AP PGECET 2024 Mechanical Engineering Question Paper is available for download here. Sri Venkateswara University, Tirupati on behalf of APSCHE conducted AP PGECET 2024 Mechanical Engineering on May 30 in Shift 2 from 2.30 PM to 4.30 PM. AP PGECET Question Paper 2024 consists of 120 MCQ-based questions in total carrying 1 mark each to be attempted in the duration of 2 hours.

AP PGECET 2024 Mechanical Engineering Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

AP PGECET 2024 Mechanical Engineering​ Question Paper with Answer Key download iconDownload Check Solution

Question 1:

"The moment of resultant of all the forces in a plane about any point is equal to the algebraic sum of moment of all the forces about the same point". This statement is known as

  • (1) Parallelogram law
  • (2) Triangle law
  • (3) Lami's theorem
  • (4) Varignon's theorem

Question 2:

The force acting at a point \( A \) is shown in the figure. The equivalent force system acting at point \( B \) is:

  • (1) Force 3000 N in same direction and 6000 Nm clockwise moment
  • (2) Force 3000 N in opposite direction and 6000 Nm clockwise moment
  • (3) Force 3000 N in opposite direction and 6000 Nm counter clockwise moment
  • (4) Force 3000 N in same direction and 12000 Nm counter clockwise moment

Question 3:

A uniform rod AB is in equilibrium when resting on a smooth groove, the walls of which are at right angles to each other as shown in the figure. What is the relation between \( \theta \) and \( \phi \) in degrees?


  • (1) \( \theta = 45^\circ + \phi \)
  • (2) \( \theta = 45^\circ - \phi \)
  • (3) \( \theta = 90^\circ - \phi \)
  • (4) \( \theta = 90^\circ + \phi \)

Question 4:

A plane truss has four members and four joints. The truss is

  • (1) Perfect
  • (2) Deficient
  • (3) Redundant
  • (4) Rigid

Question 5:

Which of the following forces are considered in the equations of virtual work?

  • (1) External forces
  • (2) Internal forces
  • (3) Reaction forces
  • (4) Tensions in strings

Question 6:

If the acceleration-time diagram is represented by a horizontal straight line, then the displacement is:

  • (1) Zero
  • (2) Straight line
  • (3) Parabolic curve
  • (4) Cubic curve

Question 7:

In the system of pulleys shown in Figure, the pulleys are massless and the strings are inextensible. What is the relation between the accelerations of blocks \( A \) and \( B \)?





Options:

  • (1) \( a_B = 2 a_A \)
  • (2) \( a_B = 4 a_A \)
  • (3) \( 2 a_B = a_A \)
  • (4) \( 4 a_B = a_A \)

Question 8:

A 160 g cricket ball is moving with a speed of 20 m/s. What force is required to stop the ball in 0.2 seconds?

  • (1) \( -4 \, N \)
  • (2) \( -8 \, N \)
  • (3) \( -12 \, N \)
  • (4) \( -16 \, N \)

Question 9:

A solid cylinder of weight \( W = 100 \, N \) and radius \( r = 0.5 \, m \) is pulled along a horizontal plane by a horizontal force \( P = 90 \, N \) applied to the end of the string wound around the cylinder. What is the angular acceleration of the disc? Assume \( g = 10 \, m/s^2 \).


  • (1) \( 9 \, rad/s^2 \)
  • (2) \( 12 \, rad/s^2 \)
  • (3) \( 18 \, rad/s^2 \)
  • (4) \( 24 \, rad/s^2 \)

Question 10:

Which of the following strain mainly represents the change of shape?

  • (1) Lateral strain
  • (2) Longitudinal strain
  • (3) Shear strain
  • (4) Volumetric strain

Question 11:

A steel rod of diameter 10 mm and 1 m long is heated from 20°C to 120°C, its coefficient of thermal expansion \( \alpha = 12 \times 10^{-6} / K \) and Young’s Modulus \( E = 200 \, GPa \). If the rod is free to expand, the thermal stress developed in it is

  • (1) Zero
  • (2) 24 MPa
  • (3) 240 MPa
  • (4) 2400 MPa

Question 12:

State of stress at a point of a loaded component is given by normal stresses \( \sigma_x = 30 \, MPa \), \( \sigma_y = 18 \, MPa \), and shear stress \( \tau_{xy} = 8 \, MPa \). What are the principal stresses?

  • (1) 38 MPa and 26 MPa
  • (2) 34 MPa and 14 MPa
  • (3) 24 MPa and 8 MPa
  • (4) 19 MPa and 13 MPa

Question 13:

If the shear force diagram for a beam is a triangle with the length of the beam as its base, the beam is

  • (1) A cantilever beam with a concentrated load at its free end
  • (2) A cantilever beam with uniformly distributed load over its whole span
  • (3) A simply supported beam with a concentrated load at its mid point
  • (4) A simply supported beam with uniformly distributed load over its whole span

Question 14:

A beam has rectangular section with width and depth as 100 mm \( \times \) 200 mm. If it is subjected to maximum bending moment of 40 kN-mm, then the minimum bending stress developed would be

  • (1) 60 MPa
  • (2) 120 MPa
  • (3) 240 MPa
  • (4) 24 MPa

Question 15:

The ratio of area under the bending moment diagram to the flexural rigidity between two points of a beam gives the change in

  • (1) Shear Force
  • (2) Bending Moment
  • (3) Slope
  • (4) Deflection

Question 16:

Maximum shear stress developed on the surface of a solid circular shaft under torsion is 240 MPa. If the shaft diameter is doubled, then the maximum shear stress developed corresponding to the same torque will be:

Correct Answer: 4. 30 MPa
View Solution

Question 17:

A column fixed at one end and free at the other end buckles at a load P. Now, both the ends of the column are fixed. What is the buckling load for these end conditions?

Correct Answer: 4. 16P
View Solution

Question 18:

A bar of length \( L \), area of cross-section \( A \), is subjected to a tensile force \( P \). If \( E \) is the Young's modulus of the bar, the strain energy \( U \) stored in the body is:

  • (1) \( U = \frac{PL}{AE} \)
  • (2) \( U = \frac{PL}{2AE} \)
  • (3) \( U = \frac{P^2L}{2AE} \)
  • (4) \( U = \frac{P^2L}{AE} \)

Question 19:

The number of degrees of freedom of the mechanism shown in Figure is



  • (1) 2
  • (2) 1
  • (3) 0
  • (4) -1

Question 20:

In a four-bar mechanism ABCD, the link lengths are given: AB = 800 mm, BC = 100 mm, CD = 400 mm, DA = 700 mm. If the mechanism is a double crank mechanism then the fixed link should be

  • (1) AB
  • (2) BC
  • (3) CD
  • (4) DA

Question 21:

The total number of instantaneous centres for a mechanism of \( n \) links are:

  • (1) \( ^nC_2 \)
  • (2) \( ^nP_2 \)
  • (3) \( ^nC_2 + ^nP_2 \)
  • (4) \( ^nC_2 - ^nP_2 \)

Question 22:

A slider sliding at 100 mm/s on a link which is rotating at 60 rpm is subjected to Coriolis acceleration of magnitude:

Correct Answer: 3. \( 400 \pi \, \text{mm/s}^2 \)
View Solution

Question 23:

The direction of the linear velocity of any point on the kinematic link relative to any other point on the same kinematic link is

  • (1) Parallel to the line joining the points
  • (2) Perpendicular to the line joining the points
  • (3) At 45° to the line joining the points
  • (4) Dependent on the angular speed of rotation of the link

Question 24:

The area under the turning moment diagram represents

  • (1) Mean turning moment
  • (2) Maximum torque to which the crankshaft is subjected to
  • (3) Power developed by the engine
  • (4) Work done per cycle

Question 25:

In a simple gear train, if the number of idler gears is odd, then the direction of motion of the driven gear will be:

Correct Answer: 1. Be same as that of the driving gear
View Solution

Question 26:

A 10 kg mass is supported on a spring of stiffness 4 kN/m and has a dashpot which produces a resistance of 20 N at a velocity of 0.25 m/s. The damping ratio of the system is:

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 0.8
  • (3) 0.4
  • (4) 0.2

Question 27:

Whirling speed of a shaft coincides with the natural frequency of its:

Correct Answer: 2. Transverse Vibrations
View Solution

Question 28:

The natural frequency of a spring-mass system is 2 Hz. When an additional mass of 1 kg is added to the original mass \( m \), the natural frequency is reduced to 1 Hz. The original mass \( m \) is

  • (1) 1 kg
  • (2) \( \frac{1}{2} \) kg
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{3} \) kg
  • (4) \( \frac{1}{4} \) kg

Question 29:

An element is subjected to a tensile stress of 60 MPa and a shear stress of 40 MPa. If the material has the yield strength obtained in a simple tensile test is 320 MPa, the factor of safety based on maximum principal stress theory is

  • (1) 4
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 2.5
  • (4) 2

Question 30:

The design stress for a component subjected to a completely reversible load, is found by applying the factor of safety to:

  • (1) Yield Strength
  • (2) Ultimate Strength
  • (3) Buckling Strength
  • (4) Endurance Strength

Question 31:

In eccentric loading of welds, the stress which vary from point to point as proportional to its distance from the centre of gravity, is known as:

Correct Answer: 2. Secondary Shear Stress
View Solution

Question 32:

A solid uniform shaft of circular cross section is subjected to a maximum bending moment of 3 kNm and a twisting moment of 4 kNm. The equivalent torsional moment is

  • (1) 1 kNm
  • (2) 4 kNm
  • (3) 5 kNm
  • (4) 7 kNm

Question 33:

Two mating spur gears have 36 and 108 teeth, respectively. The pinion rotates at 1200 rpm and transmits a torque of 20 Nm. The torque transmitted by the gear is

  • (1) 10 Nm
  • (2) 20 Nm
  • (3) 40 Nm
  • (4) 60 Nm

Question 34:

In the multiple disc clutch, if there are six discs on the driving shaft and five discs on the driven shaft, then the number of pairs of contact surfaces will be

  • (1) 12
  • (2) 11
  • (3) 10
  • (4) 9

Question 35:

Sommerfeld number consists of parameters

  • (1) Viscosity, speed, load, bearing length and clearance
  • (2) Viscosity, speed, journal radius, pressure, and clearance
  • (3) Viscosity, speed, bearing length, clearance and oil temperature
  • (4) Journal radius, bearing length, pressure, surface roughness, and clearance

Question 36:

Which of the following is not an extensive property?

  • (1) Pressure
  • (2) Volume
  • (3) Energy
  • (4) Entropy

Question 37:

Heat Engine cycle represents the devices Boiler (B), Condenser (C), Pump (P) and Turbine (T) arranged in the sequence of:

Correct Answer: 3. B - T - C - P
View Solution

Question 38:

An ideal gas at \( 27^\circ C \) is heated at constant pressure till the volume becomes three times. The temperature of the gas will be

  • (1) \( 81^\circ C \)
  • (2) \( 627^\circ C \)
  • (3) \( 900^\circ C \)
  • (4) \( 1173^\circ C \)

Question 39:

Joule’s experiment states that for a cyclic process

  • (1) Change of pressure is proportional to the temperature change
  • (2) Change of volume is proportional to temperature change
  • (3) Change of internal energy is proportional to temperature change
  • (4) Sum of all heat transfer is proportional to the sum of all work transfer

Question 40:

During one cycle the working fluid in an engine engages in two work interactions: 15 kJ to the fluid and 45 kJ from the fluid, and three heat interactions, two of which are known: 75 kJ to the fluid and 40 kJ from the fluid. The magnitude and direction of the third heat transfer is

  • (1) 5 kJ from the system
  • (2) 55 kJ into the system
  • (3) 5 kJ into the system
  • (4) -5 kJ from the system

Question 41:

A heat engine is supplied with 250 kJ/s of heat at a constant temperature of 227°C; the heat is rejected at 27°C. If the cycle is reversible, then the amount of heat rejected is:

Correct Answer: 2. 150 kJ/s
View Solution

Question 42:

The cycle shown in Figure is composed of internally reversible processes on a T-S diagram. Which of the following is the expression for thermal efficiency in terms of the temperatures?





Options:

  • (1) \( \frac{T_3 - T_1}{T_3 + T_1} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{T_3 + T_1}{T_3 - T_1} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{2} \left( \frac{T_3 - T_1}{T_3 + T_1} \right) \)
  • (4) \( \frac{1}{2} \left( \frac{T_3 + T_1}{T_3 - T_1} \right) \)

Question 43:

Which of the following equation is the basis for the construction of Mollier diagram? (P- Pressure, V- Volume, T- Temperature, U- Internal Energy, h - Enthalpy, s - Entropy)

  • (1) \( \left( \frac{\partial h}{\partial s} \right)_p = P \)
  • (2) \( \left( \frac{\partial h}{\partial s} \right)_p = V \)
  • (3) \( \left( \frac{\partial h}{\partial s} \right)_p = T \)
  • (4) \( \left( \frac{\partial h}{\partial s} \right)_p = U \)

Question 44:

A pure substance is a substance of constant composition throughout its mass and follows

  • (1) One component, one phase
  • (2) One component, one or more phases
  • (3) More than one component, one phase
  • (4) More than one component, one or more phases

Question 45:

A thermodynamic cycle is impossible if

  • (1) \( \oint \frac{dQ}{T} = 0 \)
  • (2) \( \oint \frac{dQ}{T} < 0 \)
  • (3) \( \oint \frac{dQ}{T} > 0 \)
  • (4) \( \oint dS > 0 \)

Question 46:

Carnot cycle is different from Rankine cycle in steam power plant during the following process.

  • (1) Heat Addition
  • (2) Expansion Work
  • (3) Heat Rejection
  • (4) Pump Work

Question 47:

What is the effect of involving Reheat and Regenerative cycle individually on cycle efficiency in the same sequence?

Correct Answer: 4. Low, High
View Solution

Question 48:

The efficiency of Brayton cycle corresponding to maximum net work obtained for \( T_{max} = 900 \, K \) and \( T_{min} = 400 \, K \) is given by

  • (1) 33.3%
  • (2) 44.4%
  • (3) 55.5%
  • (4) 66.6%

Question 49:

The air standard cycle involving constant pressure heat addition and constant volume heat rejection corresponds to

  • (1) Otto Cycle
  • (2) Diesel Cycle
  • (3) Brayton Cycle
  • (4) Atkinson Cycle

Question 50:

Which two properties are sufficient to define the state point of moist air?

Correct Answer: 3. Humidity ratio and dry bulb temperature
View Solution

Question 51:

A process is described by 1-2-3 on a Psychrometric chart. Name the process in the same sequence.


  • (1) Sensible Cooling followed by Dehumidification
  • (2) Sensible Heating followed by Dehumidification
  • (3) Sensible Heating followed by Humidification
  • (4) Sensible Heating followed by Evaporative Cooling

Question 52:

In the heat flow equation, \( Q = -kA \frac{\Delta T}{L} \), the expression for thermal resistance is given by (k - thermal conductivity, A - Area of cross section, L - thickness of the wall)

  • (1) \( \frac{L}{\Delta T} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{A}{kL} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{k}{LA} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{L}{kA} \)

Question 53:

If the radius of a current carrying wire is less than the critical radius, then the addition of electrical insulation will enable the wire to carry a higher current because:

Correct Answer: 3. The heat loss from the wire would increase
View Solution

Question 54:

A fin of length \( L \) is applied the boundary conditions associated with a very long fin, the adiabatic tip fin, and the finite convective tip fin, which of the following observation about the fin-tip temperature (\( T \)) for these three cases is correct.

  • (1) \( T_{very long} > T_{convective tip} > T_{adiabatic tip} \)
  • (2) \( T_{very long} < T_{convective tip} < T_{adiabatic tip} \)
  • (3) \( T_{very long} < T_{adiabatic tip} < T_{convective tip} \)
  • (4) \( T_{convective tip} > T_{adiabatic tip} > T_{very long} \)

Question 55:

In transient heat conduction, the two significant dimensionless numbers are

  • (1) Biot number and Fourier number
  • (2) Fourier number and Reynolds number
  • (3) Reynolds number and Prandtl number
  • (4) Prandtl number and Biot number

Question 56:

The ratio of the energy transferred by convection to that by conduction is represented by

  • (1) Nusselt Number
  • (2) Prandtl Number
  • (3) Froude Number
  • (4) Reynolds Number

Question 57:

In an enclosure there are 8 surfaces. How many individual radiation view factors are involved?

  • (1) 8
  • (2) 16
  • (3) 32
  • (4) 64

Question 58:

The effectiveness of a heat exchanger is defined as the ratio of the actual heat transfer rate to

  • (1) The maximum possible heat-transfer rate
  • (2) The minimum possible heat-transfer rate
  • (3) The overall heat-transfer coefficient
  • (4) The area of the heat exchanger

Question 59:

In a heat exchanger, the hot gases enter with a temperature of 150 °C and leave at 75 °C. The cold fluid enters at 25 °C and leaves at 125 °C. The capacity ratio of the exchanger is:

Correct Answer: 3. 0.75
View Solution

Question 60:

What is the pressure within a 1 mm diameter spherical droplet of water relative to the atmospheric pressure outside? The surface tension of water is 0.07 N/m.

  • (1) 140 Pa
  • (2) 280 Pa
  • (3) 420 Pa
  • (4) 560 Pa

Question 61:

What is the relation for the pressure difference \( P_1 - P_2 \) for the flow device shown in Figure? (\( \rho \) is density of the fluid; \( a, h \) are column heights)


  • (1) \( P_1 - P_2 = (\rho_1 - \rho_2) g h \)
  • (2) \( P_1 - P_2 = (\rho_2 - \rho_1) g h \)
  • (3) \( P_1 - P_2 = (\rho_1 - \rho_2) g a \)
  • (4) \( P_1 - P_2 = (\rho_2 - \rho_1) g a \)

Question 62:

For stable equilibrium of floating bodies, the centre of gravity has to:

Correct Answer: 3. Be always below the metacentre
View Solution

Question 63:

Which of the following represents the equation of continuity for a steady compressible fluid? \( \vec{V} \) represents the velocity vector; \( \rho \) represents density

  • (1) \( \nabla \cdot (\vec{V}) = 0 \)
  • (2) \( \nabla \times (\vec{V}) = 0 \)
  • (3) \( \nabla \times (\rho \vec{V}) = 0 \)
  • (4) \( \nabla \cdot (\rho \vec{V}) = 0 \)

Question 64:

A Pitot-tube is used for measuring

  • (1) Flow velocity
  • (2) Flow pressure
  • (3) Flow rate
  • (4) Total energy of flow

Question 65:

A fluid, with viscosity 1.5 Pa.s and density 1260 kg/m³, flows at a velocity of 5 m/s in a 150 mm diameter pipe. The Reynolds number is:

Correct Answer: 2. 630
View Solution

Question 66:

According to the Darcy--Weisbach equation, the loss of head for flow through a circular pipe is (\( L \)-length of the pipe, \( D \)-diameter of the pipe, \( V \)-velocity of flow, \( f \)-friction factor)

  • (1) \( h_f = \frac{f L \sqrt{V}}{2 g D} \)
  • (2) \( h_f = \frac{f L V}{2 g D} \)
  • (3) \( h_f = \frac{f L V^2}{2 g D} \)
  • (4) \( h_f = \frac{f L V^3}{2 g D} \)

Question 67:

Identify the correct combination of turbines classification based on the head of the water.

  • (1) A-P, B-R, C-Q
  • (2) A-R, B-P, C-Q
  • (3) A-P, B-Q, C-R
  • (4) A-Q, B-R, C-P

Question 68:

According to the direction of flow through the runner, Kaplan turbine is a:

Correct Answer: 4. Axial flow turbine
View Solution

Question 69:

If H is the available head for a hydraulic turbine, the speed (N), the discharge (Q), and the power (P), respectively are proportional to

  • (1) \( N \propto \sqrt{H}; Q \propto \sqrt{H}; P \propto H^{3/2} \)
  • (2) \( N \propto \sqrt{H}; Q \propto H; P \propto H^{3/2} \)
  • (3) \( N \propto \sqrt{H}; Q \propto H^{3/2}; P \propto H^{5/2} \)
  • (4) \( N \propto H; Q \propto \sqrt{H^{3}}; P \propto H^{5/2} \)

Question 70:

The coordination number for a Body-Centred Cubic (BCC) structure is

  • (1) 4 atoms
  • (2) 8 atoms
  • (3) 9 atoms
  • (4) 14 atoms

Question 71:

For a ductile material, toughness is a measure of

  • (1) Resistance to indentation
  • (2) Ability to absorb energy till elastic limit
  • (3) Ability to absorb energy up to fracture
  • (4) Resistance to scratching

Question 72:

Primary object of full annealing is to

  • (1) Improve surface finish and hardness
  • (2) Reduce ductility and resilience
  • (3) Increase toughness and yield point
  • (4) Increase ductility and machinability

Question 73:

A spherical drop of molten metal of radius 5 mm was found to solidify in 12 s. In how much time will a similar drop of radius 10 mm solidify?

  • (1) 12 s
  • (2) 24 s
  • (3) 48 s
  • (4) 96 s

Question 74:

Select the correct statement for the riser design

  • (1) The size of riser should be designed for maximum possible volume but should maintain a solidification time less than that of casting.
  • (2) The size of riser should be designed for minimum possible volume but should maintain a solidification time longer than that of casting.
  • (3) The size of riser should be designed for maximum possible volume but should maintain a solidification time longer than that of casting.
  • (4) The size of riser should be designed for minimum possible volume but should maintain a solidification time less than that of casting.

Question 75:

In a gating system, the ratio of 1:2:4 represents:

Correct Answer: 1. Sprue Base Area: Runner Area: Ingate Area
View Solution

Question 76:

Name the four processes A, B, C, and D, shown in Figure, in the same sequence.

Correct Answer: 4. A – Extrusion, B– Drawing, C– Stretch Forming, D – Shearing
View Solution

Question 77:

A stock of thickness 30 mm is to be rolled to 10 mm in a single stage. What is the minimum diameter of the rolls, if the maximum angle of bite is 60°?

  • (1) 20 mm
  • (2) 40 mm
  • (3) 60 mm
  • (4) 70 mm

Question 78:

In cold working of metals, the working temperature is

  • (1) Less than the room temperature
  • (2) Room temperature
  • (3) Below the recrystallization temperature
  • (4) Above the recrystallization temperature

Question 79:

The shear strength of a sheet metal is 300 MPa. The blanking force required to produce a blank of 100 mm diameter from a 2 mm thick sheet is close to

  • (1) 190 kN
  • (2) 150 kN
  • (3) 120 kN
  • (4) 90 kN

Question 80:

In which of the following process, the state of stress of the material undergoing deformation is only shear?

Correct Answer: 4. Blanking
View Solution

Question 81:

Which one of the following is a solid state joining process?

  • (1) Gas tungsten arc welding
  • (2) Resistance spot welding
  • (3) Friction Stir welding
  • (4) Submerged arc welding

Question 82:

Straight polarity in arc welding is obtained with

  • (1) Direct current with the electrode being negative
  • (2) Direct current with the electrode being positive
  • (3) Alternating current with the electrode being positive
  • (4) Alternating current with the electrode being negative

Question 83:

Select the correct statement from the following.

  • (1) The strength of brazed joint is lower than soldered joint and welded joint.
  • (2) The strength of brazed joint is higher than soldered joint and welded joint.
  • (3) The strength of brazed joint is lower than soldered joint but higher than welded joint.
  • (4) The strength of brazed joint is higher than soldered joint but lower than welded joint.

Question 84:

The cutting tool moves in a vertical reciprocating motion in which of the following machine tool?

  • (1) Lathe Machine
  • (2) Slotting Machine
  • (3) Shaper Machine
  • (4) Planer Machine

Question 85:

In an orthogonal cutting, rake angle (\( \alpha \)) of the tool is 25° and friction angle (\( \lambda \)) is 27°. Using Merchant's shear angle relationship, the value of shear angle (\( \phi \)) is:

Correct Answer: 1. 44°
View Solution

Question 86:

In a single point turning operation of steel with a tool, Taylor’s tool life exponent is 0.2. What is the increase in the tool life if the cutting speed is halved?

  • (1) 8 times
  • (2) 16 times
  • (3) 32 times
  • (4) 64 times

Question 87:

Continuous chips with built-up edge (BUE) are formed with

  • (1) Ductile work material, small uncut thickness, low cutting speed, larger rake angle
  • (2) Ductile work material, small uncut thickness, high cutting speed, larger rake angle
  • (3) Brittle work material, small uncut thickness, low cutting speed, smaller rake angle
  • (4) Brittle work material, small uncut thickness, high cutting speed, larger rake angle

Question 88:

A positive rake angle is generally preferred for:

Correct Answer: 4. Ductile work piece materials to reduce cutting forces
View Solution

Question 89:

In which of the following milling operations, the finished surface is at right angle to the cutter axis?

  • (1) Face Milling
  • (2) Down Milling
  • (3) Up Milling
  • (4) Peripheral Milling

Question 90:

A steel workpiece is to be milled. Metal removal rate is 30 cm\textsuperscript{3}/min. Depth of cut is 5 mm and width of cut is 100 mm. The rate of feed in mm/min is

  • (1) 30 mm/min
  • (2) 60 mm/min
  • (3) 75 mm/min
  • (4) 150 mm/min

Question 91:

A grinding wheel is specified by ``C24K7V'' for finish grinding of a tool. The first letter ``C'' is represented by

  • (1) Type of bond, Vitrified
  • (2) Type of bond, Silicate
  • (3) Type of abrasive, Cubic Boron Nitride
  • (4) Type of abrasive, Silicon Carbide

Question 92:

The machining operation used to enlarge an existing hole is termed as:

Correct Answer: 3. Boring
View Solution

Question 93:

The non-traditional process that utilizes thermoelectric energy for removing material is

  • (1) Electron Beam Machining
  • (2) Ultrasonic Machining
  • (3) Water Jet Machining
  • (4) Electrochemical Machining

Question 94:

The mechanism of material removal in electric discharge machining process is

  • (1) Micro-Chipping and Erosion
  • (2) Erosion and Cavitation
  • (3) Melting and Evaporation
  • (4) Ionic Dissolution

Question 95:

A Linear Variable Differential Transformer works on the principle of

  • (1) Mutual Resistance
  • (2) Mutual Induction
  • (3) Mutual Capacitance
  • (4) Magnetic Induction

Question 96:

In order to have interference fit, it is essential that the minimum permissible diameter of the shaft should be

  • (1) Larger than the lower limit of the hole
  • (2) Smaller than the lower limit of the hole
  • (3) Smaller than the upper limit of the hole
  • (4) Larger than the upper limit of the hole

Question 97:

Which of the following cannot be used for angular measurements?

Correct Answer: 1. Angle plate
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Question 98:

A feasible solution to a linear programming problem

  • (1) Must optimize the value of the objective function
  • (2) Need not satisfy all the constraints, only some of them
  • (3) Must be a corner point of the feasible region
  • (4) Must satisfy all the problem's constraints simultaneously
Correct Answer: (4) Must satisfy all the problem's constraints simultaneously
View Solution



Step 1: Understand the concept of a feasible solution in linear programming.

In linear programming (LP), a problem consists of an objective function to be optimized (maximized or minimized) subject to a set of linear constraints (inequalities or equalities) and non-negativity conditions. A feasible solution is any solution that satisfies all the constraints of the problem.

Step 2: Define a feasible solution.

A feasible solution must satisfy:

All the linear constraints (e.g., inequalities like \( 2x + y \leq 10 \)).

Any non-negativity constraints (e.g., \( x \geq 0, y \geq 0 \)).

The set of all feasible solutions forms the feasible region, which is a convex polytope in the solution space.

A feasible solution does not necessarily optimize the objective function; that is the role of the optimal solution, which is a subset of feasible solutions.


Step 3: Evaluate the options.

(1) Must optimize the value of the objective function: Incorrect, as a feasible solution only needs to satisfy the constraints, not optimize the objective function. Optimization is a requirement for the optimal solution, not any feasible solution. Incorrect.

(2) Need not satisfy all the constraints, only some of them: Incorrect, as a feasible solution must satisfy all constraints simultaneously. If any constraint is violated, the solution is not feasible. Incorrect.

(3) Must be a corner point of the feasible region: Incorrect, as a feasible solution can be any point within the feasible region, not just a corner point (vertex). Corner points are significant in the Simplex Method because the optimal solution, if it exists, will be at a vertex, but feasible solutions include all points in the region. Incorrect.

(4) Must satisfy all the problem's constraints simultaneously: Correct, as this is the definition of a feasible solution in linear programming. Correct.


Step 4: Select the correct answer.

A feasible solution to a linear programming problem must satisfy all the problem's constraints simultaneously, matching option (4). Quick Tip: A feasible solution in linear programming satisfies all constraints, forming the feasible region. The optimal solution, which maximizes or minimizes the objective, is a subset of feasible solutions.


Question 99:

The solution to a transportation problem with \( m \)-rows (supplies) and \( n \)-columns (destinations) is feasible if number of positive allocations are

  • (1) \( m + n \)
  • (2) \( m \times n \)
  • (3) \( m + n - 1 \)
  • (4) \( m + n + 1 \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( m + n - 1 \)
View Solution



Step 1: Understand the transportation problem.

A transportation problem is a type of linear programming problem where the goal is to minimize the cost of transporting goods from \( m \) sources (supplies) to \( n \) destinations (demands). The problem is represented as a table with \( m \) rows and \( n \) columns, where each cell represents the amount transported from a source to a destination (an allocation).

Step 2: Define a feasible solution in a transportation problem.

A feasible solution must satisfy:

The supply constraints: The total amount shipped from each source must equal its supply.

The demand constraints: The total amount received at each destination must equal its demand.

Non-negativity: All allocations must be non-negative.

For the solution to be feasible and non-degenerate, the allocations must form a basic feasible solution.


Step 3: Determine the number of positive allocations for a basic feasible solution.

In a transportation problem with \( m \) sources and \( n \) destinations, there are:

\( m \) supply constraints,

\( n \) demand constraints.

However, these constraints are not all independent: The sum of supplies equals the sum of demands (a balanced transportation problem), so one constraint is redundant.

The total number of independent constraints is \( m + n - 1 \).
In linear programming, a basic feasible solution has the number of positive variables (allocations) equal to the number of independent constraints.

Therefore, a basic feasible solution to a transportation problem has exactly \( m + n - 1 \) positive allocations (non-zero entries in the transportation table).

If the number of positive allocations is less than \( m + n - 1 \), the solution is degenerate. If it is more, the solution is not a basic feasible solution.


Step 4: Evaluate the options.

(1) \( m + n \): Incorrect, as this overestimates the number of independent constraints by 1 (it does not account for the redundancy). Incorrect.

(2) \( m \times n \): Incorrect, as this is the total number of cells in the table, not the number of positive allocations needed for a basic feasible solution. Incorrect.

(3) \( m + n - 1 \): Correct, as this matches the number of independent constraints, which determines the number of positive allocations in a basic feasible solution. Correct.

(4) \( m + n + 1 \): Incorrect, as this exceeds the number of independent constraints. Incorrect.


Step 5: Select the correct answer.

The solution to a transportation problem is a basic feasible solution if the number of positive allocations is \( m + n - 1 \), matching option (3). Quick Tip: In a transportation problem, a basic feasible solution has \( m + n - 1 \) positive allocations, corresponding to the number of independent constraints (supply and demand equations minus one redundancy).


Question 100:

Fixed investments for manufacturing a product in a particular year is Rs. 80,000. The estimated sales for this period is 2,00,000. The variable cost per unit for this product is Rs. 4. If each unit sold is at Rs. 20, then the break-even point would be:

Correct Answer: 2. 5000
View Solution

Question 101:

The quantity versus costs plot is shown in the figure below. The costs marked as A, B, and C, respectively, are


  • (1) Ordering cost, holding cost, total cost
  • (2) Holding cost, ordering cost, total cost
  • (3) Total cost, ordering cost, holding cost
  • (4) Total cost, holding cost, ordering cost

Question 102:

A bill of materials is:

Correct Answer: 3. A hierarchical product structure tree
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Question 103:

Consider the network diagram shown in Figure. The time estimates in days along the arrows represents the activities. The project completion time in days based on critical path is


  • (1) 19 days
  • (2) 22 days
  • (3) 24 days
  • (4) 34 days

Question 104:

In a CNC program block, N130 G02 X65.0 Y60.0 R40.0 F250, G02 refers to

  • (1) Point-to-point positioning
  • (2) Line interpolation
  • (3) Circular interpolation
  • (4) Parabolic interpolation

Question 105:

In Computer Aided Quality Control (CAQC), the coordinate measuring machine

  • (1) Uses radiation techniques
  • (2) Is a scanning laser beam device
  • (3) Is a noncontact inspection method
  • (4) Is a contact inspection method

Question 106:

What is the compression ratio of the Otto cycle for a petrol engine with a cylinder bore of 50 mm, a stroke of 75 mm, and clearance volume of 21.3 cm\(^3\)?

  • (1) 7.9
  • (2) 6.9
  • (3) 5.9
  • (4) 4.9

Question 107:

The Non-Destructive Inspection (NDI) technique employed during inspection for castings of tubes and pipes to check the overall strength of a casting in resistance to bursting under hydraulic pressure is:

Correct Answer: 4. Pressure testing
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Question 108:

Which one of the following is the excess of variable time over the activity time when all jobs start as early as possible?

Correct Answer: 3. Independent float
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Question 109:

If \( A = \begin{bmatrix} 6 & -2 & 2
-2 & 3 & -1
2 & -1 & 3 \end{bmatrix} \), then eigen value and its corresponding eigen vector

  • (1) \( \lambda = 1 \) and \( X = (1, 0, -2)^T \)
  • (2) \( \lambda = 2 \) and \( X = (1, 1, 1)^T \)
  • (3) \( \lambda = -1 \) and \( X = (-1, 0, 2)^T \)
  • (4) \( \lambda = 8 \) and \( X = (2, -1, 1)^T \)

Question 110:

The eigen vectors of the matrix \(\begin{bmatrix} 1 & 2
0 & 4 \end{bmatrix}\) are in the form \(\begin{bmatrix} 1
a \end{bmatrix}\) and \(\begin{bmatrix} 1
b \end{bmatrix}\), then \( a + b =\)

  • (1) 0
  • (2) 1
  • (3) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{2}{3}\)

Question 111:

The system of equations \( AX = B \), has a unique solution if----------

Correct Answer: 1. Rank of \( A \) = Rank of \( [A:B] \) = \( n \)
View Solution

Question 112:

\(\lim_{x \to \infty} \frac{\sin x}{x} =\)

  • (1) 1
  • (2) -1
  • (3) \(\infty\)
  • (4) zero

Question 113:

The line integral of the vector field \( \vec{F} = (zx, xy, yz) \) along the boundary of the triangle with vertices (1,0,0), (0,1,0), (0,0,1) anticlockwise, when viewed from the point (2,2,2) is

  • (1) \( -\frac{1}{2} \)
  • (2) \( -2 \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
  • (4) \( 2 \)

Question 114:

The solution of \( y'' - y' - 2y = 0 \) is

  • (1) \( e^{2x} + e^{-2x} \)
  • (2) \( c_1 e^{2x} + c_2 e^{-2x} \)
  • (3) \( c_1 e^{2x} + c_2 e^{-x} \)
  • (4) \( e^{2x} - c_2 e^{-2x} \)

Question 115:

The Particular integral of \( (D^3 - 6D^2 + 11D - 6)y = e^{-2x} \) is:

Correct Answer: 3. \( -\frac{e^{-2x}}{60} \)
View Solution

Question 116:

If \(\phi\) is a differentiable scalar function, then div grad \(\phi\) is

  • (1) 1
  • (2) \(\nabla \phi\)
  • (3) 0
  • (4) \(\nabla^2 \phi\)

Question 117:

If \( A \) and \( B \) are two events such that \( P(A \cap B) = \frac{1}{3}, P(A \cup B) = \frac{5}{6}, \) and \( P(B) = \frac{1}{2} \), then the events are

  • (1) Independent
  • (2) Dependent
  • (3) Mutually exclusive
  • (4) Exclusive

Question 118:

\( P(A) = \frac{1}{3}, P(B) = \frac{3}{4}, P(A \cap B) = \frac{1}{6} \), then probability of \( A \) alone is

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{3} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{6} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{1}{8} \)

Question 119:

A fair coin is tossed 4 times. The probability that at least one head occurs is

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{7}{8}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{6}{8}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{15}{16}\)

Question 120:

If the trapezoidal rule with a single interval [0, 1] is exact for the approximate value of \( \int_0^1 (x^3 - cx^2) \, dx \). Then the value of \( c \).

Correct Answer: 2. \( 3/2 \)
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