AP PGECET 2024 Metallurgy Question Paper is available for download here. Sri Venkateswara University, Tirupati on behalf of APSCHE conducted AP PGECET 2024 Metallurgy on May 31 in Shift 1 from 9 AM to 11 AM. AP PGECET Question Paper 2024 consists of 120 MCQ-based questions in total carrying 1 mark each to be attempted in the duration of 2 hours.

AP PGECET 2024 Metallurgy Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

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AP PGECET 2024 Metallurgy

Question 1:

Which of the following does not have FCC crystal structure?

  • (1) Copper
  • (2) Sodium
  • (3) Lead
  • (4) Aluminium

Question 2:

Froth flotation is most suitable for treating

  • (1) Iron ores
  • (2) Quartzite
  • (3) Sulphide ores
  • (4) Carbonates

Question 3:

Which of the following is a line defect found in metal crystal?

  • (1) Vacancies
  • (2) Grain boundaries
  • (3) Stacking faults
  • (4) Dislocations

Question 4:

Softest phase in Fe-Fe\(_3\)C phase diagram is

  • (1) Austenite
  • (2) Cementite
  • (3) \(\alpha\) ferrite
  • (4) Martensite

Question 5:

At room temperature, Iron is ........ in lattice arrangement

  • (1) HCP
  • (2) BCC
  • (3) Tetragonal
  • (4) FCC

Question 6:

The term Ledeburite in steels refers to

  • (1) An intermetallic compound
  • (2) A solid solution
  • (3) An inclusion
  • (4) A mixture of two phases

Question 7:

The eutectoid reaction in steel occurs at

  • (1) 723°C
  • (2) 1146°C
  • (3) 1495°C
  • (4) 910°C

Question 8:

Peritectic reaction among the following is

  • (1) \(\alpha\) + L \(\xrightarrow{Cooling}\) \( \beta \)
  • (2) L \(\xrightarrow{Cooling}\) \(\beta\)
  • (3) \(\alpha\) \(\xrightarrow{Cooling}\) \(\beta\)
  • (4) L \(\xrightarrow{Cooling}\) \(\beta\) + S

Question 9:

Carbon content in hypo eutectic cast iron is

  • (1) 0.08-0.8%
  • (2) 4.3-6.67%
  • (3) 2.0-4.3%
  • (4) 0.8-2.0%

Question 10:

Etching solution used for Copper is

  • (1) Nital
  • (2) 50% NH\(_4\)OH
  • (3) Picral
  • (4) 1% HF in water

Question 11:

Toughness of a material implies

  • (1) Impact strength
  • (2) Creep resistance
  • (3) Stress relieving
  • (4) Machinability

Question 12:

Martensite transformation occurs by

  • (1) Nucleation-and-growth phenomenon
  • (2) Diffusionless transformation
  • (3) Lattice diffusion
  • (4) Spinodal decomposition

Question 13:

The fine austenite grain size in steel increases

  • (1) Corrosion resistance
  • (2) Hardenability
  • (3) Creep strength
  • (4) Impact toughness

Question 14:

Which mode of size reduction is used by Jaw crushers?

  • (1) Impact
  • (2) Compression
  • (3) Cutting
  • (4) Attrition

Question 15:

Which of the following is a metal refining process?

  • (1) Roasting
  • (2) Smelting
  • (3) Vacuum arc remelting
  • (4) Calcination

Question 16:

Kick's law relates to

  • (1) Final particle size
  • (2) Feed size
  • (3) Ore size
  • (4) Energy consumption

Question 17:

Pine oil used in froth flotation technique acts as a

  • (1) Frother
  • (2) Collector
  • (3) Crusher
  • (4) Modifier

Question 18:

Leaching of ore is done in ...... method of metal extraction process

  • (1) Smelting
  • (2) Pyro metallurgical
  • (3) Hydro metallurgical
  • (4) Electro metallurgical

Question 19:

Which of the following is not a function of coke in the blast furnace?

  • (1) Produce heat
  • (2) Generate reducing gases
  • (3) Act as spacer
  • (4) Act as a flux

Question 20:

The size of blast furnace coke is about

  • (1) 10-30 mm
  • (2) 25-80 mm
  • (3) 80-100 mm
  • (4) 25-40 mm

Question 21:

Which is an acidic refractory?

  • (1) Magnesite
  • (2) Dolomite
  • (3) Fireclay
  • (4) Chrome magnesite

Question 22:

Which is the hardest structure that appears on the Fe-C equilibrium diagram?

  • (1) Ferrite
  • (2) Pearlite
  • (3) Austenite
  • (4) Cementite

Question 23:

Which of the following statement is wrong in Hume Rothery rules?

  • (1) Solute and solvent atoms possess almost equal diameters
  • (2) The crystal structure of two metals is the same
  • (3) The chemical affinity of the two metals is high
  • (4) Lower chemical valence metals will dissolve more in higher valence than vice versa

Question 24:

Segar cones are used for the determination of

  • (1) Electrical conductivity
  • (2) Softening temperature of refractories
  • (3) Spalling resistance
  • (4) Resistance to slag attack

Question 25:

Sillimanite is a

  • (1) Basic refractory
  • (2) Insulating refractory
  • (3) Neutral refractory
  • (4) High alumina refractory

Question 26:

The structure produced by martempering of steel is

  • (1) Pearlite
  • (2) Austenite
  • (3) Martensite
  • (4) Bainite

Question 27:

Which of the following treatments is used for imparting ductility in the metals?

  • (1) Annealing
  • (2) Normalizing
  • (3) Hardening
  • (4) Tempering

Question 28:

Sub-zero treatment is used for

  • (1) Bainite transformation
  • (2) Pearlite transformation
  • (3) Austenite transformation
  • (4) Retained Austenite transformation

Question 29:

Hardenability of a steel is measured in terms of

  • (1) Its iron content
  • (2) Its carbon content
  • (3) The depth martensite from the surface
  • (4) The depth of Austenite from the surface

Question 30:

Compound formed during precipitation hardening of Al-Cu alloys is

  • (1) CuAl
  • (2) CuAl₂
  • (3) Cu₂Al₃
  • (4) Cu₃Al₂

Question 31:

The structure produced by Austempering of steel is

  • (1) Austenite
  • (2) Pearlite
  • (3) Bainite
  • (4) Martensite

Question 32:

Sorbite is a mixture

  • (1) Ferrite and cementite
  • (2) Austenite and Ferrite
  • (3) Ferrite and pearlite
  • (4) Ferrite and martensite

Question 33:

Major alloying addition in spring steels is

  • (1) Aluminium
  • (2) Silicon
  • (3) Titanium
  • (4) Nickel

Question 34:

Which of the following is not a mixture of ferrite and cementite?

  • (1) Troostite
  • (2) Pearlite
  • (3) Ledeburite
  • (4) Martensite

Question 35:

Malleable cast iron is obtained by controlled heat treatment of

  • (1) Grey cast iron
  • (2) Nodular cast iron
  • (3) White cast iron
  • (4) Flake graphite cast iron

Question 36:

The diffusion inequality of components in a binary solution of alloys is given by

  • (1) Cottrell effect
  • (2) Graham’s law
  • (3) Fick’s law
  • (4) Kirkendall effect

Question 37:

Stress causing a deformation of ........ % is called yield strength

  • (1) 1.0
  • (2) 0.01
  • (3) 0.2
  • (4) 3.3

Question 38:

The diameter of the ball in BHN test for steel and other hard materials is

  • (1) 5 mm
  • (2) 10 mm
  • (3) 25 mm
  • (4) 50 mm

Question 39:

In which of the following hardness tests is the Brale indenter used for indentation?

  • (1) Vickers test
  • (2) Shore test
  • (3) Brinell test
  • (4) Rockwell test

Question 40:

The ability of a material to withstand suddenly applied loads is called

  • (1) Creep strength
  • (2) Hardness
  • (3) Impact strength
  • (4) Fatigue strength

Question 41:

The fatigue limit of metals is decreased by

  • (1) Carburizing
  • (2) Nitriding
  • (3) Carbonitriding
  • (4) Decarburizing

Question 42:

Plastic deformation of metal below its recrystallization temperature is called

  • (1) Cold working
  • (2) Hot working
  • (3) Deep drawing
  • (4) Tempering

Question 43:

At what temperature grains and grain boundaries will have equal strength?

  • (1) Recrystallization temperature
  • (2) Curie temperature
  • (3) Absolute zero temperature
  • (4) Equi cohesive temperature

Question 44:

Which method is not used to measure the residual stress of a given material?

  • (1) Magnetic particle method
  • (2) Radiography
  • (3) Dye-penetrant method
  • (4) Ultrasonic testing

Question 45:

Which of the following is not used for the manufacture of bearing materials?

  • (1) Steel
  • (2) Copper
  • (3) Babbit materials
  • (4) Pig iron

Question 46:

Hooke’s law holds good up to

  • (1) Plastic limit
  • (2) Proportional limit
  • (3) Yield point
  • (4) Ultimate tensile strength

Question 47:

In CO₂ moulding process ...... is used as binder

  • (1) Water
  • (2) Dextrine
  • (3) Sodium silicate
  • (4) Bentonite

Question 48:

Which of the following is a powder production method?

  • (1) Rolling
  • (2) Tapping
  • (3) Forging
  • (4) Atomization

Question 49:

Copper materials exhibit ........ fracture

  • (1) Flat
  • (2) Combined
  • (3) Cup and cone
  • (4) Helical

Question 50:

Which of the following is an ore of Titanium?

  • (1) Bauxite
  • (2) Ilmenite
  • (3) Chacopyrite
  • (4) Limonite

Question 51:

Cementite (Fe\(_3\)C) crystal structure is

  • (1) Orthorhombic
  • (2) BCT
  • (3) HCP
  • (4) FCC

Question 52:

Most closely packed planes in face-centered cubic lattice are

  • (1) (110)
  • (2) (112)
  • (3) (100)
  • (4) (111)

Question 53:

Stacking faults are ....... imperfections

  • (1) Point
  • (2) Line
  • (3) Surface
  • (4) Volume

Question 54:

Which of the following alloys can be strengthened by Age-hardening?

  • (1) Cu - Sn
  • (2) Cu - Zn
  • (3) Cu - Ni
  • (4) Al - Cu

Question 55:

Surgical instruments are made of

  • (1) Plain carbon steels
  • (2) Titanium alloys
  • (3) Stainless steels
  • (4) Copper alloys

Question 56:

Razor blades are made with ....... % of carbon steel

  • (1) Low carbon steel
  • (2) Medium carbon steel
  • (3) Mild steel
  • (4) High carbon steel

Question 57:

Zirconium alloys are used in nuclear reactors as

  • (1) Cladding material
  • (2) Catalyst
  • (3) Moderator
  • (4) Fuel

Question 58:

To obtain high corrosion resistance of the steel, which of the following elements are added?

  • (1) Carbon, Silicon
  • (2) Chromium, Nickel
  • (3) Carbon, Tungsten
  • (4) Copper, Titanium

Question 59:

Dephosphorization is favorable in the following conditions of the steel-making process

  • (1) Acid slag and oxidizing atmosphere
  • (2) Acid slag and reducing atmosphere
  • (3) Basic slag and oxidizing atmosphere
  • (4) Basic slag and reducing atmosphere

Question 60:

Finest particles in blast furnace gas are removed by

  • (1) Dust catcher
  • (2) Electrostatic precipitator
  • (3) Wet scrubber
  • (4) Blast furnace stoves

Question 61:

Which of the following is not an iron ore?

  • (1) Banded Hematite Quartzite (BHQ)
  • (2) Hematite
  • (3) Goethite
  • (4) Chalcopyrite

Question 62:

Which of the following is a chief source of sulfur entry in the blast furnace?

  • (1) Iron ore
  • (2) Coke
  • (3) Sinter
  • (4) Flux

Question 63:

The favorable conditions for desulphurization of iron are

  • (1) Both slag basicity and temperature should be high
  • (2) Atmosphere should be oxidizing
  • (3) Slag basicity should be low and temperature should be high
  • (4) Slag should be viscous

Question 64:

Blue dust is

  • (1) Generated during iron making
  • (2) Generated during steel making
  • (3) Generated during mining
  • (4) Dust collected from exhaust gases

Question 65:

Iron ore sintering employs the principle of ........

  • (1) Down draught sintering
  • (2) Up draught sintering
  • (3) Smelting
  • (4) Roasting

Question 66:

High alumina content in the blast furnace slag .......

  • (1) Increases its melting point, but decreases its viscosity
  • (2) Does not affect its melting point but increases its viscosity
  • (3) Decreases both its melting point but increases its viscosity
  • (4) Increases both its melting point and viscosity

Question 67:

Lever rule is used to evaluate the .......

  • (1) Relative amounts of two phases in equilibrium at any specified temperature
  • (2) Chemical composition of the phases of an alloy in equilibrium at any specified temperature
  • (3) Residual stresses in a given alloy
  • (4) Number of phases present in a given alloy

Question 68:

Catch carbon technique is employed in LD steel making process to produce

  • (1) Low carbon steel
  • (2) High alloy steel
  • (3) High carbon steel
  • (4) Killed steel

Question 69:

Composites strength is evaluated by .......

  • (1) Hooke's law
  • (2) Power law
  • (3) Fick's law
  • (4) Rule of mixture

Question 70:

Salamander tapping in blast furnace is done after

  • (1) Blowing out
  • (2) Banking
  • (3) Back draughting
  • (4) Blowing in

Question 71:

Which of the following is a creep deformation mechanism?

  • (1) Grain sliding
  • (2) Grain boundary sliding
  • (3) Dislocations pile up
  • (4) Strain hardening

Question 72:

Which of the following is not a metal matrix composites fabrication technique?

  • (1) Vortex method
  • (2) Squeeze casting
  • (3) Pultrusion
  • (4) Duralcan process

Question 73:

Critical fibre length of a composite is expressed by the following equation

  • (1) L\(_c\) = [\sigma × d] / [2\tau\(_C\)]
  • (2) L\(_c\) = [\sigma + d] / [2\tau\(_C\)]
  • (3) L\(_c\) = [2\tau\(_C\)] / [\sigma × d] /
  • (4) L\(_c\) = [\sigma - d] / [2\tau\(_C\)]

Question 74:

Which of the following employs a bottom blowing operation?

  • (1) L.D. converter
  • (2) Rotor
  • (3) OBM
  • (4) Kaldo furnace

Question 75:

In Basic steel making process, ....... slag is prepared to remove the impurities

  • (1) Dry slag
  • (2) Wet slag
  • (3) Neutral slag
  • (4) Reducing slag

Question 76:

Killing of the steel bath is aimed to remove .......

  • (1) Carbon
  • (2) Sulphur
  • (3) Phosphorous
  • (4) Oxygen

Question 77:

Glass ceramics possess ......

  • (1) Fine grain structure
  • (2) Non-crystalline structure
  • (3) Hard and brittle
  • (4) Low impact strength

Question 78:

Which of the following is an oxide ore of copper?

  • (1) Chalcocite
  • (2) Chalcopyrite
  • (3) Malachite
  • (4) Bornite

Question 79:

In Parkes process, desilvering of molten lead is affected by the addition of

  • (1) Carbon
  • (2) Copper
  • (3) Aluminum
  • (4) Zinc

Question 80:

The use of bacterial leaching is

  • (1) Refining of metals
  • (2) Fast recovery of metal values
  • (3) In situ-leaching of low-grade ores
  • (4) Leaching of enriched ores

Question 81:

Lead-free solders are made with

  • (1) Iron based alloys
  • (2) Tin based alloys
  • (3) Magnesium based alloys
  • (4) Aluminium based alloys

Question 82:

Which is the most weldable of all metals?

  • (1) Plain carbon steels
  • (2) Stainless steels
  • (3) Aluminium
  • (4) Brass

Question 83:

The formation of corrosion retarding films on metal surfaces is known as

  • (1) Polarization
  • (2) Passivation
  • (3) Cavitation
  • (4) Pitting

Question 84:

Example of a sacrificial anode which is used in the protection of underground pipelines is

  • (1) Steel
  • (2) Platinum
  • (3) Graphite
  • (4) Magnesium

Question 85:

Enthalpy "H" is defined as

  • (1) H = E - PV
  • (2) H = E + PV
  • (3) H = F - TS
  • (4) H = F + PV

Question 86:

The main cause to exist congruent melting alloys in a given isomorphous system is

  • (1) Large atomic size difference between solvent and solute
  • (2) Variation in crystal structures of solvent and solute
  • (3) Variation in chemical valance factor of solvent and solute
  • (4) Variation in chemical composition of solvent and solute

Question 87:

Degrees of freedom at triple point will be

  • (1) 0
  • (2) 1
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 3

Question 88:

The free energy changes at equilibrium is

  • (1) Positive
  • (2) Negative
  • (3) Intermediate
  • (4) Zero

Question 89:

For a spontaneous process

  • (1) Both Free energy and entropy decrease
  • (2) Free energy increases
  • (3) Free energy decreases whereas the entropy increases
  • (4) Free energy is zero

Question 90:

Entropy is a measure of

  • (1) Disorder of a system
  • (2) Orderly behavior of a system
  • (3) Only temperature changes of the system
  • (4) Equilibrium of system

Question 91:

Ellingham diagrams for M ~MOx reactions is a plot of

  • (1) \(\Delta G\) vs T
  • (2) \(\Delta G^{\circ}\) vs T
  • (3) \(\Delta G^{\circ}\) vs 1/T
  • (4) \(\Delta G^{\circ}\) vs 1/T

Question 92:

In Ellingham diagrams, the reaction that is parallel to the temperature axis is

  • (1) \(2CO + O_2 = 2CO_2\)
  • (2) \(2C + O_2 = 2CO_2\)
  • (3) \(C + O_2 = CO_2\)
  • (4) \(2Zn + O_2 = 2ZnO\)

Question 93:

Dental alloys are casted by ...... process

  • (1) True centrifugal
  • (2) Shell moulding
  • (3) CO2 moulding process
  • (4) Investment casting

Question 94:

The ideal theoretical shape of a Riser is

  • (1) Conical
  • (2) Rectangular
  • (3) Cylindrical
  • (4) Cubic

Question 95:

Plastic goods are usually produced by

  • (1) Shell moulding
  • (2) Injection moulding
  • (3) Wet sand moulding
  • (4) Dry sand moulding

Question 96:

Blow holes are casting defects caused by

  • (1) Excessive gaseous substances not able to escape
  • (2) Discontinuity in metal casting resulting from hindered contraction
  • (3) Two streams of metals that are too cold to figure properly
  • (4) Some sand shearing from the cope surface

Question 97:

Which of the following is a eutectic reaction?

  • (1) \( L \to Cooling \alpha \)
  • (2) \( L \to Cooling \alpha + \beta \)
  • (3) \( L \to Cooling \beta \)
  • (4) \( \alpha + L \to Cooling \beta \)

Question 98:

Which is the top-down approach method for the synthesis of Nano materials?

  • (1) Chemical vapour deposition
  • (2) Sol-Gel technique
  • (3) High energy ball milling
  • (4) Chemical precipitation method

Question 99:

TIG is especially useful in welding for the following alloys

  • (1) Stainless steels
  • (2) Aluminium and its alloys
  • (3) Titanium and its alloys
  • (4) Cast Irons

Question 100:

Electrode is consumed in ........ welding process

  • (1) Gas
  • (2) TIG
  • (3) Thermit
  • (4) Arc

Question 101:

Cold working of metal reduces its

  • (1) Ductility
  • (2) Hardness
  • (3) Ultimate tensile strength
  • (4) Electrical resistance

Question 102:

The collapsible toothpaste tube is produced by ....... extrusion

  • (1) Direct
  • (2) Impact
  • (3) Tube
  • (4) Indirect

Question 103:

Dislocation tangles are the regions of

  • (1) Defect free areas
  • (2) Dislocation free areas
  • (3) Low dislocation density areas
  • (4) High dislocation density areas

Question 104:

Critical resolved shear stress is expressed by the following equation

  • (1) \(\tau_R = \frac{P}{A} \cos \phi \sin \lambda\)
  • (2) \(\tau_R = \frac{P}{A} \sin \phi \cos \lambda\)
  • (3) \(\tau_R = \frac{P}{A} \cos \phi \cos \lambda\)
  • (4) \(\tau_R = \frac{P}{A} \sin \phi \sin \lambda\)

Question 105:

Anti-Phase Boundaries (APB) are existing in ...... strengthening mechanism

  • (1) Grain boundary strengthening mechanism
  • (2) Solid solution strengthening mechanism
  • (3) Precipitation hardening strengthening mechanism
  • (4) Strain hardening strengthening mechanism

Question 106:

Which alloying element does not shift TTT diagram or does not retard the transformation of austenite to pearlite or bainite?

  • (1) Cobalt
  • (2) Nickel
  • (3) Copper
  • (4) Aluminium

Question 107:

When two different metals placed in contact, when one is heated, an EMF is generated. This effect is called as

  • (1) Thomson effect
  • (2) Temperature effect
  • (3) Seebeck effect
  • (4) Junction-diode effect

Question 108:

Calculate the Pilling-Bedworth ratio when Fe oxides to FeO. The atomic weight of Fe is 55.8 gm, the atomic weight of Oxygen is 16 gm, density of Fe is 7.87 gm/cc and density of FeO is 5.70 gm/cc

  • (1) 0.777
  • (2) 3.777
  • (3) 2.777
  • (4) 1.777

Question 109:

Solution of the system of equations \( 3x + y + 2z = 3 \), \( 2x - 3y - z = -3 \), \( x + 2y + z = 4 \)

  • (1) \( (1, 2, 1)
  • (2) \( (1, 2, -1)
  • (3) \( (2, 3, 1)
  • (4) \( (4, 3, 2)

Question 110:

If \( f(x) = (x^2 - 16)^2 \), where \( x \) is real, \( f(x) \) has

  • (1) Two maxima and one minimum
  • (2) One maxima and 2 minima
  • (3) Three minima
  • (4) Three maxima

Question 111:

If \( A \) is an orthogonal matrix, then \( A^{-1} \) is

  • (1) Symmetric
  • (2) Skew-symmetric
  • (3) Orthogonal
  • (4) Hermitian

Question 112:

If \( \mathbf{f} = f_1(y, z) \hat{i} + f_2(z, x) \hat{j} + f_3(x, y) \hat{k} \), then \( \mathbf{f} \) is

  • (1) Irrotational
  • (2) Solenoidal
  • (3) Both Irrotational \& Solenoidal
  • (4) Gradient

Question 113:

The work done in displacing a particle from \( r = 0 \) to \( r = 1 \) in a curve \( x = t^2 + 1 \) and \( z = t^2 + 1 \) in a force field \( \mathbf{F} = (2xy, 3x, -5z) \) is

  • (1) \(-\frac{19}{2} \)
  • (2) \(-\frac{14}{3} \)
  • (3) \(-\frac{21}{2} \)
  • (4) \( 5 \)

Question 114:

If \( \mathbf{a} \) is a constant vector, then \( div[\mathbf{a} \times (\mathbf{r} \times \mathbf{a})] \) is

  • (1) \( 2a^2 \)
  • (2) \( 3a^2 \)
  • (3) \( 6a^2 \)
  • (4) \( 4a^2 \)

Question 115:

If \( \mathbf{F} = ax \hat{i} + by \hat{j} + cz \hat{k} \), where \( a, b, c \) are constants, then

  • (1) 0
  • (2) \( \frac{4}{3} \pi (a + b + c)^2 \)
  • (3) \( \frac{4}{3} \pi (a + b + c) \)
  • (4) 1

Question 116:

Solution of the differential equation \( xy \frac{dy}{dx} = 1 + x + y + xy \) is

  • (1) \( \log(x(1+y)) = c \)
  • (2) \( (y - x) \log(x(1 + y)) = c \)
  • (3) \( (y + x) \log(x) = c \)
  • (4) \( \log(x(1 + y)) = c \)

Question 117:

What is the correct formula for Runge-Kutta 3rd order method?

  • (1) \( y = y_0 + \frac{1}{6}(k_1 + 2k_2 + 3k_3) \)
  • (2) \( y = y_0 + \frac{1}{3}(k_1 + 4k_2 + k_3) \)
  • (3) \( y = y_0 + \frac{1}{6}(k_1 + 4k_2 + k_3) \)
  • (4) \( y = y_0 + \frac{1}{6}(k_1 + k_2) \)

Question 118:

One of the two events must occur. The chance of one is \( \frac{2}{3} \) of the other, then odds in favor of the other are

  • (1) \( 3:2 \)
  • (2) \( 1:3 \)
  • (3) \( 3:1 \)
  • (4) \( 2:3 \)

Question 119:

The coefficient of correlation is independent of

  • (1) Change of scale only
  • (2) Change of origin only
  • (3) Both change of scale \& origin
  • (4) No change

Question 120:

If \( x^2 - x - 4 = 0 \) by bisection method, first two approximations \( x_1 \) and \( x_2 \) are 1 and 2, then \( x_3 \) is

  • (1) 1.2
  • (2) 1.3
  • (3) 1.4
  • (4) 1.5