AP PGECET Question Paper 2025 (Available) : Download Pharmacy Question Paper with Solutions

The drug ‘Pectin’ belongs to the category of _______.

• (1) polyuronide
• (2) disaccharide
• (3) alkaloid
• (4) Monosaccharide

Source of pale catechu is _______.

• (1) Eucalyptus rostrata
• (2) Uncaria gambir
• (3) Terminalia chebula
• (4) Punica granatum

Trichomes with quadracellular head \& sessible stalk are seen in ___.

• (1) Digitalis
• (2) Belladonna
• (3) Hyoscyamus
• (4) Vasaka

Which of the following crude drug is obtained from mineral origin?

• (1) Digitalis
• (2) Sandalwood
• (3) Nux vomica
• (4) Kaolin

The natural oil of winter green majorly contains ____.

• (1) methyl salicylate
• (2) salicylic acid
• (3) phenol
• (4) \( \alpha \)-napthol

Mangifera indica belongs to the family:

• (1) Phyllanthaceae
• (2) Combretaceae
• (3) Meliaceae
• (4) Anacardiaceae

Steroidal saponins are biosynthesized via ____.

• (1) shikimic acid pathway
• (2) mevalonic acid pathway
• (3) aceto-acetate pathway
• (4) Calvin’s cycle

The swelling index of a crude drug is used to evaluate the ____.

• (1) presence of alkaloids
• (2) moisture content
• (3) mucilage content
• (4) presence of volatile oils

The biological source of cotton fiber is ______.

• (1) Cyamopsis tetragonolobus
• (2) Gossypium barbadense
• (3) Saraca indica
• (4) Arachis hypogaea

Number of isoprene units present in diterpenes are ____.

• (1) 2
• (2) 3
• (3) 4
• (4) 5

Which is the specific test for the identification of cardiac glycoside?

• (1) Baljet’s test
• (2) Legal test
• (3) Keller – kiliani test
• (4) 3,5–dinitro benzoic acid test

Match the following correctly.
\[ \begin{array}{ll} A) Goldbeater skin test & 1) Carbohydrates
B) Molisch test & 2) Terpenoids
C) Mayer’s test & 3) Tannins
D) Salkowski test & 4) Alkaloids
\end{array} \]

• (1) A–2; B–3; C–4; D–1
• (2) A–4; B–1; C–2; D–1
• (3) A–3; B–1; C–4; D–2
• (4) A–1; B–4; C–2; D–3

Glass wool is primarily used in pharmaceutical applications for ___.

• (1) drug formulation
• (2) insulation and filtration
• (3) textile production
• (4) capsule coating

An alkaloid containing one of the nitrogen atoms as quaternary nitrogen is:

• (1) Atropine
• (2) Ephedrine
• (3) Tubocurarine
• (4) Mescaline

Which of the following plant cell culture technique is generally regarded as a “closed system” technique?

• (1) Continuous cultures
• (2) Batch suspension cultures
• (3) Semi continuous cultures
• (4) Petri plate cultures

Rasburicase is a newer drug used in gout. It acts by _____.

• (1) decreasing urate synthesis
• (2) increasing urate oxidation
• (3) decreasing intestinal absorption of uric acid
• (4) increasing renal excretion of uric acid

1-[(5-methylpyrazin-2-yl-carboxamide) ethyl phenyl sulphonyl]-3-cyclohexyl urea is _____.

• (1) Glimepiride
• (2) Glipizide
• (3) Glyburide
• (4) Repaglinide

Select the INCORRECT statement with respect to the SAR of adrenergic agonists with specific reference to 3’,5’-dihydroxy ring substitution pattern.

• (1) Increases the drug distribution
• (2) Increases resistance to metabolism by COMT
• (3) Provides selectivity for \(\beta_2\)-receptors
• (4) Orally active bronchodilator

The term “bioisosterism” in drug design aims to maintain or improve the molecule's biological activity by:

• (1) Replacement of a functional group with another that enhances lipophilicity
• (2) Replacement of a chemical group in a molecule with another that has similar physical and chemical properties
• (3) Structural modification to increase water solubility
• (4) Conversion of a drug into a salt form

Pharmacophore modelling involves ______.

• (1) Identifying excipients for formulation development with enhanced bioavailability
• (2) Monitoring plasma levels of drugs for better pharmacodynamics
• (3) Predicting half-life of drugs
• (4) Creating a 3D model of the necessary features to interact with a target

IUPAC name of aspirin is ______.

• (1) Salicylic anhydride
• (2) 2-ethyl salicylate
• (3) 2-acetoxybenzoic acid
• (4) 4-hydroxybenzoic acid

Which of the following drugs act via PPAR-\(\alpha\) activation?

What does “QSAR” stand for in drug design?

• (1) Qualitative Selective-Activity Response
• (2) Quick Structure-Activity Response
• (3) Quantitative Structure-Activity Relationship
• (4) Quantitative Selective-Activity Relationship

What is the primary function of dental abrasives?

• (1) Removing plaque and stains
• (2) Enhancing digestion
• (3) Neutralizing stomach acid
• (4) Regulating blood pressure

Which of the following statements is true regarding the following structure (nevirapine)?

• (1) It is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI).
• (2) It binds to an allosteric binding site next to the substrate binding site of reverse transcriptase
• (3) It is an achiral molecule
• (4) It is an example of a second-generation drug of its class

When 6-OH of morphine is replaced by 6-O-acetyl group, then the activity will \hspace{1cm}.

• (1) increase
• (2) decrease
• (3) no effect
• (4) Antagonistic

Which of the following drugs causes severe birth defects due to stereochemical differences in its enantiomers?

• (1) Tamoxifen
• (2) Methamphetamine
• (3) Thalidomide
• (4) Paclitaxel

The antihypertensive drug with a tetrazole nucleus that binds to AT1 receptor with high affinity is \hspace{1cm}.

• (1) diazoxide
• (2) valsartan
• (3) talupidine
• (4) fosinopril

The E/Z nomenclature is used to describe \hspace{1cm} isomerism.

• (1) optical
• (2) geometrical
• (3) chain
• (4) functional group

Which enzyme is targeted by beta-lactam antibiotics?

• (1) DNA gyrase
• (2) Transpeptidase
• (3) Reverse transcriptase
• (4) Topoisomerase

Lipinski’s rule of five is linked with \hspace{2cm}.

• (1) drug’s metabolic pathway
• (2) potency of drug-receptor binding
• (3) drug-likeness for oral bioavailability
• (4) stability under acidic conditions

Which of the following is not the category of cardiotonic agents?

• (1) Calcium sensitizers
• (2) Phosphodiesterase III inhibitors
• (3) Beta-adrenergic antagonists
• (4) Cardiac glycosides

SAR studies of sulfonamides suggest that antibacterial activity is not lost when the \hspace{2cm}.

• (1) sulfonamide group is acetylated
• (2) amine group is replaced with halogens
• (3) aromatic ring is replaced with a non-aromatic moiety
• (4) sulfonyl group is replaced by a carboxyl group

What is the role of ethanol in the preparation of barium sulphate reagent?

• (1) To provide an acidic medium
• (2) To oxidize barium
• (3) To precipitate barium
• (4) To prevent super-saturation

Identify the key step in the synthesis of beta-blockers.

• (1) Condensation of amines with aromatic rings
• (2) Hydrolysis of esters
• (3) Oxidation of alcohols
• (4) Reduction of ketones

As compared to unfractionated heparin, low molecular weight heparins ______:

• (1) are absorbed more uniformly when given subcutaneously
• (2) require more frequent laboratory monitoring
• (3) can be given to patients with heparin induced thrombocytopenia
• (4) predispose to a higher risk of osteopenia

Anxiolytic drugs like lorazepam primarily act on ______ receptors.

• (1) serotonin
• (2) NMDA
• (3) GABA-A
• (4) dopamine

Which of the following is used as anticaries agent?

• (1) Calcium carbonate
• (2) Sodium lauryl sulphate
• (3) Zinc chloride
• (4) Sodium fluoride

The locally acting antacid(s) known for its constipation effect is/are:

• (1) Sodium bicarbonate
• (2) Aluminium hydroxide
• (3) Magnesium hydroxide
• (4) Sucralose

Match the following limit test reagents correctly.


% Matching Table
\begin{tabular{ll
A) Arsenic & 1) Dithizone

B) Lead & 2) Thioglycolic acid

C) Iron & 3) Barium chloride

D) Barium & 4) Mercuric chloride

\end{tabular

• (1) A-4; B-1; C-2; D-3
• (2) A-3; B-2; C-4; D-1
• (3) A-2; B-1; C-4; D-3
• (4) A-3; B-4; C-2; D-1

In general, Kraft point phenomenon is generally not exhibited by which of the following surfactant?

• (1) Tweens
• (2) Sodium lauryl sulphate
• (3) Calcium oleate
• (4) Sodium stearate

The angle of repose is primarily used to determine \hspace{2cm}.

• (1) particle density
• (2) flowability of powders
• (3) surface charge
• (4) particle solubility

A first-order reaction has a half-life of 24 hours. What is its rate constant (k)?

• (1) 0.0289 hr\(^{-1}\)
• (2) 0.693 hr\(^{-1}\)
• (3) 0.5 hr\(^{-1}\)
• (4) 1.2 hr\(^{-1}\)

What is water number?

• (1) Maximum amount of water that can be added to 100 g of a base at a given temperature
• (2) Minimum amount of water that can be added to 100 g of a base at a given temperature
• (3) Minimum amount of water that can be added to 5 g of a base at a given temperature
• (4) Minimum amount of water that can be added to 40 g of a base at a given temperature

What is a molecular phenomenon where by adding a second solute results in an increase in aqueous solubility of poorly soluble solute?

• (1) Peptization
• (2) Hydrotrophy
• (3) Eutectic mixture formation
• (4) Levigation

If pKa of a weak electrolyte is 4.2, how much percentage of it will be ionized at pH of 5.2?

• (1) 50%
• (2) \(>\)50%
• (3) \(<\)50%
• (4) Cannot be predicted

The distance between two tangents on opposite sides of the particle parallel to some fixed direction is called as _____ diameter.

• (1) Martin diameter
• (2) Feret diameter
• (3) Projected area diameter
• (4) Projected number diameter

The density that is determined by displacement of helium is known as _____ density.

• (1) True
• (2) Intrinsic
• (3) Granule
• (4) Bulk

Which sterilization method is suitable for heat-labile parenteral solutions?

• (1) Autoclaving
• (2) Dry heat
• (3) Filtration
• (4) UV radiation

The solubility of the drug will be high when it is in its _____ form.

• (1) stable
• (2) metastable
• (3) unstable
• (4) crystalline

In a suspension, the purpose of a flocculating agent is to _______.

• (1) increase viscosity
• (2) prevent caking
• (3) enhance solubility
• (4) reduce particle size

Which suppository base is water-soluble?

• (1) Cocoa butter
• (2) PEG
• (3) Gelatin
• (4) Witepsol

Vanishing cream is an example of _____.

• (1) w/o emulsion
• (2) o/w
• (3) w/o/w
• (4) Microemulsion

Bulking agent used for parenteral preparation is _____.

• (1) sodium metabisulphite
• (2) benzyl alcohol
• (3) carboxylic acid
• (4) Sorbitol

The disintegration time for sugar coated tablet is _____ minutes.

• (1) 30
• (2) 45
• (3) 60
• (4) 75

Which of the following tablet problems cannot be eliminated by pre-compression?

• (1) Mottling
• (2) Lamination
• (3) Double impression
• (4) Capping

Which of the following is not used for the enteric coating of the tablets?

• (1) Cellulose acetate phthalate
• (2) Hydroxy propyl methyl cellulose
• (3) Shellac
• (4) Eudragit L

Study of adverse effects of drugs and toxic substances in the body is ______.

• (1) Clinical Toxicology
• (2) Biopharmaceutics
• (3) Clinical Pharmacokinetics
• (4) Toxicokinetics

LAL test is used as an in-process control in parenteral preparation to examine presence of ______.

• (1) pyrogens
• (2) endotoxins
• (3) exotoxins
• (4) proteinaceous matter

If the plasma half-life of a drug is 1.386 h and the volume of distribution is 10 L, the total body clearance of the drug without any unit conversion will be _____.

• (1) 5
• (2) 20
• (3) 13.86
• (4) 6.93

The best explanation for the absorption of salicylic acid from intestine, despite being ionized is:

• (1) High surface area of the drug molecules
• (2) Dissolution of drug
• (3) Availability of 1% of the un-ionized form
• (4) Availability of receptors

The area under the serum concentration time curve represents the ______.

• (1) biological half-life of the drug
• (2) amount of drug absorbed
• (3) amount of drug excreted in the urine
• (4) amount of drug in the original dosage form

Fumaric acid is used in gelatin capsule shell is used as _____.

• (1) plasticizer
• (2) antioxidant
• (3) solubilizer
• (4) opacifier

Wurster’s process is also better known as _____.

• (1) rotary plate process
• (2) air suspension coating
• (3) coacervation process
• (4) pan coating

What is the ideal particle size for topical powders?

• (1) 50 to 100 µm
• (2) 150 to 250 µm
• (3) 250 to 500 µm
• (4) Above 1000 µm

A super disintegrant in tablet formulation is _____.

• (1) sodium starch glycolate
• (2) starch
• (3) PVP
• (4) Mg-aluminium silicate

The creatinine clearance in normal 70 kg individuals is typically in the range of ____ mL/min.

• (1) 100–120
• (2) 200–250
• (3) 50–100
• (4) 120–200

A co-solvent used in the preparation of parenteral products is ____.

• (1) benzyl alcohol
• (2) methyl alcohol
• (3) dimethyl acetamide
• (4) phenol

If zeta potential of a suspension is high, then the system will be considered as _____.

• (1) deflocculated
• (2) flocculated
• (3) emulsion
• (4) sedimentation

Non-linear pharmacokinetics is most likely due to _____.

• (1) first-pass metabolism
• (2) saturation of metabolic enzymes
• (3) renal excretion
• (4) high plasma protein binding

Match the following:

\begin{tabular{ll
A) Schedule Y & 1) List of minimum equipment for efficient running of a pharmacy

B) Schedule G & 2) Life period of drugs

C) Schedule N & 3) Requirements and guidelines on clinical trials

& \quad\; for import and manufacture of new drugs

D) Schedule P & 4) List of drugs to be used under medical supervision

\end{tabular

• (1) A–2; B–3; C–4; D–1
• (2) A–4; B–1; C–2; D–3
• (3) A–3; B–4; C–1; D–2
• (4) A–2; B–4; C–2; D–3

The first schedule of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 deals with _______.

• (1) standards to be complied with by imported drugs and by drugs manufactured for sale, stocked or exhibited for sale, sold or distributed
• (2) standard to be complied for cosmetics
• (3) authoritative books of Ayurvedic, Siddha and Unani Tibb system
• (4) standards to be complied for medical devices

The Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI) can issue an order to ban a drug on the recommendations of ______.

• (1) Indian Council of Medical Research
• (2) Pharmacy Council of India
• (3) Drugs Technical Advisory Board
• (4) National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority

_____ is a psychotropic substance under the Narcotics and Psychotropic Substances Act.

• (1) Barbital
• (2) Ampicillin
• (3) Albendazole
• (4) Chloroquine

Who is the Ex-officio Member of Pharmacy Council of India?

• (1) Director, Central Drugs Research Laboratory
• (2) Director General of Health Services
• (3) President, Medical Council of India
• (4) Director, Central Research Institute

Which drug acts as a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)?

• (1) Amitriptyline
• (2) Fluoxetine
• (3) Diazepam
• (4) Phenelzine

Atropine blocks the effects of acetylcholine at _____ receptors.

• (1) nicotinic
• (2) muscarinic
• (3) alpha-1
• (4) beta-2

Levothyroxine is a synthetic analogue of ______.

• (1) Triiodothyronine (T\textsubscript{3})
• (2) Thyroxine (T\textsubscript{4})
• (3) TSH
• (4) Calcitonin

Penicillins act by inhibiting ______.

• (1) cell membrane synthesis
• (2) DNA gyrase
• (3) cell wall synthesis
• (4) protein synthesis

Which of the following antidiabetic agent primarily enhances insulin sensitivity in target tissues?

• (1) Sulfonylureas
• (2) Biguanides
• (3) Thiazolidinediones
• (4) Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

Which local anaesthetic is commonly used for spinal anaesthesia due to its long duration of action?

• (1) Lidocaine
• (2) Bupivacaine
• (3) Procaine
• (4) Mepivacaine

Development of drug resistance is not generally associated with overexpression of which of the following transporters?

• (1) BCRP
• (2) ABCB1
• (3) MDR1
• (4) Folate receptors

Which of the following cellular transport requires energy?

• (1) Active transport
• (2) Passive transport
• (3) Facilitated transport
• (4) Pinocytosis

Which of the following is not correct for the \( H_1 \) receptor antagonists?

• (1) Strongly block the increased capillary permeability caused by histamine
• (2) Suppress the flare and itching caused by intradermal injection
• (3) Always suppress the gastric secretion
• (4) Relieve the allergic reactions

Absorption of oral iron preparations can be facilitated by co-administering \hspace{1cm}.

• (1) calcium carbonate
• (2) calcium phosphate
• (3) ascorbic acid
• (4) casein

The weight ratio of T4 and T3 in the combination preparations is \hspace{1cm}.

• (1) 1:3
• (2) 3:1
• (3) 1:4
• (4) 4:1

The antiplatelet action of aspirin involves \hspace{1cm} inhibition.

• (1) arachidonic acid pathway
• (2) ADP pathway
• (3) glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor
• (4) phosphodiesterase

The drug that is not metabolized using hydrolysis reaction is \hspace{1cm}.

• (1) aspirin
• (2) lidocaine
• (3) morphine
• (4) procaine

Which receptor type is primarily involved in the "fight or flight" response?

• (1) alpha-1 adrenergic
• (2) beta-2 adrenergic
• (3) Muscarinic
• (4) Nicotinic

Find the direct oral anticoagulant drug from the following.

• (1) Heparin
• (2) Dabigatran
• (3) Warfarin
• (4) Aspirin

Which of the following is true regarding the purpose of taking a medication history of patient?

• (1) To identify potential drug interactions and allergies
• (2) To know the cost of medications
• (3) Both a and b are correct
• (4) Both a and b are incorrect

Which of the following is acting as an antidiarrheal agent?

• (1) Bisacodyl
• (2) Docusate
• (3) Loperamide
• (4) Lactulose

For the emergency treatment of severe hypoglycaemia, which of the following is administered?

• (1) Pramlintide
• (2) Glucagon
• (3) Rosiglitazone
• (4) Metformin

Identify the drug used in androgen replacement therapy.

• (1) Cortisol
• (2) Estrogen
• (3) Progesterone
• (4) Testosterone enanthate

The primary action of diuretics in hypertension management is __________.

• (1) reducing urine output
• (2) reducing volume of blood
• (3) inhibiting calcium channels
• (4) increasing heart rate

When absorption energy is increased, then the shift is called ______.

• (1) Hypochromic shift
• (2) Hyperchromic shift
• (3) Bathochromic shift
• (4) Hypsochromic shift

What is the wavelength of fingerprint region?

• (1) 100–500 cm\(^{-1}\)
• (2) 500–1500 cm\(^{-1}\)
• (3) 1700–2000 cm\(^{-1}\)
• (4) 400–800 cm\(^{-1}\)

Beer Lambert’s law indicates _______.

• (1) absorbance is directly proportional to concentration
• (2) absorbance is indirectly proportional to concentration
• (3) absorbance is indirectly proportional to path length
• (4) absorbance is indirectly proportional to molar absorptivity

In HPLC analysis, what type of column is preferred?

• (1) A column with high HETP and high number of plates
• (2) A column with low HETP and low number of plates
• (3) A column with high HETP and low number of plates
• (4) A column with low HETP and high number of plates

Following are the desirable properties of the liquid phase used in GLC EXCEPT for one of the following. Identify the same.

• (1) It should be inert to the analytes
• (2) It should have high viscosity at operating temperature
• (3) It should have low vapour pressure at the operating temperature
• (4) It should have a high resolving power

Which of the following is a primary function of GLP?

• (1) To ensure the safety of consumers by testing the quality of food products.
• (2) To establish a framework for conducting non-clinical studies, ensuring the quality, integrity, and reproducibility of the data generated.
• (3) To certify the quality of pharmaceutical products after they have been manufactured.
• (4) To ensure the proper storage and disposal of hazardous waste generated in a laboratory.

The electrode potentials are calculated by ________.

• (1) Ilkovic equation
• (2) Stokes equation
• (3) Nernst equation
• (4) Ohm’s Law

ICH stands for ________.

• (1) International Committee on Harmonisation
• (2) International Conference on Harmonisation
• (3) International Council for Harmonisation
• (4) International Council of Harmony

Resolution of HPLC can not be modified by ________.

• (1) decreasing particle size
• (2) decreasing column diameter
• (3) changing flow rate
• (4) changing detector

The errors arising due to use of un-calibrated or improperly calibrated weights are known as:

• (1) Operational and personal errors
• (2) Instrumental and reagent errors
• (3) Errors of methods
• (4) Additive and proportional errors

For the \(pH\) range of 2.8 to 4.6, which indicator should be preferred?

• (1) Phenolphthalein
• (2) Methyl red
• (3) Thymol blue
• (4) Bromophenol blue

The phenomenon called "levelling effect" for weak acids will be observed in ________ solvents.

• (1) aprotic
• (2) protophilic
• (3) protogenic
• (4) amphiprotic

To obtain the best results in any of the quantitative TLC methods, the spots being used should have \( R_f \) values between _______.

• (1) 0.01 to 0.3
• (2) 0.3 to 0.7
• (3) 0.7 to 1.0
• (4) > 1.0

As per the Indian Pharmacopoeia, the test organism for the microbiological assay of amikacin is ______.

• (1) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
• (2) Micrococcus luteus
• (3) Klebsiella pneumoniae
• (4) Staphylococcus aureus

Subpart C of Good Laboratory Practice (GLP) regulations, specifically under 21 CFR Part-58, focuses on ______.

• (1) test and control articles
• (2) organisational and personnel
• (3) testing facilities operations
• (4) Facilities

The relationship between the atoms present in their ground-state and excited-state in flame photometry is given by ______ equation.

• (1) Arrhenius
• (2) Nernst
• (3) Boltzmann
• (4) de Broglie

Which of the following functional group(s) does not show two absorption peaks in IR spectroscopy:

• (1) Anhydride
• (2) Primary amine
• (3) Nitro
• (4) Secondary amine

If 10 mL of 0.1 M sulphuric acid solution requires 20 mL of NaOH solution, then the normality of NaOH solution is:

• (1) 0.1 N
• (2) 0.05 N
• (3) 0.2 N
• (4) 0.4 N

During titration of strong acid with a weak base, which one is correct with respect to conductance?

• (1) It increases till the end point
• (2) It decreases till the end point
• (3) End point cannot be determined using conductimetry
• (4) Conductance not altered

Which substance is commonly used titrant in iodometric titrations?

• (1) Potassium iodide
• (2) Sodium thiosulfate
• (3) Iodine solution
• (4) Potassium permanganate

Which of the following is correct about robustness and ruggedness in method validation?

• (1) Robustness evaluates inter-laboratory variations, while ruggedness evaluates small changes in method parameters
• (2) Ruggedness evaluates inter-laboratory variations, while robustness evaluates small changes in method parameters
• (3) Robustness focuses on analyst variations, while ruggedness evaluates intra-laboratory changes
• (4) Ruggedness focuses on temperature changes, while robustness focuses on pressure changes

Which of the following is a primary standard used in the calibration of spectrophotometers?

• (1) Sodium dichromate
• (2) Sodium chloride
• (3) Potassium dichromate
• (4) Potassium chloride

Find the correct sentence from the following about accuracy and precision in pharmaceutical analysis.

• (1) Accuracy refers to reproducibility, while precision refers to closeness to the true value
• (2) Accuracy refers to closeness to the true value, while precision refers to reproducibility
• (3) Both accuracy and precision refers to the same concept
• (4) Accuracy is related to random errors, while precision is related to systematic errors

Which guideline is commonly referred to for method validation in pharmaceutical analysis?

• (1) ICH Q3A
• (2) ICH Q2 (R1)
• (3) ICH Q1B
• (4) ICH Q4A

What will be change observed in liquid chromatography with increased mobile phase flow rate?

• (1) Decreased pressure
• (2) Increased resolution
• (3) Increased sensitivity
• (4) Reduced retention times