to detect tannins
  • (4) Biuret test is used to detect tannins

Question 31:

Which bacteria gives a positive reaction towards methyl red test

  • (1) Enterobacter aerogenes
  • (2) Escherichia coli
  • (3) Aspergillus niger
  • (4) Klebsiella pneumoniae

Question 32:

Which of the statements is true about the structure of fungi

  • (1) Chitinous cell walls, plasma membranes containing ergosterol, and 80S rRNA
  • (2) Non-chitinous cell walls, plasma membranes containing ergosterol, and 70S rRNA
  • (3) Chitinous cell walls, plasma membranes containing sugars, and 70S rRNA
  • (4) No cell walls and plasma membranes

Question 33:

In Gram's staining technique, which acts as a mordant

  • (1) Alcohol
  • (2) Iodine
  • (3) Saffranine
  • (4) Crystal violet

Question 34:

Mycolic acid is a characteristic feature of

  • (1) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  • (2) Staphylococcus aureus
  • (3) Salmonella typhimurium
  • (4) Bacillus subtilis

Question 35:

Identify the correct sequence of products during wine preparation

  • (1) Glucose \(\rightarrow\) pyruvic acid \(\rightarrow\) acetaldehyde \(\rightarrow\) ethyl alcohol
  • (2) Glucose \(\rightarrow\) acetaldehyde \(\rightarrow\) pyruvic acid \(\rightarrow\) ethyl alcohol
  • (3) Glucose \(\rightarrow\) acetaldehyde \(\rightarrow\) ethyl alcohol
  • (4) Glucose \(\rightarrow\) pyruvic acid \(\rightarrow\) ethyl alcohol

Question 36:

Acetobacter aceti is used in the preparation of

  • (1) Beer
  • (2) Vinegar
  • (3) Cheese
  • (4) Soya sauce

Question 37:

Acid fast staining method includes which of the following

  • (1) Methyl red
  • (2) Safranine
  • (3) Crystal violet
  • (4) Carbol fuchsin

Question 38:

Which is important to create an effective food safety management system

  • (1) Hazard analysis and critical control points
  • (2) Hazard approval and crucial contain points
  • (3) Hazard analysis and critical common perspectives
  • (4) Hazard analysis and critical common points

Question 39:

Which of the following is true ISO 22000

  • (1) ISO 22000 is a policy developed to promote industries excluding food industry
  • (2) ISO 22000 requires that the food safety policy be supported by measurable objectives rather than being used as a framework for establishing objectives
  • (3) ISO 22000 is a policy equivalent to ISO 9001
  • (4) ISO 22000 is policy developed to promote leather industry

Question 40:

National Food Laboratory, Ghaziabad is

  • (1) No accreditation is required
  • (2) Accredited by National Accreditation Board of Testing and Calibration Laboratories and
  • (3) Recognized by Food Safety and Standards authority of India
  • (4) Accredited by Council of Scientific and Industrial Research

Question 41:

Consumer Protection Act was established in

  • (1) 1988
  • (2) 1986
  • (3) 1980
  • (4) 1978

Question 42:

The length of time a food can be kept under stated storage conditions while maintaining its optimum safety and quality is known as

  • (1) Shelf life
  • (2) Half life
  • (3) Median life
  • (4) Mean life

Question 43:

Prevention of Food Adulteration Act was established in

  • (1) 1964
  • (2) 1954
  • (3) 1974
  • (4) 1984

Question 44:

The Recommended Dietary Allowance of vitamin E is

  • (1) 15 mg per day
  • (2) 50 mg per day
  • (3) 55 mg per day
  • (4) 60 mg per day

Question 45:

Identify the probiotic bacteria

  • (1) Bifidobacterium longum
  • (2) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  • (3) Rhizobium leguminosarum
  • (4) Campylobacter jejuni

Question 46:

Isoflavone is a

  • (1) Terpenoid
  • (2) Phytoestrogen
  • (3) Saponin
  • (4) Vitamin B12

Question 47:

In kidneys, Vitamin D is converted into 1, 25 dihydroxyvitamin D through

  • (1) Carboxylation
  • (2) Nitration
  • (3) Deamination
  • (4) Hydroxylation

Question 48:

In accordance to the FSSAI rules, the following comes under class II preservatives

  • (1) Honey
  • (2) Vinegar
  • (3) Edible vegetable oil
  • (4) Sorbic acid including its salts

Question 49:

....... conditions are considered as high temperature short time pasteurization of heating milk

  • (1) 71.7°C for 15 seconds
  • (2) 71.7°C for 15 minutes
  • (3) 71.7°C for 60 seconds
  • (4) 71.7°C for 30 minutes

Question 50:

The dimensions of kinematic viscosity are

  • (1) L\(^2\)T\(^{-1}\)
  • (2) L\(^1\)T\(^{-1}\)
  • (3) L\(^2\)T\(^{-2}\)
  • (4) L\(^1\)T\(^{-2}\)

Question 51:

Cod liver oil is rich in

  • (1) Omega-3 fatty acids
  • (2) Palmitic acid
  • (3) Oleic acid
  • (4) Linolenic acid

Question 52:

Rumenic acid is a

  • (1) Conjugated hexadecenoic acid
  • (2) Conjugated heptadecenoic acid
  • (3) Conjugated linoleic acid
  • (4) Conjugated decadienoic acid

Question 53:

Alpha tocopherol contains

  • (1) Three methyl groups attached to chromanol ring
  • (2) One methyl group attached to chromanol ring
  • (3) Eight methyl groups attached to chromanol ring
  • (4) No methyl group attached to chromanol ring

Question 54:

A glucosinolate present in white mustard

  • (1) Sinaplin
  • (2) Cobalamin
  • (3) Thiamine
  • (4) Aspargine

Question 55:

Codex Alimentarius Commission is an international food standard commission

  • (1) Established by FSSAI
  • (2) Established by HACCP
  • (3) Jointly established by Food and Agriculture Organization and the World Health Organization
  • (4) Jointly established by FSSAI and HACCP

Question 56:

Blanching is a unit operation commonly used in vegetable processing is

  • (1) Chemical method to remove antioxidants from vegetables
  • (2) Heat sterilization method to inactivate deleterious enzymes prior to canning, freezing and drying
  • (3) Chilling method to remove water content from vegetables
  • (4) Moisturization method to increase fortification of vegetables

Question 57:

Identify the descending order of the fatty acids in the refined corn oil

  • (1) PUFA > MUFA > SFA
  • (2) SFA > PUFA > MUFA
  • (3) PUFA > SFA > MUFA
  • (4) SFA > MUFA > PFA

Question 58:

Corn gluten meal is a by-product of

  • (1) Wet milling of maize
  • (2) Wet milling of cabbage
  • (3) Wet milling of banana
  • (4) Wet milling of mangoes

Question 59:

Beta-lactoglobulin is a major whey protein absent in

  • (1) Camel’s milk
  • (2) Cow’s milk
  • (3) Goat’s milk
  • (4) Cow’s milk and Goat’s milk

Question 60:

The formula for Newton’s law of cooling is

  • (1) T(t) = (Tₒ - Tₛ) e^kt
  • (2) T(t) = Tₛ + (Tₒ - Tₛ)
  • (3) T(t) = Tₛ + (Tₒ - Tₛ) e^kt
  • (4) T(t) = Tₛ + (Tₒ - Tₛ) e^kt

Question 61:

Indian Institute of Millets Research is located in

  • (1) Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh
  • (2) Bengaluru, Karnataka
  • (3) Hyderabad, Telangana
  • (4) Chennai, Tamilnadu

Question 62:

Scientific name of black gram

  • (1) Vigna mungo
  • (2) Vigna radiata
  • (3) Cicer arietinum L.
  • (4) Cajanus cajan

Question 63:

Hordeum vulgare is commonly known as

  • (1) Wheat
  • (2) Jowar
  • (3) Barley
  • (4) Red gram

Question 64:

Which of the following is used as sugar substitute in candies

  • (1) Ribitol
  • (2) Xylitol
  • (3) Inositol
  • (4) Mannitol

Question 65:

Which is known as invert sugar

  • (1) Glucose
  • (2) Fructose
  • (3) Sucrose
  • (4) Maltose

Question 66:

The only carbohydrate which does not have any chiral carbon atoms is

  • (1) Dihydroxyacetone
  • (2) Erythrose
  • (3) Erythrulose
  • (4) Glyceraldehyde

Question 67:

Palmitic acid has

  • (1) 28 carbon atoms
  • (2) 32 carbon atoms
  • (3) 8 carbon atoms
  • (4) 16 carbon atoms

Question 68:

Marmalade is a

  • (1) Milk preserved product
  • (2) Sugar and juice preserved product
  • (3) Yeast preserved product
  • (4) Bacterial preserved product

Question 69:

The percentage of cinnamaldehyde in the essential oil of cinnamon bark

  • (1) 50
  • (2) 10
  • (3) 20
  • (4) 90

Question 70:

Which of the following is not a millet

  • (1) Quinoa
  • (2) Bajra
  • (3) Kangni
  • (4) Jowar

Question 71:

Enzymatic tenderization of meat uses

  • (1) Hydrolytic enzymes
  • (2) Lipolytic enzymes
  • (3) Glycolytic enzymes
  • (4) Proteolytic enzymes

Question 72:

As per the FSSAI, the specification of total soluble solids in jam is

  • (1) 65%
  • (2) 10%
  • (3) 45%
  • (4) 5%

Question 73:

Which among the following are food adulterants

  • (1) Methane
  • (2) Hexane
  • (3) Ethylene
  • (4) Octane

Question 74:

Pulsed electric field technology is useful in

  • (1) Food preservation
  • (2) Food fortification
  • (3) Food rancidity
  • (4) Food adulteration

Question 75:

The colour of star ruby grapefruit is due to

  • (1) Quercetin
  • (2) Resveratrol
  • (3) Ellagic acid
  • (4) Lycopene

Question 76:

Sublimation is a process of converting

  • (1) Solid to gaseous state
  • (2) Gaseous to liquid state
  • (3) Liquid to solid state
  • (4) Solid to solid state

Question 77:

The fat content is in the range (high to low) of

  • (1) Whole milk > butter milk > skimmed milk
  • (2) Skimmed milk > butter milk > whole milk
  • (3) Butter milk > whole milk > skimmed milk
  • (4) Skimmed milk > whole milk > butter milk

Question 78:

Which of the following statements is true about 'water in oil' emulsion

  • (1) Water will be the dispersion medium and oil will be the dispersion phase
  • (2) Both water and oil will be the dispersion phases
  • (3) Water will be the dispersion phase and oil will be the dispersion medium
  • (4) Both water and oil will be the dispersion medium

Question 79:

Foodborne pathogenic bacteria, Escherichia coli O157:H7, produces

  • (1) Shiga toxin
  • (2) Mycotoxin
  • (3) Aflatoxin
  • (4) Ricin

Question 80:

The maximum permissible limit of machine generating electron beams in food industry to inactivate microorganisms is

  • (1) 10 MeV
  • (2) 25 MeV
  • (3) 50 MeV
  • (4) 100 MeV

Question 81:

The water activity range required for bacterial growth

  • (1) 1 to 0.75
  • (2) 10 to 15
  • (3) 15 to 25
  • (4) 25 to 30

Question 82:

Pectin is

  • (1) Anionic polysaccharide
  • (2) Cationic polysaccharide
  • (3) Amino acid
  • (4) Hormone

Question 83:

Bottom fermenting yeasts produce larger beers at temperatures

  • (1) < 15°C
  • (2) > 15°C
  • (3) ≥ 25°C
  • (4) ≥ 35°C

Question 84:

Food rheology is a study of

  • (1) Bacteria in food materials
  • (2) Fungus in food materials
  • (3) Deformation and flow of foods under well-defined conditions
  • (4) Molds in food materials

Question 85:

Venturi meter works on

  • (1) Bernoulli’s principle
  • (2) Pythagoras principle
  • (3) Sherwood number
  • (4) Biot number

Question 86:

The enthalpy of evaporation is a function of

  • (1) Weight
  • (2) Humidity
  • (3) Temperature
  • (4) Density

Question 87:


The vapor pressure of water in a solution is always ......... the vapor pressure of pure water, when the temperature
of both the solution and solvent are the same with the same external pressure acting over them

  • (1) Lower than the vapor pressure of pure water
  • (2) Higher than the vapor pressure of pure water
  • (3) Equal to the vapor pressure of pure water
  • (4) Perpendicular to the vapor pressure of pure water

Question 88:

Extrusion cooking is a

  • (1) Low temperature short time process
  • (2) High temperature long time process
  • (3) High temperature short time process
  • (4) Low temperature long time process

Question 89:

The possible relationship between relative centrifugal force and rotations per minute

  • (1) g = rpm² × r × 1.118 × 10⁻⁵
  • (2) g = rpm² × r × 1.118 × 10⁻⁵
  • (3) g = rpm² × r
  • (4) g = rpm² × r² × 1.118 × 10⁻⁷

Question 90:

In food process engineering, the unsteady state of conductive heat transfer states that

  • (1) The changes in temperature depend only on the position
  • (2) The changes in temperature depend not only on the position but also on the time
  • (3) No changes in temperature
  • (4) The changes in temperature depend only on the time

Question 91:

What happens when electromagnetic field is applied to the food materials containing water

  • (1) The water molecules orient themselves according to the polarity of the field
  • (2) The water molecules orient attains random orientation
  • (3) The water molecules evaporate during the process
  • (4) The water molecules orient did not show any polarity

Question 92:

During microwave processing of food materials

  • (1) Microwave energy itself is a thermal energy
  • (2) Heating is a consequence of light energy in a microwave
  • (3) No interactions between microwave energy and dielectric properties of food materials
  • (4) Heating is a consequence of interactions between microwave energy and dielectric properties of food materials

Question 93:

Milling process is linked to

  • (1) Expansion
  • (2) Size reduction
  • (3) Crystallization
  • (4) Extrusion

Question 94:

The process of food preservation using drying technique

  • (1) Reduces water activity
  • (2) Increases water activity
  • (3) No change in water activity
  • (4) No relation to water activity

Question 95:

Gerber centrifuge is used to

  • (1) Measure protein content in milk
  • (2) Measure carbohydrate content in milk
  • (3) Measure fat content in milk
  • (4) Measure bacteria in milk

Question 96:

A dimensionless number which approximates the ratio of buoyancy force to viscous force is

  • (1) Grashof number
  • (2) Sherwood number
  • (3) Schmidt number
  • (4) Reynolds number

Question 97:

A low Biot number < 0.2 means

  • (1) Thermal conductivity of the object is low
  • (2) Thermal conductivity of the object does not change
  • (3) Thermal conductivity of the object is high
  • (4) Thermal radiation of the object is high

Question 98:

Specific heat is

  • (1) The quantity of heat that is gained or lost by a unit mass of product to accomplish a unit change in temperature, without a change in state
  • (2) The quantity of heat gained by a product with a change in state
  • (3) The quantity of heat lost by a product with a change in state
  • (4) The quantity of heat neither gained nor lost by a product

Question 99:

Plasmid is a

  • (1) Protein present in flagella of bacteria
  • (2) Outer membrane protein of bacteria
  • (3) Extrachromosomal DNA present in bacteria
  • (4) Lipopolysaccharide layer protein of bacteria

Question 100:

Identify the correct match related to pyrometer

  • (1) High Pressure
  • (2) High Temperature
  • (3) High Humidity
  • (4) Low Pressure

Question 101:

In steady state conditions, the flow behavior is characterized by

  • (1) Stress alone
  • (2) Deformation rate alone
  • (3) Independent of stress and deformation rate
  • (4) Both stress and deformation rate

Question 102:

Which of the following statements is not correct

  • (1) Prokaryotes lack Golgi apparatus
  • (2) Prokaryotes contain 70S ribosome
  • (3) Transcription and translation occur in cytoplasm of prokaryotes
  • (4) The genetic material in prokaryotes is surrounded by nuclear membrane

Question 103:

A bacterial culture contained 32 × 10⁶ cells after 2.5 hours of exponential growth. If the doubling time was 30 minutes, what was the initial population number in this culture?

  • (1) 20 × 10⁶ cells
  • (2) 40 × 10⁵ cells
  • (3) 16 × 10⁶ cells
  • (4) 10 × 10⁵ cells

Question 104:

....... stain is used to detect endospores

  • (1) Crystal violet
  • (2) Malachite green
  • (3) Eosin
  • (4) Carbol Fuchsin

Question 105:

Triticale is a hybrid of

  • (1) Wheat and rye
  • (2) Oat and rye
  • (3) Millet and wheat
  • (4) Rice and wheat

Question 106:

Fatty acid important for brain development

  • (1) Palmitic acid
  • (2) Linoleic acid
  • (3) Arachidonic acid
  • (4) Decosahexaenoic acid

Question 107:

Beriberi is due to the deficiency of

  • (1) Vitamin C
  • (2) Vitamin B5
  • (3) Vitamin B1
  • (4) Vitamin B12

Question 108:

World Food Day is celebrated every year on

  • (1) September 16
  • (2) October 16
  • (3) November 16
  • (4) December 16

Question 109:

Thyroxine contains ........ number of Iodine atoms

  • (1) 4
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 1

Question 110:

Avidin present in egg white is a .........

  • (1) Fat
  • (2) Carbohydrate
  • (3) Glycoprotein
  • (4) Biotin

Question 111:

Caffeine is .......

  • (1) 1,3,7 trimethylxanthine
  • (2) 1,3,7 tetramethylxanthine
  • (3) 1,3,7 pentamethylxanthine
  • (4) 1,3,7 hexamethylxanthine

Question 112:

Staphylococcus aureus is

  • (1) Gram-positive spherically shaped bacterium
  • (2) Gram-negative spherically shaped bacterium
  • (3) Gram-positive rod-shaped bacterium
  • (4) Gram-negative rod-shaped bacterium

Question 113:

Christie–Atkins–Munch-Peterson test is related to

  • (1) Detect potassium in fruits
  • (2) Detect fat content
  • (3) Detect food flavours
  • (4) Identify bacteria

Question 114:

Mycoplasma is a

  • (1) Bacteria without cell wall
  • (2) Mold without cell wall
  • (3) Yeast without cell wall
  • (4) Virus

Question 115:

The fermented wine prepared from cashew apple is

  • (1) Zinfandel
  • (2) Porto wine
  • (3) Feni
  • (4) Sauvignon Blanc

Question 116:

If the melting point of oils are high as compared to its surrounding temperature, then oils remain in

  • (1) Liquid state
  • (2) Solid state
  • (3) Gaseous state
  • (4) Vapour state

Question 117:

Evaporation of water is

  • (1) An exothermic reaction
  • (2) A process during which neither heat is released nor heat is absorbed
  • (3) A process of chemical reaction
  • (4) An endothermic reaction

Question 118:

Black bread mold is caused by

  • (1) Aspergillus niger
  • (2) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
  • (3) Rhizopus stolonifer
  • (4) Penicillium notatum

Question 119:

The pH of honey is

  • (1) < 5.0
  • (2) > 5.0
  • (3) = 7.0
  • (4) > 9.0

Question 120:

Corrin ring is present in ...........vitamin

  • (1) Vitamin B1
  • (2) Vitamin B2
  • (3) Vitamin B12
  • (4) Vitamin B5