AP PGECET Question Paper 2025 for Geo Engineering and Geo Informatics is available for download here with answer key and solution PDF. AP PGECET 2025 was conducted on June 6 in two shifts.
AP PGECET Question Paper 2025 consists of 120 MCQ-based questions in total carrying 1 mark each to be attempted in the duration of 2 hours.

AP PGECET Geo Engineering and Geo Informatics Question Paper

AP PGECET​​ Question Paper 2025 with Solution PDF
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AP PGECET Question Paper 2025


Question 1:

Where is Earth’s core located relative to the surface?

  • (A) 2,900 kilometers below the surface
  • (B) 3,900 kilometers below the surface
  • (C) At the crust–mantle boundary
  • (D) 1,900 kilometers below the surface

Question 2:

What is the term for the process that led to the formation of Earth's core?

  • (A) Plate tectonics
  • (B) Planetary differentiation
  • (C) Seafloor spreading
  • (D) Mantle convection

Question 3:

What are polymorphs in mineralogy?

  • (A) Rocks formed under identical pressure and temperature conditions
  • (B) Two or more minerals with the same chemical formula but different crystal structures
  • (C) Crystals that form only in metamorphic environments
  • (D) Minerals with different chemical formulas but similar crystal structures

Question 4:

What characterizes a porphyritic texture in igneous rocks?

  • (A) Layers of alternating light and dark minerals
  • (B) A texture in which some crystals are distinctly larger than the rest
  • (C) Crystals that form only from volcanic eruptions
  • (D) Uniformly sized crystals throughout the rock

Question 5:

Which of the following correctly describes the composition of Earth’s core?

  • (A) Silicate rocks with low-density elements
  • (B) Solid iron-nickel outer core and liquid silicate inner core
  • (C) Liquid iron-nickel outer core and solid iron-nickel inner core
  • (D) Primarily aluminum silicate with traces of magnesium

Question 6:

What is the process called when a parent rock transforms due to heat and pressure without melting?

  • (A) Diagenesis
  • (B) Metamorphism
  • (C) Crystallization
  • (D) Erosion

Question 7:

Which of the following best explains the term "continental shield"?

  • (A) Submarine ridges with high heat flow
  • (B) Oceanic crust covered by continental sediments
  • (C) Large regions of exposed Precambrian crystalline igneous and metamorphic rocks
  • (D) Young mountain ranges formed by recent tectonic activity

Question 8:

Which of the following is a framework silicate mineral?

  • (A) Olivine
  • (B) Biotite
  • (C) Quartz
  • (D) Pyroxene

Question 9:

The cleavage in mica minerals is described as:
 

  • (A) Basal
  • (B) Prismatic
  • (C) Cubic
  • (D) Irregular

Question 10:

The primary instrument used for measuring horizontal and vertical angles in surveying is:
 

  • (A) Theodolite
  • (B) Total station
  • (C) Plane table
  • (D) Dumpy level

Question 11:

High oblique photographs differ from low oblique photographs in that they:
 

  • (A) Are taken from a higher altitude
  • (B) Include the horizon in the image
  • (C) Are taken with a vertical camera axis
  • (D) Show less ground area

Question 12:

Which type of map projection assumes a globe resting on a flat surface, producing a circular map with a central point of tangency?
 

  • (A) Conic Projection
  • (B) Mercator Projection
  • (C) Azimuthal Projection
  • (D) Cylindrical Projection

Question 13:

Which map projection is widely used for nautical navigation due to its ability to represent lines of constant true direction?
 

  • (A) Azimuthal Projection
  • (B) Robinson Projection
  • (C) Polyconic Projection
  • (D) Mercator Projection

Question 14:

The point on the ground vertically beneath the camera at the time of exposure is called the:
 

  • (A) Perceptive point
  • (B) Nadir Point
  • (C) Principal point
  • (D) Isoline

Question 15:

Which of the following characteristics most clearly distinguishes an oblique photograph from a vertical photograph in aerial photography?
 

  • (A) Uniform scale throughout the photograph
  • (B) Ability to see the horizon in the photograph
  • (C) Taken with the camera axis vertical to the ground
  • (D) Presence of overlapping areas between photos

Question 16:

In remote sensing, super wide angle cameras are cameras whose angular field of view is:
 

  • (A) Less than 60\(^\circ\)
  • (B) Between 60\(^\circ\) and 90\(^\circ\)
  • (C) Greater than 90\(^\circ\)
  • (D) Exactly 180\(^\circ\)

Question 17:

What does the term 'radiance' refer to in radiometry?
 

  • (A) Energy per unit wavelength
  • (B) Energy per unit area
  • (C) Energy per unit area per unit solid angle
  • (D) Total energy emitted by a source

Question 18:

Which of the following is not a radiometric quantity?
 

  • (A) Radiant flux
  • (B) Irradiance
  • (C) Reflectance
  • (D) Radiance

Question 19:

Which orbit is best suited for continuous weather monitoring over a specific region?
 

  • (A) Molniya orbit
  • (B) Polar orbit
  • (C) Geostationary orbit
  • (D) Sun-synchronous orbit

Question 20:

Geostationary satellites orbit at approximately:
 

  • (A) 35,786 km
  • (B) 786 km
  • (C) 1000 km
  • (D) 500 km

Question 21:

Across-track stereoscopic imaging is typically obtained by:
 

  • (A) Combining radar and optical data
  • (B) Not combining radar and optical data
  • (C) Using side-looking sensors from different satellite passes
  • (D) Capturing nadir images over different regions

Question 22:

Which of the following satellite systems is capable of along-track stereo imaging using fore and aft sensors?
 

  • (A) Cartosat-1
  • (B) MODIS
  • (C) SPOT
  • (D) Landsat

Question 23:

Across-track stereoscopic imaging is typically obtained by:
 

  • (A) Combining radar and optical data
  • (B) Not combining radar and optical data
  • (C) Using side-looking sensors from different satellite passes
  • (D) Capturing nadir images over different regions

Question 24:

Which of the following satellite systems is capable of along-track stereo imaging using fore and aft sensors?
 

  • (A) Cartosat-1
  • (B) MODIS
  • (C) SPOT
  • (D) Landsat

Question 25:

Which among the following is not related to GIS software’s?
 

  • (A) STAAD Pro
  • (B) QGIS
  • (C) ARCVIEW
  • (D) CAD

Question 26:

Which of the following best describes topology in GIS?
 

  • (A) Raster resolution accuracy
  • (B) Geometric measurement of features
  • (C) Spatial relationships between vector features
  • (D) Storage of attribute information

Question 27:

Which GIS file format is most commonly used for storing vector data, including points, lines, and polygons?
 

  • (A) .img
  • (B) .txt
  • (C) .pps
  • (D) .shp

Question 28:

Which of the following represents the correct set of coordinate classification in GIS?
 

  • (A) Geographic, spherical systems
  • (B) Geographic, projected systems
  • (C) Linear, geometric systems
  • (D) Spherical, projected systems

Question 29:

In GIS, what is the purpose of indexing spatial data in a database?
 

  • (A) To speed up data visualization
  • (B) To improve spatial query performance
  • (C) To store backup copies of data
  • (D) To manage spatial relationships

Question 30:

What is the key advantage of Object-Oriented Database Models in GIS?
 

  • (A) They only work with vector data
  • (B) They are easier to use than relational databases
  • (C) They store data in a flat, three Dimensional table
  • (D) They allow for more complex data relationships and inheritance

Question 31:

What is the primary advantage of using a hierarchical database structure in GIS?
 

  • (A) Improved spatial data analysis
  • (B) Faster query response times
  • (C) Handling of data
  • (D) Clear parent-child relationships between data sets

Question 32:

Which of the following would be considered a non-spatial data analysis technique?
 

  • (A) Raster data interpolation
  • (B) Database queries using SQL
  • (C) Buffer zone creation
  • (D) Network analysis

Question 33:

In GIS, what is the primary purpose of using symbology?
 

  • (A) To perform spatial queries
  • (B) To represent spatial features visually with symbols
  • (C) To convert raster to vector
  • (D) To store spatial data efficiently

Question 34:

Which of the following types of visualizations would be most appropriate for displaying elevation data?
 

  • (A) Heat map
  • (B) Bar chart
  • (C) 3D surface model
  • (D) Line graph

Question 35:

......... map projection is best suited for regional or hemispheric maps, but unsuitable for entire world map.
 

  • (A) Cylindrical
  • (B) Equivalent
  • (C) Conical
  • (D) Azimuthal

Question 36:

Which attribute is not associated with digital maps?
 

  • (A) Colour
  • (B) Symbology
  • (C) South arrow
  • (D) Legends

Question 37:

Across track scanning systems are also called as _________ scanner systems.

  • (A) Push broom
  • (B) Lateral broom
  • (C) Pull broom
  • (D) Whisk broom

Question 38:

RISAT stands for _________.

  • (A) Radio Satellite
  • (B) Radio Navigation and Ranging Satellite
  • (C) Radar Imaging Satellite
  • (D) Reference system

Question 39:

Joint earth-observing mission between ISRO and NASA using advanced radar imaging system is known as ________.

  • (A) NASA-ISRO Systematic Radar Mission (NISAR)
  • (B) NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar (NISAR)
  • (C) NASA-ISRO Side-looking Aperture Radar (NISAR)
  • (D) NASA-ISRO Side-looking Aperture Radio (NISAR)

Question 40:

Instrument used for monitoring water levels in rivers/reservoirs from space is known as ________.

  • (A) Stadiometer or Satellite Stadiometer
  • (B) Altimeter or Satellite Altimeter
  • (C) Space Theodolite
  • (D) LISS

Question 41:

________ resolution defines the smallest difference of radiant energy detected by a sensor.

  • (1) Spectral resolution
  • (2) Radiometric resolution
  • (3) Temporal resolution
  • (4) Spatial resolution

Question 42:

Diffused reflection of solar radiation from earth’s surface is known as __________.

  • (1) Radiance
  • (2) Irradiance
  • (3) Albedo
  • (4) Reflectance

Question 43:

The energy quantum for radiation is proportional to its __________.

  • (1) Frequency
  • (2) Reciprocal of energy
  • (3) Square of frequency
  • (4) Square root of frequency

Question 44:

Output from a thermal sensor is a measurement of ________ temperature of an object.

  • (1) Kinetic
  • (2) Radiant
  • (3) Blackbody
  • (4) Infrared

Question 45:

Who is known as father of Indian Space Program?

  • (1) Prof. P. R. Pisharoty
  • (2) Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
  • (3) Dr. Homi J. Bhabha
  • (4) Prof. U. R. Rao

Question 46:

National Remote Sensing Day is celebrated on ________ every year.

  • (1) August 12
  • (2) June 5
  • (3) November 14
  • (4) August 15

Question 47:

Which colour of EM spectrum is used for bathymetry studies?

  • (1) Red
  • (2) UV
  • (3) SWIR
  • (4) Green

Question 48:

Rayleigh scattering occurs when particle size is _____ than wavelength of incoming radiation.

  • (1) very small
  • (2) equal
  • (3) not equal
  • (4) very big

Question 49:

The reflectance ________ with presence of moisture, surface roughness or organic content in soils.

  • (1) increases
  • (2) decreases
  • (3) remains same
  • (4) zero

Question 50:

In digital image processing, the ________ process adjusts translational and rotational alignment between two images.

  • (1) Registration
  • (2) Filtering
  • (3) Enhancement
  • (4) Processing

Question 51:

________ helps to transform a correlated dataset into uncorrelated dataset.

  • (1) Rationing
  • (2) Principal Component Analysis
  • (3) Fusion
  • (4) Classification

Question 52:

Rectification accuracy is expressed in terms of ________ error.

  • (1) Commission
  • (2) Root Mean Square
  • (3) Kappa
  • (4) Omission

Question 53:

Spectral region of electromagnetic radiation which passes through atmosphere without much attenuation is known as _________.

  • (1) Ozone hole
  • (2) Atmospheric window
  • (3) Ozone window
  • (4) Black hole

Question 54:

GIS ideally deals with _________.

  • (1) Numeric data
  • (2) Binary data
  • (3) Spatial data
  • (4) Complex data

Question 55:

SDI stands for

  • (1) Spatial Data Interface
  • (2) Spatial Data Infrastructure
  • (3) Spatial Data Intention
  • (4) Spatial Data International

Question 56:

________ defines the property of connectivity in GIS.

  • (1) Proximity
  • (2) Neighbourhood
  • (3) Topology
  • (4) Boolean Identity

Question 57:

Which of the following are true of AM/FM systems?

  • (1) The terms GIS and AM/FM are synonymous
  • (2) AM/FM are always vector based
  • (3) AM/FM is a specialized GIS
  • (4) AM/FM systems are always confined to the utility industry

Question 58:

India-WRIS is a portal for ________.

  • (1) Agricultural resources
  • (2) Water resources
  • (3) Forest resources
  • (4) Geological resources

Question 59:

________ is a type of vector data model.

  • (1) Spaghetti
  • (2) Spatial
  • (3) Raster
  • (4) Quadtree

Question 60:

The purpose of GIS data models is to ________.

  • (1) Generate random data structures
  • (2) Analyse and describe fictional features in GIS
  • (3) Represent real-world features in various forms like points, lines, arcs, and polygons
  • (4) Create abstract sculptures of real world

Question 61:

________ function is performed by data input/capture subsystem of GIS.

  • (1) Retrieval of data elements
  • (2) Storage of data elements
  • (3) Acquiring data
  • (4) Transformation of data

Question 62:

A network is a series of interconnecting lines along which there is a flow of ________.

  • (1) Entities
  • (2) Points
  • (3) Nodes
  • (4) Data

Question 63:

Which interpolation technique is not used for continuous data?

  • (1) Kriging
  • (2) Trend surface fitting
  • (3) Digitization
  • (4) Triangulation

Question 64:

What is the approximate radius of the Earth?

  • (1) 5,000 km
  • (2) 6,371 km
  • (3) 7,500 km
  • (4) 8,000 km

Question 65:

The Earth’s core is primarily made up of which two elements?

  • (1) Silicon and Oxygen
  • (2) Iron and Nickel
  • (3) Iron and Magnesium
  • (4) Nickel and Oxygen

Question 66:

Which of the following statements accurately describes the formation of an intrusive igneous rock?

  • (1) It forms from the rapid cooling of lava on the Earth's surface, resulting in fine-grained crystals.
  • (2) It forms from the compaction and cementation of sediments over millions of years.
  • (3) It forms from the slow cooling of magma beneath the Earth's surface, allowing for the development of large crystals.
  • (4) It forms from the transformation of existing rocks due to high temperatures and pressures.

Question 67:

Which one of the following are the two main constituents of granite?

  • (1) Iron and nickel
  • (2) Iron and silver
  • (3) Silica and aluminium
  • (4) Iron Oxide and potassium

Question 68:

Which of the following rocks is an intrusive igneous rock?

  • (1) Basalt
  • (2) Rhyolite
  • (3) Granite
  • (4) Pumice

Question 69:

Which rock type primarily forms from cooling of lava on Earth's surface?

  • (1) Plutonic igneous
  • (2) Volcanic igneous
  • (3) Metamorphic
  • (4) Clastic sedimentary

Question 70:

Which of the following is true about rocks?

  • (1) Rocks are composed of only one mineral.
  • (2) Rocks do not contain any non-mineral matter.
  • (3) Coal is not considered a true rock.
  • (4) Most rocks are a mixture of minerals.

Question 71:

A rock that forms from cooling lava is classified as an:

  • (1) Intrusive igneous rock
  • (2) Extrusive igneous rock
  • (3) Extrusive metamorphic rock
  • (4) Intrusive volcanic rock

Question 72:

Which environment is most favourable for the formation of metamorphic rocks?

  • (1) High pressure and high temperature
  • (2) Low pressure and low temperature
  • (3) High pressure and low temperature
  • (4) Surface weathering

Question 73:

Igneous rocks that crystallize from magma and are composed almost entirely of quartz and feldspars have a _________.

  • (1) Granitic composition
  • (2) Ultramafic composition
  • (3) Andesitic composition
  • (4) Basaltic composition

Question 74:

The mineral group that constitutes most of Earth's crust is _____.

  • (1) Carbonates
  • (2) Oxides
  • (3) Silicates
  • (4) Sulfides

Question 75:

Which of the following statements accurately distinguishes between a silicate and a non-silicate mineral?

  • (1) Silicate minerals are always harder than non-silicate minerals.
  • (2) Non-silicate minerals never contain oxygen in their chemical formula.
  • (3) Silicate minerals contain silicon and oxygen as major elements, while non-silicate minerals do not always contain both.
  • (4) Non-silicate minerals are always formed through biological processes.

Question 76:

Which instrument is primarily used to measure angles between lines of sight in surveying?

  • (1) A GPS receiver.
  • (2) A theodolite.
  • (3) A level.
  • (4) A clinometer.

Question 77:

Which type of aerial photograph is taken with the camera's optical axis directed vertically downward?

  • (1) An oblique photograph.
  • (2) A tilted photograph.
  • (3) A stereoscopic photograph.
  • (4) A vertical photograph.

Question 78:

Which of the following is NOT typically found as marginal information on a topographic sheet?

  • (1) The sheet name and number.
  • (2) The contour interval.
  • (3) The magnetic declination.
  • (4) The coordinates of specific landmarks within the mapped area.

Question 79:

Parallax in aerial photographs is an error due to \hspace{2cm}.

  • (1) Movement of camera and ground relief
  • (2) Overlap in photographs
  • (3) Distortion caused by camera lens
  • (4) Distortion due to lack of focus

Question 80:

In map projections, the Mercator projection is best suited for \hspace{2cm}.

  • (1) Polar regions
  • (2) Small-scale world maps
  • (3) Navigation purposes
  • (4) Land use planning

Question 81:

Which of the following is a key characteristic of a map projection?

  • (1) It accurately portrays the true shape of the Earth's surface.
  • (2) It preserves the scale and area of the map.
  • (3) It provides a 3D representation of the terrain.
  • (4) It distorts the Earth's shape to fit on a flat surface.

Question 82:

Which aerial photo format typically provides the largest area of coverage on a single photograph?

  • (1) Small format (e.g., 70mm)
  • (2) Medium format (e.g., 9 inches × 9 inches)
  • (3) Large format (e.g., 12 inches × 12 inches)
  • (4) Digital imagery with a small sensor size.

Question 83:

Which type of map projection is most likely to distort the shape of large landmasses?

  • (1) Cylindrical map projection.
  • (2) Conic map projection.
  • (3) Planar map projection.
  • (4) Gnomonic map projection.

Question 84:

The process of transforming and representing features from the Earth's curved surface onto a flat map is known as \hspace{1.5cm}.

  • (1) Geo-referencing.
  • (2) Cartography.
  • (3) Photogrammetry.
  • (4) Remote sensing.

Question 85:

In cartography, map generalization refers to the process of:

  • (1) Accurately representing every single feature on the ground at the map scale.
  • (2) Simplifying or omitting features on a map to maintain clarity and legibility at a reduced scale.
  • (3) Projecting geographic coordinates onto a flat map surface.
  • (4) Assigning colors and symbols to different features on a map.

Question 86:

The propagation of electromagnetic waves involves the interplay of oscillating:

  • (1) Electric and magnetic fields perpendicular to each other and the direction of propagation.
  • (2) Electric and gravitational fields parallel to each other and perpendicular to the direction of propagation.
  • (3) Magnetic and gravitational fields perpendicular to each other and parallel to the direction of propagation.
  • (4) Electric and magnetic fields parallel to each other and the direction of propagation.

Question 87:

Radiance is best defined as:

  • (1) Power per unit area
  • (2) Power per unit solid angle
  • (3) Power per unit area per unit solid angle
  • (4) Power per unit wavelength

Question 88:

Which of the following defines the spatial resolution of a sensor?

  • (1) Number of spectral bands
  • (2) Smallest object detectable on the ground
  • (3) Energy detection capacity
  • (4) Frequency of satellite revisits

Question 89:

Higher radiometric resolution means:

  • (1) Ability to distinguish finer wavelength differences
  • (2) Ability to detect small differences in energy
  • (3) Ability to capture more images per day
  • (4) Ability to detect larger objects

Question 90:

Along-track stereoscopic imaging involves __________.

  • (1) Two separate satellites imaging the same area
  • (2) Imaging the same area from different angles during the same orbit
  • (3) Successive orbits imaging the same area
  • (4) Using a microwave radar for 3D imaging

Question 91:

Which systematic error in digital image processing is caused by the Earth's rotation during image acquisition?

  • (1) Scan Skew
  • (2) Mirror-Scan Velocity
  • (3) Panoramic Distortion
  • (4) Earth Rotation

Question 92:

The ALOS satellite belongs to ________.

  • (1) Europe
  • (2) Japan
  • (3) Canada
  • (4) India

Question 93:

The Copernicus program for Earth Observation is run by ________.

  • (1) NASA
  • (2) JAXA
  • (3) ESA - European Space Agency
  • (4) ISRO

Question 94:

Which image enhancement technique stretches the range of pixel intensity values to cover the full dynamic range of display devices?

  • (1) Level slicing
  • (2) Contrast stretching
  • (3) Gray level thresholding
  • (4) Histogram equalization

Question 95:

The European Space Agency's primary Earth observation program is known as _______.

  • (1) ENVISAT/Sentinel
  • (2) JERS
  • (3) ALOS
  • (4) CBERS

Question 96:

For urban mapping requiring very detailed building footprints, the ideal satellite would provide _______.

  • (1) 30 m spatial resolution multispectral data
  • (2) 5 m spatial resolution panchromatic data
  • (3) 1 m or finer spatial resolution imagery
  • (4) 250 m spatial resolution MODIS data

Question 97:

What does spectral resolution refer to in remote sensing?

  • (1) Ability to detect different wavelengths of electromagnetic radiation
  • (2) Ability to distinguish between different features on the ground
  • (3) Ability to capture images at various times
  • (4) Ability to discern details within an image

Question 98:

Which of the following best describes a relational database structure commonly used in GIS?

  • (1) Data is organized in a tree-like hierarchy.
  • (2) Data elements are linked through predefined relationships, forming a network.
  • (3) Data is organized into tables with rows representing entities and columns representing attributes, with relationships established through keys.
  • (4) Spatial data and attribute data are stored in separate, unconnected files.

Question 99:

Raster data typically represents geographic phenomena as:

  • (1) Points, lines, and polygons.
  • (2) A grid of cells, each with an associated value.
  • (3) Topologically structured features with nodes and edges.
  • (4) A collection of attribute records linked to spatial coordinates.

Question 100:

A topological error where adjacent polygons overlap is called ________.

  • (1) Dangle
  • (2) Overshoot
  • (3) Gap
  • (4) Sliver

Question 101:

DEM files are critical in which GIS applications?

  • (1) Noise pollution mapping
  • (2) Surface water runoff modeling
  • (3) Soil pH mapping
  • (4) Land use categorization

Question 102:

In raster to vector conversion, errors typically occur because of ______.

  • (1) Topological inaccuracies
  • (2) Attribute duplication
  • (3) File compression
  • (4) Metadata loss

Question 103:

In the vector data model, an area is typically stored as ______.

  • (1) A single coordinate pair representing its centroid.
  • (2) A grid of cells covering its extent.
  • (3) A closed sequence of connected coordinate pairs forming a polygon.
  • (4) A series of disconnected line segments

Question 104:

TIN (Triangulated Irregular Network) sheeting is a method used to represent ______.

  • (1) Categorical spatial data.
  • (2) Continuous surface data using non-overlapping triangles.
  • (3) Linear features with associated attributes.
  • (4) Regularly spaced grid data

Question 105:

A common challenge in raster to vector conversion, especially when dealing with scanned maps, is ______.

  • (1) Loss of attribute information.
  • (2) Introduction of topological errors.
  • (3) Generalization and loss of detail in curved or complex features.
  • (4) Difficulty in assigning coordinate values.

Question 106:

Structured Query Language (SQL) is primarily used in GIS to ______.

  • (1) Perform spatial analysis operations.
  • (2) Manage and query attribute data stored in databases.
  • (3) Visualize spatial data in different map projections.
  • (4) Convert data between different file formats.

Question 107:

A GPS collected point dataset suffers from high horizontal error.
The best immediate action is:

  • (1) Increase the sampling interval
  • (2) Correct using differential GPS (DGPS)
  • (3) Rasterize the point data
  • (4) Smooth using TIN creation

Question 108:

In the context of GIS modeling, a conceptual model represents:

  • (1) The physical implementation of the database.
  • (2) A high-level, user-oriented understanding of the real-world phenomena and their relationships.
  • (3) The logical organization of data elements and their relationships within a database.
  • (4) The specific data structures and file formats used to store the data.

Question 109:

A key characteristic of object-oriented database models in GIS is their ability to:

  • (1) Only store spatial data efficiently.
  • (2) Represent both spatial and non-spatial data as objects with associated attributes and behaviors (methods).
  • (3) Organize data in a strictly hierarchical structure.
  • (4) Primarily handle raster data.

Question 110:

Recent trends in GIS applications include all EXCEPT:

  • (1) Mobile GIS
  • (2) Cloud-based GIS
  • (3) Real-time spatial analytics
  • (4) Paper-based cartography

Question 111:

In GIS, what is the function of a topology rule?

  • (1) To enforce spatial relationships between features
  • (2) To define the spatial extent of a dataset
  • (3) To specify the coordinate system of a map
  • (4) To categorize features based on attributes

Question 112:

In the context of hydrological modeling within GIS, a Digital Elevation Model (DEM) is crucial for:

  • (1) Determining soil texture and permeability.
  • (2) Estimating evapotranspiration rates.
  • (3) Delineating watersheds and analyzing flow direction.
  • (4) Measuring rainfall intensity directly.

Question 113:

If \( A \) and \( B \) are two non-zero square matrices of same size such that the product matrix \( AB \) is a zero matrix, then which of the following must be true?

  • (1) Both \( A \) and \( B \) are invertible
  • (2) At least one of \( A \) or \( B \) is singular
  • (3) \( A + B \) is invertible
  • (4) \( A \) and \( B \) must be symmetric matrices

Question 114:

Consider the system of equations: \[ \begin{aligned} x + y + z &= 6
2x + 2y + 3z &= 13
3x + 4y + 5z &= 20 \end{aligned} \]
Which of the following statements is true about the solution to this system?

  • (1) The system has a unique solution.
  • (2) The system has no solution.
  • (3) The system has infinitely many solutions.
  • (4) The system has finitely many solutions but not unique.

Question 115:

Let \( f: \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R} \) be a function such that \( f(0) = 3 \) and \( |f'(x)| \leq 2 \), \( \forall x \in \mathbb{R} \). Then \( f(2) \) lies in which of the following intervals?

  • (1) \([-2, 5]\)
  • (2) \([0, 8]\)
  • (3) \([3, 8]\)
  • (4) \([-1, 7]\)

Question 116:

The directional derivative of the function \( f(x, y) = 2x^2 + y^2 \)
along a line directed from \( (0, 0) \) to \( (1, 1) \), evaluated at the point \( x = 1, y = 1 \), is \underline{\hspace{2cm

  • (1) \( 6\sqrt{2} \)
  • (2) \( 2\sqrt{2} \)
  • (3) \( 3\sqrt{2} \)
  • (4) \( 6 \)

Question 117:

Given \( f(z) = \dfrac{-z}{(z - 2)^2} \), which of the following is the Laurent series expansion of \( f(z) \) around \( z = 2 \)?

  • (1) \( f(z) = \dfrac{1}{(z - 2)} + \dfrac{1}{(z - 2)^2} \)
  • (2) \( f(z) = \dfrac{2}{(z - 2)} + \dfrac{z}{(z - 2)^2} \)
  • (3) \( f(z) = \dfrac{z}{(z - 2)^2} \)
  • (4) \( f(z) = \dfrac{1}{(z - 2)} + \dfrac{2}{(z - 2)^2} \)

Question 118:

A complex function \( f(z) = u + iv \) with \( u = \operatorname{Re}(z) + \operatorname{Im}(z) \) is analytic if \( v = \) ________

  • (1) \( v = \operatorname{Re}(z) + \operatorname{Im}(z) + c \), where \( c \) is an arbitrary constant
  • (2) \( v = -\operatorname{Re}(z) + \operatorname{Im}(z) + c \), where \( c \) is an arbitrary constant
  • (3) \( v = \operatorname{Re}(z) - \operatorname{Im}(z) + c \), where \( c \) is an arbitrary constant
  • (4) \( v = -\operatorname{Re}(z) - \operatorname{Im}(z) + c \), where \( c \) is an arbitrary constant

Question 119:

Let \( f(x) = x^3 - \dfrac{9}{2}x^2 + 6x - 2 \) be a function defined on the closed interval \( [0, 3] \). Then, the global maximum value of \( f(x) \) is

  • (1) 4.5
  • (2) 0.5
  • (3) 2.5
  • (4) 3.0

Question 120:

In a town, the probability that a person attends a gym on weekdays is 0.7, the probability that a person attends the gym on weekends is 0.4, and the probability that a person attends the gym on weekdays or weekends, or both is 0.3. What is the probability that a person attends the gym on both weekdays and weekends?

  • (1) 0.6
  • (2) 0.7
  • (3) 0.8
  • (4) 0.9

Question 121:

In a workshop of 100 machines, 25 machines are defective. Assuming the Poisson law for the number of defective machines, the probability that a random sample of 5 machines will have no defective machine is

  • (1) \( e^{-0.25} \)
  • (2) \( 0.25\, e^{-0.25} \)
  • (3) \( 0.25\, e^{-1.25} \)
  • (4) \( e^{-1.25} \)

Question 122:

Let \( A, B \) be two events of a sample space such that \( P(A) = \frac{1}{4} \), \( P(B|A) = \frac{1}{2} \), \( P(A|B) = \frac{1}{4} \). If \( \overline{B} \) is the complement of \( B \), then \( P(A | \overline{B}) \) is _____

  • (1) \( \dfrac{3}{4} \)
  • (2) \( \dfrac{1}{4} \)
  • (3) \( \dfrac{1}{3} \)
  • (4) \( \dfrac{2}{3} \)