AP PGECET 2024 Pharmacy Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

Question 1:

Moisture content in a volatile oil is determined by \hspace{2cm}.

• (A) \( Evaporation at 125^\circ C \)
• (B) \( Vacuum distillation \)
• (C) \( Mass spectrometry \)
• (D) \( Karl Fisher titration \)

Determination of percentage of acid insoluble ash of herbal drugs is useful for testing the presence of \hspace{2cm}.

• (A) \( Other parts of the plant \)
• (B) \( Siliceous earth \)
• (C) \( Active constituents of the drugs \)
• (D) \( Moisture content \)

Identify the botanical name of nutmeg?

• (A) \( Alpinia officinarum \)
• (B) \( Myristica fragrans \)
• (C) \( Coriandrum sativum \)
• (D) \( Foeniculum vulgare \)

Stove gas is responsible for \(\hspace{2cm}\)

• (A) \( Ripening of apples \)
• (B) \( Yellowing of lemons \)
• (C) \( Development of shoots \)
• (D) \( Stimulation of latex flow \)

Rauwolfia contains \(\hspace{2cm}\) group of alkaloids.

• (A) \( Pyrrole \)
• (B) \( Quinoline \)
• (C) \( Pyridine \)
• (D) \( Indole \)

Which type of tannins is related to the flavonoid pigment having polymeric flavan-3-ol structure?

• (A) \( Hydrolysable tannins \)
• (B) \( Condensed tannins \)
• (C) \( Galli tannins \)
• (D) \( Ellagitannins \)

Cardamom belongs to family \(\hspace{2cm}\)

• (A) \( Liliaceae \)
• (B) \( Apocynaceae \)
• (C) \( Zingiberaceae \)
• (D) \( Loganiaceae \)

\(\hspace{2cm}\) is the most common auxin in plants.

• (A) \( Indole acetic acid \)
• (B) \( 2,4-dichlorophenoxy acetic acid \)
• (C) \( 2,4,5-trichloro phenoxy acetic acid \)
• (D) \( Ethylene \)

Sesquiterpene contains \(\hspace{2cm}\) number of isoprene units.

• (A) \( 2 \)
• (B) \( 3 \)
• (C) \( 4 \)
• (D) \( 5 \)

\(\hspace{2cm}\) is the main chemical constituent of chenopodium oil.

• (A) \( Citronellal \)
• (B) \( Geranial \)
• (C) \( Ascaridole \)
• (D) \( Menthol \)

The synonym of "Deadly night shade leaf" is \(\hspace{2cm}\)

• (A) \( Belladonna \)
• (B) \( Hyoscine \)
• (C) \( Atropine \)
• (D) \( Datura \)

Opium alkaloids are present as salt of \(\hspace{2cm}\) acid.

• (A) \( Acetic \)
• (B) \( Phenoxybenzoic \)
• (C) \( Meconic \)
• (D) \( Benzoic \)

Eugenol is present in all of the following except \(\hspace{2cm}\)

• (A) \( Clove \)
• (B) \( Camphor \)
• (C) \( Tulsi \)
• (D) \( Bay Leaf \)

The source for synthesis of psoralen is \(\hspace{2cm}\)

• (A) \( Coumarin \)
• (B) \( Terpene \)
• (C) \( Warfarin \)
• (D) \( Diosgenin \)

Which of the following leaves have anti-cancer constituents?

• (A) \( Catharanthus roseus \)
• (B) \( Withania Somnifera \)
• (C) \( Cassia Angustifolia \)
• (D) \( Hyoscyamus niger \)

Inhibition of peptidoglycan cross linking is the target of \(\hspace{2cm}\)

• (A) \( Sulfadoxine \)
• (B) \( Sulbactam \)
• (C) \( Ceftriaxone \)
• (D) \( Cilastatin \)

\(\hspace{2cm}\) an oral hypoglycaemic agent is a piperidine derivative.

• (A) \( Sorbinil \)
• (B) \( Glipizide \)
• (C) \( Miglitol \)
• (D) \( Glibenclamide \)

Cardiac glycosides with a six membered lactone ring on steroid nucleus (at 17-position) is classified as \(\hspace{2cm}\)

• (A) \( Cardinolides \)
• (B) \( Bufadienolides \)
• (C) \( Strophanthosides \)
• (D) \( Lanatosides \)

\(\hspace{2cm}\) cause discoloration of teeth in children.

• (A) \( Penicillins \)
• (B) \( Aminoglycosides \)
• (C) \( Tetracyclines \)
• (D) \( Macrolides \)

Name the drug that disrupts microtubules and inhibits cell division.

• (A) \( Paclitaxel \)
• (B) \( Methotrexate \)
• (C) \( Cisplatin \)
• (D) \( Cyclophosphamide \)

\(\hspace{2cm}\) is classified as non-sedative anti-histamine.

• (A) \( Diphenhydramine \)
• (B) \( Promethazine \)
• (C) \( Fexofenadine \)
• (D) \( Pheniramine \)

\(\hspace{2cm}\) acts at both nicotinic and muscarinic receptors.

• (A) \( Acetylcholine \)
• (B) \( Atropine \)
• (C) \( Hyoscyamine \)
• (D) \( Tubocurarine \)

What is the class of alprazolam?

• (A) \( Barbiturate class hypnotic \)
• (B) \( Benzodiazepine class of anxiolytic agent \)
• (C) \( Opioid analgesic \)
• (D) \( Tricyclic anti-depressant \)

IUPAC name of isoprenaline is \(\hspace{2cm}\)

\includegraphics{24.png

• (A) \( 4-[1-hydroxy-2-(isopropylamino)ethyl]benzene-1,2-diol \)
• (B) \( 4-[1-hydroxy-2-(isopropyl)ethyl]benzene-1,2-diol \)
• (C) \( 2-[1-hydroxy-2-(isopropylamino)ethyl]benzene-1,2-diol \)
• (D) \( 4-[1-hydroxy-2-(isobutylamino)ethyl]benzene-1,2-diol \)

Which among the following anticoagulants is synthesized using Michael condensation?

• (A) \( Phenindione \)
• (B) \( Warfarin \)
• (C) \( Dicoumarol \)
• (D) \( Bromindione \)

Example for amino amide local anaesthetic agent is \(\hspace{2cm}\)

• (A) \( Tetracaine \)
• (B) \( Benzocaine \)
• (C) \( Chloroprocaine \)
• (D) \( Lidocaine \)

\(\hspace{2cm}\) an anxiolytic is a benzodiazepine derivative.

• (A) \( Buspirone \)
• (B) \( Chlordiazepoxide \)
• (C) \( Meprobamate \)
• (D) \( Chloral hydrate \)

Which of the following drug is effective in intestinal amoebiasis?

• (A) \( Chloroquine \)
• (B) \( Dihydroemetine \)
• (C) \( Diloxanide \)
• (D) \( Tinidazole \)

\(\hspace{2cm}\) is not a cardio selective drug among the following beta-blockers.

• (A) \( Atenolol \)
• (B) \( Betaxolol \)
• (C) \( Esmolol \)
• (D) \( Timolol \)

\(\hspace{2cm}\) is the starting material for the synthesis of diazepam.

• (A) \( 2 - methyl amino 5 - nitro benzophenone \)
• (B) \( 2 - methyl amino 5 - chloro benzophenone \)
• (C) \( 2 - amino 5 - nitro benzophenone \)
• (D) \( 2 - amino 5 - nitro butyrophenone \)

The thiazepine derivative used in angina is \(\hspace{2cm}\)

• (A) \( Diltiazem \)
• (B) \( Nifedipine \)
• (C) \( Nicardipine \)
• (D) \( Verapamil \)

Which one of the following is the chemical formula of sodium nitroprusside?

• (A) \( Na_2[Fe(CN)_5NO] \)
• (B) \( Na_3[Fe(CN)_6NO] \)
• (C) \( Na_3[Fe(CN)_5NO] \)
• (D) \( Na_4[Fe(CN)_5NO] \)

The diuretic with similarity in the structure to an antihypertensive diazoxide is \(\hspace{2cm}\)

• (A) \( Furosemide \)
• (B) \( Spironolactone \)
• (C) \( Chlorothiazide \)
• (D) \( Acetazolamide \)

Which of the following statements that suits best for adrenaline?

• (A) \( It is a selective \alpha1- adrenergic receptor agonist \)
• (B) \( It is a selective \alpha2- adrenergic receptor agonist \)
• (C) \( It is a selective \beta3- adrenergic receptor agonist \)
• (D) \( It is a nonselective (\beta1 and \beta2) adrenergic receptor agonist \)

4-[4-(p-chloro phenyl)-4-hydroxy piperidinyl]-1-(4-fluorophenyl)-1-butanone is the IUPAC name of \(\hspace{2cm}\)

• (A) \( Propranolol \)
• (B) \( Haloperidol \)
• (C) \( Droperidol \)
• (D) \( Trifluperidol \)

Identify the antimetabolite drug that is having antifungal activity also.

• (A) \( Fluconazole \)
• (B) \( Itraconazole \)
• (C) \( Ketoconazole \)
• (D) \( Flucytosine \)

Which of the following does NOT impart desensitizing properties to dental products?

• (A) \( Potassium chloride \)
• (B) \( Strontium chloride \)
• (C) \( Zinc chloride \)
• (D) \( Potassium nitrate \)

Which of the following statements is TRUE about enantiomers?

• (A) \( They contain chiral center that is non-superimposable \& mirror image. \)
• (B) \( They contain chiral centers that are non-superimposable \& not-mirror images. \)
• (C) \( They contain chiral centers that are superimposable \& mirror images. \)
• (D) \( They contain chiral centers that are superimposable \& non-mirror images. \)

Limit test for arsenic is based on \(\hspace{2cm}\)

• (A) \( Gutzeit test \)
• (B) \( Biuret test \)
• (C) \( Black water test \)
• (D) \( Volhard's test \)

Magaldrate is a combination of \(\hspace{2cm}\)

• (A) \( 30% magnesium oxide and 20% aluminium oxide \)
• (B) \( 40% magnesium oxide and 10% aluminium oxide \)
• (C) \( 75% magnesium oxide and 12.5% aluminium oxide \)
• (D) \( 30% magnesium oxide and 10% aluminium oxide \)

The length of the line that bisects the particle image is called as \(\hspace{2cm}\) diameter.

• (A) \( Feret \)
• (B) \( Martin \)
• (C) \( Projected area \)
• (D) \( Coulter \)

Which of the following produces a bulge in the up curve of a hysteresis loop?

• (A) \( Procaine penicillin gel \)
• (B) \( Magnesia magma \)
• (C) \( Concentrated aqueous kaolin gel \)
• (D) \( Concentrated aqueous bentonite gel \)

Identify the optical property of colloid?

• (A) \( Tyndall cone \)
• (B) \( Brownian motion \)
• (C) \( Sedimentation \)
• (D) \( Zeta Potential \)

Irritation power of the surfactants decrease in the following order \(\hspace{2cm}\)

• (A) \( Cationic > Zwitterionic > Non-Ionic > Anionic \)
• (B) \( Anionic > Cationic > Zwitterionic > Non-Ionic \)
• (C) \( Zwitterionic > Anionic > Cationic > Non-Ionic \)
• (D) \( Cationic > Anionic > Zwitterionic > Non-Ionic \)

What is the shelf life of drug which decomposes with first order having reaction rate constant of 0.002 day\(^{-1}\)?

• (A) \( 425 days \)
• (B) \( 525 days \)
• (C) \( 625 days \)
• (D) \( 725 days \)

Which of the following forces contribute to stability of charge transfer complexes?

• (A) \( Resonance forces \)
• (B) \( Resonance and London dispersion forces \)
• (C) \( Dipole-dipole interactions and London dispersion forces \)
• (D) \( Resonance forces and dipole-dipole interactions \)

Arrhenius plot for predicting drug stability at room temperature is drawn between \(\hspace{2cm}\)

• (A) \( K vs. 1/T \)
• (B) \( \log K vs. T \)
• (C) \( \log K vs. 1/T \)
• (D) \( \log C vs. 1/T \)

Water attack test is used to test \(\hspace{2cm}\) glass

• (A) \( Type I \)
• (B) \( Type II \)
• (C) \( Type III \)
• (D) \( Type IV \)

The applicability of Noyes-Whitney's equation is to describe \(\hspace{2cm}\)

• (A) \( Dissolution rate \)
• (B) \( Zero order degradation kinetics \)
• (C) \( Mixed order reaction kinetics \)
• (D) \( Rate of excretion \)

Which of the following method is not suitable for preparation of microparticles?

• (A) \( Spray drying \)
• (B) \( Freeze drying \)
• (C) \( Interfacial polymerization \)
• (D) \( Solvent evaporation \)

The distance between the bottom of the dissolution flask and bottom tip of the paddle in a dissolution apparatus according to Indian Pharmacopoeia is \(\hspace{2cm}\) cm.

• (A) \( 2.3 \pm 0.2 \)
• (B) \( 2.5 \pm 0.2 \)
• (C) \( 2.7 \pm 0.2 \)
• (D) \( 2.9 \pm 0.2 \)

Formation of white powdery deposit on the surface of suppository on storage is called \(\hspace{2cm}\)

• (A) \( Orange peel \)
• (B) \( Fragility \)
• (C) \( Bloom \)
• (D) \( Syneresis \)

\(\hspace{2cm}\) of tablets weighing less than 650 mg are required for friability test as per Indian Pharmacopoeia 2018.

• (A) \( 10 numbers \)
• (B) \( 20 numbers \)
• (C) \( 6.5 grams \)
• (D) \( 3.25 grams \)

The self-preservative action of simple syrup is due to \(\hspace{2cm}\)

• (A) \( Higher viscosity \)
• (B) \( Isotonic action \)
• (C) \( Hypotonic action \)
• (D) \( Hypertonic action \)

State the order of decomposition of drug in suspension dosage form (if the drug decomposes in solution)

• (A) \( Zero order kinetics \)
• (B) \( Apparent zero order kinetics \)
• (C) \( First-order kinetics \)
• (D) \( Apparent first order kinetics \)

Sorbitol is used in soft gelatin capsules as \(\hspace{2cm}\)

• (A) \( Disintegrating agent \)
• (B) \( Lubricant \)
• (C) \( Thickener \)
• (D) \( Plasticizer \)

Which of the following flocculating agent is suitable for a negatively charged drug for preparation of suspension?

• (A) \( Aluminium chloride \)
• (B) \( Acacia \)
• (C) \( Tragacanth \)
• (D) \( Sodium lauryl sulphate \)

What quantities of 95% and 45% v/v alcohol are to be mixed to make 200 mL of 65% v/v alcohol?

• (A) \( 120 mL of 95% and 80 mL of 45% alcohol \)
• (B) \( 40 mL of 95% and 160 mL of 45% alcohol \)
• (C) \( 160 mL of 95% and 40 mL of 45% alcohol \)
• (D) \( 80 mL of 95% and 120 mL of 45% alcohol \)

What is the similarity between BB tooling and D tooling of tablet punches?

• (A) \( Barrel length \)
• (B) \( Head diameter \)
• (C) \( Barrel diameter \)
• (D) \( Die outer diameter \)

The preservative suitable for use in ophthalmic preparations is \(\hspace{2cm}\)

• (A) \( Sodium benzoate \)
• (B) \( Chlorobutanol \)
• (C) \( Benzoic acid \)
• (D) \( Butyl hydroxyl anisole \)

Identify the false statement about gelatin used in the preparation of capsules.

• (A) \( Type A gelatin has an isoelectric point in pH region of 9 \)
• (B) \( Type B gelatin has an isoelectric point in pH region of 4.5 \)
• (C) \( Type A gelatin is derived from an alkali treated precursor \)
• (D) \( Type B gelatin is derived from an alkali treated precursor \)

A cosmetologist requires to prepare a cold cream. Suggest the commonly used combination that can be used.

• (A) \( Stearic acid- borax \)
• (B) \( Bees wax- KOH \)
• (C) \( Stearic acid-KOH \)
• (D) \( Bees wax-borax \)

\(\hspace{2cm}\) is not used as a keratolytic agent in shampoos?

• (A) \( Selenium disulphide \)
• (B) \( Sodium lauryl sulphate \)
• (C) \( Resorcinol \)
• (D) \( Sulphur \)

Which of the following material is used for making dip tubes of aerosols?

• (A) \( Polyethylene \)
• (B) \( Stainless steel \)
• (C) \( Rubber \)
• (D) \( Tin \)

Using which instrument, the consistency of lipstick is evaluated?

• (A) \( Cup \& bob viscometer \)
• (B) \( Cone \& plate viscometer \)
• (C) \( Ostwald viscometer \)
• (D) \( Penetrometer \)

Which of the following is responsible for bridging in tablet coating?

• (A) \( Rapid drying of coating solution \)
• (B) \( Over spraying of coating solution \)
• (C) \( High moisture content of air \)
• (D) \( Improper plasticizer \)

The life span of blood in citrate saline after withdrawal from the donor stored at 4-6°C is \(\hspace{2cm}\) days.

• (A) \( 7 days \)
• (B) \( 15 days \)
• (C) \( 21 days \)
• (D) \( 30 days \)

\(\hspace{2cm}\) salt is used as astringent in cosmetics.

• (A) \( Iron \)
• (B) \( Lead \)
• (C) \( Tin \)
• (D) \( Zinc \)

Glycerine in toothpaste is used as \(\hspace{2cm}\)

• (A) \( Binding agent \)
• (B) \( Foaming agent \)
• (C) \( Humectant \)
• (D) \( Sweetening agent \)

The volume of distribution of two drugs A and B was 40 L and 160 L respectively. Which of the following statements are correct?

Dose of A is low compared to B
The initial plasma concentration of A is high
Dose of B is low compared to A
The initial plasma concentration of B is low

• (A) \( I only \)
• (B) \( I and II \)
• (C) \( I, II and III \)
• (D) \( I, II and IV \)

Which of the following affects the Glomerular filtration of a drug?

• (A) \( Lipid solubility \)
• (B) \( Plasma protein binding \)
• (C) \( Degree of ionization \)
• (D) \( Rate of tubular secretion \)

The complete elimination of a drug is through renal route. If the drug is given to the patient with renal failure, what will happen?

• (A) \( Drug is completely protein bound. \)
• (B) \( Drug is completely eliminated renally. \)
• (C) \( Drug metabolites accumulates in the body \)
• (D) \( Drug gets completely metabolized in the liver. \)

Hepatic first pass effect can not be avoided by administering the drug through \(\hspace{2cm}\) route.

• (A) \( Per-oral \)
• (B) \( Sublingual \)
• (C) \( Intramuscular \)
• (D) \( Subcutaneous \)

Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE for effect of co-administration of erythromycin with cyclosporine?

• (A) \( It decreases its metabolism \)
• (B) \( It increases its gastrointestinal absorption \)
• (C) \( It increases its toxicity \)
• (D) \( It increases its clearance \)

Which of the following statement is correct for describing characteristic feature of non-linear pharmacokinetics?

• (A) \( Area under the curve is proportional to the dose. \)
• (B) \( Elimination half-life remains constant. \)
• (C) \( Area under the curve is not proportional to the dose. \)
• (D) \( Amount of drug excreted remains constant. \)

The dose of the drug is repeated at half-life intervals. After how many intervals the steady state (plateau) plasma drug concentration is reached?

• (A) \( 2-3 half lives \)
• (B) \( 4-5 half lives \)
• (C) \( 6-7 half lives \)
• (D) \( 8-10 half lives \)

\(\hspace{2cm}\) defined as "an immunologically mediated reaction to a drug producing stereotyped symptoms unrelated to its pharmacodynamic actions."

• (A) \( Hypersensitivity \)
• (B) \( Supersensitivity \)
• (C) \( Intolerance \)
• (D) \( Idiosyncrasy \)

Low dose subcutaneous heparin therapy is indicated for:

• (A) \( Prevention of leg vein thrombosis in elderly patients \)
• (B) \( Ischaemic stroke \)
• (C) \( Patients undergoing neurosurgery \)
• (D) \( Prevention of extension of coronary artery thrombus in acute myocardial infarction \)

Which of the following is TRUE for metformin?

• (A) \( It is significantly metabolized in the liver \)
• (B) \( Food intake increases its extent of absorption \)
• (C) \( It causes weight gain \)
• (D) \( It exhibits extensive plasma protein binding \)

What is the reason for hyperglycaemia caused due to long-term thiazide therapy?

• (A) \( Increasing sympathetic activity \)
• (B) \( Reducing insulin release \)
• (C) \( Interfering with glucose utilization in tissues \)
• (D) \( Increasing corticosteroid secretion \)

\(\hspace{2cm}\) increases cardiac output in congestive heart failure without having any direct myocardial action.

• (A) \( Amrinone \)
• (B) \( Captopril \)
• (C) \( Digoxin \)
• (D) \( Dobutamine \)

The antitussive that is present in opium but has no analgesic or addicting properties is \(\hspace{2cm}\)

• (A) \( Codeine \)
• (B) \( Ethyl morphine \)
• (C) \( Noscapine \)
• (D) \( Pholcodeine \)

In cytotoxic induced drug vomiting, which of the following receptor is most involved?

• (A) \( Histamine H_1 receptor \)
• (B) \( Serotonin 5-HT_3 receptor \)
• (C) \( Dopamine D_2 receptor \)
• (D) \( Opioid \mu receptor \)

The mechanism of action for relieving migraine by ergotamine is due to \(\hspace{2cm}\)

• (A) \( Blocking vascular \alpha adrenergic receptors \)
• (B) \( Blocking vascular 5-HT_2 receptors \)
• (C) \( Dilating cranial arterio-venous shunt channels \)
• (D) \( Constricting cranial vessels and reducing perivascular neurogenic inflammation \)

What is the most prominent side effect of salbutamol?

• (A) \( Rise in blood pressure \)
• (B) \( Muscle cramps \)
• (C) \( Hyperglycaemia \)
• (D) \( Stimulation of central nervous system \)

\(\hspace{2cm}\) antiemetic selectively blocks levodopa induced vomiting without blocking its antiparkinsonian action.

• (A) \( Metoclopramide \)
• (B) \( Cisapride \)
• (C) \( Domperidone \)
• (D) \( Ondansetron \)

Hypersensitivity reaction caused by penicillin's comes under type \(\hspace{2cm}\) adverse drug reaction.

• (A) \( TYPE A \)
• (B) \( TYPE B \)
• (C) \( TYPE C \)
• (D) \( TYPE D \)

Drug interaction between \(\hspace{2cm}\) and \(\hspace{2cm}\) is a beneficial interaction.

• (A) \( Erythromycin, digoxin \)
• (B) \( Ramipril, haloperidol \)
• (C) \( Adrenaline, xylocaine \)
• (D) \( MAOI, fluoxetine \)

Head drop method is used in the bioassay of \(\hspace{2cm}\)

• (A) \( Adrenaline \)
• (B) \( Digoxin \)
• (C) \( Oxytocin \)
• (D) \( D-tubocurarine \)

HIV infected patient was started with highly active anti-retroviral therapy containing efavirenz. The patient should be given with which of the following precautions by the pharmacist.

• (A) \( Efavirenz should not be taken with a high fat meal as it can increase its absorption in the GI tract and cause some CNS side effects. \)
• (B) \( Efavirenz is associated with the development of painful peripheral neuropathy in some patients. \)
• (C) \( Efavirenz is a strong inhibitor of enzymes needed by other medications, thereby increasing the risk for drug-drug interactions and should be cautious. \)
• (D) \( Efavirenz can cause yellow color to the skin in about 10% of patients but it is not harmful. \)

In the treatment of \(\hspace{2cm}\) selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors are used.

• (A) \( Bipolar depression \)
• (B) \( Depression \)
• (C) \( Migraine \)
• (D) \( Schizophrenia \)

The antidiabetic activity of glipizide is by \(\hspace{2cm}\)

• (A) \( Promoting Glucose uptake in skeletal muscle \)
• (B) \( Promoting the insulin sensitization \)
• (C) \( Preventing the Glucose synthesis in liver \)
• (D) \( Stimulation of insulin from beta cells \)

The Antihypertensive action of thiazide diuretics is attributed to which of the two factors?

Closing of calcium ion channels
Stimulation of adenylyl cyclase
Depletion of sodium ions
Decrease in peripheral resistance

• (A) \( (I) and (II) \)
• (B) \( (II) and (III) \)
• (C) \( (I) and (III) \)
• (D) \( (III) and (IV) \)

In which of the following condition altered redox state of haemoglobin is seen?

• (A) \( Aplastic anaemia \)
• (B) \( Methemoglobinemia \)
• (C) \( Sideroblastic anaemia \)
• (D) \( Megaloblastic anaemia \)

\(\hspace{2cm}\) is the most commonly used reducing agent in volumetric analysis.

• (A) \( Iodine \)
• (B) \( Potassium iodate \)
• (C) \( Potassium permanganate \)
• (D) \( Oxalic acid \)

Which of the following is not a primary standard?

• (A) \( Ammonia \)
• (B) \( Na_2CO_3 \)
• (C) \( Potassium hydrogen phthalate \)
• (D) \( Sodium oxalate \)

Calomel electrode is made up of \(\hspace{2cm}\)

• (A) \( Pool of mercury \)
• (B) \( Hg/Hg_2Cl_2 \)
• (C) \( Ag/AgCl_2 \)
• (D) \( Pt/KCl \)

\(\hspace{2cm}\) errors cannot be predicted.

• (A) \( Determinate \)
• (B) \( Operational \)
• (C) \( Methodological \)
• (D) \( Indeterminate \)

The accepted value of assay is 10 g, while the result is 9.8 g. What is the relative error?

• (A) \( 0.02 \)
• (B) \( 0.2 \)
• (C) \( 2.0 \)
• (D) \( 20.0 \)

The colour change of crystal violet in non-aqueous titration in acidic medium is \(\hspace{2cm}\)

• (A) \( Violet \)
• (B) \( Orange \)
• (C) \( Yellowish green \)
• (D) \( Pink \)

In complexometric titration \(\hspace{2cm}\) is suitable as an indicator.

• (A) \( Solochrome black \)
• (B) \( EDTA \)
• (C) \( Phenolphthalein \)
• (D) \( Methylene red \)

Half wave potential is related to \(\hspace{2cm}\)

• (A) \( Potentiometry \)
• (B) \( Voltammetry \)
• (C) \( Polarography \)
• (D) \( Conductometry \)

The calibration of absorbance of UV-Visible spectrometer is performed by using \(\hspace{2cm}\)

• (A) \( Potassium chloride \)
• (B) \( Potassium dichromate \)
• (C) \( Holmium perchlorate \)
• (D) \( Potassium permanganate \)

What is the main purpose of quality assurance in GLP studies?

• (A) \( To work as a police force throughout studies. \)
• (B) \( To work as a helping hand while performing study work. \)
• (C) \( To work as a scheme to catch every mistake happening during the study. \)
• (D) \( For monitoring the effectiveness of quality control program of a study. \)

Emission wavelength of potassium ions is \(\hspace{2cm}\) nm.

• (A) \( 589 \)
• (B) \( 622 \)
• (C) \( 670 \)
• (D) \( 766 \)

The more sensitive detector in gas chromatography is \(\hspace{2cm}\) detector.

• (A) \( Flame ionization \)
• (B) \( Thermal conductivity \)
• (C) \( Electron capture \)
• (D) \( Thermoionic \)

1M \( KMnO_4 \) solution is equal to \(\hspace{2cm}\) N \( KMnO_4 \) solution.

• (A) \( 0.2 N \)
• (B) \( 1 N \)
• (C) \( 2 N \)
• (D) \( 5 N \)

Which of the following is used as spray reagent for detection of steroids?

• (A) \( Antimony trichloride \)
• (B) \( Bromothymol blue \)
• (C) \( Diphenyl carbazone \)
• (D) \( Mercuric nitrate \)

Calculation of number of theoretical plates is done by using which of the following equation?

• (A) \( N = 4 \left( \frac{t_R}{W} \right)^2 \)
• (B) \( N = 16 \left( \frac{t_R}{W} \right)^2 \)
• (C) \( N = 16 \left( \frac{t_R}{W} \right) \)
• (D) \( N = 4 \left( \frac{t_R}{W^2} \right) \)

\(\hspace{2cm}\) is used for expression of precision of a method.

• (A) \( Mean \)
• (B) \( % Assay \)
• (C) \( % CV \)
• (D) \( Correlation coefficient \)

\(\hspace{2cm}\) region in the electromagnetic spectrum is below 190 nm.

• (A) \( Near UV region \)
• (B) \( Microwave region \)
• (C) \( Vacuum UV region \)
• (D) \( Low UV region \)

In the IR analysis, aldehydes are distinguished from C=O containing compounds due to \(\hspace{2cm}\)

• (A) \( Low frequency of absorption of aldehydes \)
• (B) \( Doublet at the C-H stretching region \)
• (C) \( Presence of double bond \)
• (D) \( Attachment of alkyl or aryl group to >C=O \)

Which of the following detectors does not require the presence of chromophore in HPLC analysis?

• (A) \( Fluorescence \)
• (B) \( Photo diode array \)
• (C) \( Evaporative light scattering \)
• (D) \( UV \)

The specificity of an analytical method is defined as \(\hspace{2cm}\)

• (A) \( The ability to assess unequivocally the analyte in the presence of components which may be expected to be present \)
• (B) \( Closeness of agreement between a series of measurements \)
• (C) \( Closeness of agreement between the true value and the value found \)
• (D) \( The ability to obtain test results which are directly proportional to the concentration \)

Which of the following drug molecule does not exhibit fluorescence?

• (A) \( Oxytetracycline \)
• (B) \( Paracetamol \)
• (C) \( Quinine \)
• (D) \( Riboflavin \)

Schedule I of DPCO 2013 is divided into \(\hspace{2cm}\) sections

• (A) \( 9 \)
• (B) \( 18 \)
• (C) \( 27 \)
• (D) \( 36 \)

Match the following:

Schedule Y
Schedule G
Schedule N
Schedule P


Space, equipment and other facilities required to run a blood bank
Life period of drugs
Requirements and guidelines on clinical trials for import and manufacture of new drugs
List of drugs to be used under medical supervision

• (A) \( 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a \)
• (B) \( 1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c \)
• (C) \( 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b \)
• (D) \( 1-b, 2-d, 3-b, 4-c \)

State penalty for contravention or offence relating to manufactured drugs and preparations involving commercial quantity as per Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act.

• (A) \( Rigorous imprisonment up to 10 years and fine up to Rs.1 lakh. \)
• (B) \( Rigorous imprisonment up to 10 years and fine up to Rs.1 lakh. \)
• (C) \( Rigorous imprisonment for not less than 10-20 years or fine not less than Rs.1 to 2 lakhs. \)
• (D) \( Rigorous imprisonment for not less than 10-20 years and fine not less than Rs.1 to 2 lakhs. \)

Schedule K pertains to \(\hspace{2cm}\)

• (A) \( List of drugs that can be used with caution under medical supervision \)
• (B) \( List of drugs exempted from certain provisions governing import of drugs \)
• (C) \( List of drugs exempted from certain provisions relating to the manufacture of drugs \)
• (D) \( List of diseases that a drug cannot claim to cure \)

What is the maximum limit for import of single drug for personal use as part of bonafide baggage of a passenger?

• (A) \( 100 \)
• (B) \( 150 \)
• (C) \( 200 \)
• (D) \( No limit \)