CLAT 2009 Common Question paper with answer key pdf conducted on May 31, 2009 in Afternoon Session 3:00 PM to 5:00 PM is available for download. The exam was successfully organized by Rajiv Gandhi National Law University. In terms of difficulty level, CLAT was of Easy to Moderate level. The question paper comprised a total of 200 questions divided among five sections.

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CLAT 2009 Common Question Paper with Solution PDF

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CLAT 2009 Question Paper with solution

Question 1:

Directions (1 to 10): Read the given passage carefully and answer file questions that follow.

There is a fairly universal sentiment that the use of nuclear weapons is clearly contrary to morality and that its production
probably so, dues not go far enough. These activities are not only opposed to morality but also to law if the legal objection can be added to the moral, the argument against the use and the manufacture of these weapons will considerably be reinforced. Now the time is ripe to evaluate the responsibility of scientists who knowingly use their expertise for the construction of such weapons, which has deleterious effect on mankind.

To this must be added the fact that more than 50 percent of the skilled scientific manpower in the world is now engaged in the armaments industry. How appropriate it is that all this valuable skill should be devoted to the manufacture of weapons of death in a world of poverty is a question that must touch the scientific conscience.

A meeting of biologists on the Long Term Worldwide Biological consequences of nuclear war added frightening dimension to those forecasts. Its report suggested that the long biological effects resulting from climatic changes may at least be as serious as the immediate ones. Sub freezing temperatures, low light levels, and high doses of ionizing and ultraviolet radiation extending for many months after a large scale nuclear war could destroy the biological support system of civilization, at least in the Northern hemisphere. Productivity in natural and agricultural ecosystem could be severely restricted for a year or more.

Post war survivors would face starvation as well as freezing conditions in the dark and be exposed to near lethal doses of radiation. If, as now seems possible, the, Southern Hemisphere were affected also, global disruption of the biosphere could ensue. In any event, there would be severe consequences, even in the areas not affected directly, because of the inter dependence of the world economy. In either case the extinction of a large fraction of the earth's animals, plants and microorganism seems possible. The population size of Homo sapiens conceivably could be reduced to prehistoric levels or below, and extinction of human species itself cannot be excluded.

1.Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word, printed in bold as used in the passage Deleterious.

  • (a) Beneficial
  • (b) harmful
  • (c) Irreparable
  • (d) Non cognizable
Correct Answer: (a) Beneficial
View Solution




The word "deleterious" in the passage describes the harmful effect of weapons on mankind.

Among the options, "harmful" is a synonym, not an opposite. "Irreparable" and "non cognizable" do not directly oppose the sense.

"Beneficial" is the direct opposite of "deleterious".

Hence the correct option is (a) Beneficial. Quick Tip: When asked for an antonym, first substitute the bold word with a simple synonym from the sentence and then pick the option that conveys the opposite of that synonym.


Question 2:

The author's most important objective of writing the above passage seems to………….

  • (a) Highlight the use of nuclear weapons as a collective population control measures
  • (b) Illustrate the devastating effects of use of nuclear weapons on mankind.
  • (c) Duly highlight the supremacy of the nations which possess nuclear weapons.
  • (d) Summarise the long biological effects of use of nuclear weapons.
Correct Answer:(b) Illustrate the devastating effects of use of nuclear weapons on mankind.
View Solution



Read the passage's central theme — it repeatedly emphasises moral, legal and especially biological/ecological consequences of nuclear weapons.

Options (d) and (b) are close: (d) is narrower (summarise long biological effects) while (b) captures the broader intent — to illustrate devastating effects on mankind (moral, legal, biological, societal).

The passage opens with moral/legal objections, then details biological/ecosystem impacts and societal consequences — confirming the author's aim to highlight devastation.

Hence the best choice is (b). Quick Tip: Look for the writer's main thrust across the whole passage (opening + supporting paragraphs) rather than a single paragraph when choosing author's intent.


Question 3:

The scientists engaged in manufacturing destructive weapons are ……………….
 

  • (a) Very few in number
  • (b) Irresponsible and incompetent
  • (c) More than half of the total number
  • (d) Engaged in the armaments industry against their desire
Correct Answer:(c) More than half of the total number
View Solution



The passage explicitly states that "more than 50 percent of the skilled scientific manpower in the world is now engaged in the armaments industry."

This maps directly to option (c). Other options contradict or are not supported by the passage.

Hence the correct answer is (c). Quick Tip: When a factual detail is asked, scan for exact figures or clear statements in the passage — the correct option usually mirrors the sentence closely.


Question 4:

According to the passage, the argument on use and manufacture of nuclear weapons

  • (a) Does not stand the test of legality
  • (b) Possesses legal strength although it does not have moral standing
  • (c) Is acceptable only on moral grounds
  • (d) Becomes stronger if legal and moral considerations are combined
Correct Answer:(d) Becomes stronger if legal and moral considerations are combined
View Solution



The passage says that these activities are opposed to morality and also to law — and that "if the legal objection can be added to the moral, the argument against the use and the manufacture of these weapons will considerably be reinforced."

That sentence directly supports (d): combining legal and moral objections makes the argument stronger.

Hence the correct answer is (d). Quick Tip: Pick the option that most closely paraphrases a clear line from the passage when the question is about the author's assertion.


Question 5:

The author of the passage seems to be of the view that

  • (a) Utilization of scientific skills in manufacture of weapons is appropriate
  • (b) Manufacture of weapons of death would help eradication of poverty
  • (c) Spending money on manufacture of weapons may be justifiable subject to the availability of funds
  • (d) Utilization of valuable knowledge for manufacture of lethal weapons is inhuman
Correct Answer:(d) Utilization of valuable knowledge for manufacture of lethal weapons is inhuman
View Solution



The passage repeatedly condemns diverting scientific skill to armaments and calls the effects "deleterious" and "lethal", raising moral concerns about such use of knowledge.

Options (a), (b), (c) support or justify weapon manufacture — contrary to the passage's critical stance. Option (d) captures the author's moral rejection that using valuable knowledge to make lethal weapons is inhumane.

Hence the correct choice is (d). Quick Tip: For attitude/stance questions, summarise the passage's tone (critical/supportive/neutral) then choose the option matching that tone.


Question 6:

Which of the following is one of the consequences of nuclear war?

  • (a) Fertility of land will last for a year or so.
  • (b) Post war survivors being very few will have abundant food.
  • (c) Lights would be cooler and more comfortable.
  • (d) Southern Hemisphere would remain quite safe in the post war period.
Correct Answer:(a) Fertility of land will last for a year or so.
View Solution



Locate the relevant sentence: the passage says "Productivity in natural and agricultural ecosystem could be severely restricted for a year or more."

That line indicates agricultural fertility/productivity would be affected for about a year or more after a large-scale nuclear war.

Option (a) is the only choice that refers to a one-year timescale for land/agricultural condition and therefore (despite brief awkward wording) is the statement linked to the passage's claim about the duration of post-war agricultural impact.

Step 4: Options (b) and (c) directly contradict the passage (the passage predicts starvation and low light levels, not abundant food or "cool comfortable" lights) and (d) is contradicted by the line saying the Southern Hemisphere might also be affected.

Hence the most appropriate choice is (a). Quick Tip: Match time-frames and keywords: when the passage mentions "for a year or more" or similar phrases, prefer the option that echoes that timeframe even if the option's wording is slightly awkward.


Question 7:

Which of the following best explains the word devoted, as used in the passage?

  • (a) Dedicated for a good cause
  • (b) Utilized for betterment
  • (c) Abused for destruction
  • (d) Underutilized
Correct Answer:(c) Abused for destruction
View Solution



Examine the sentence: "How appropriate it is that all this valuable skill should be devoted to the manufacture of weapons of death..." — here "devoted to" describes allocation of valuable skill toward weapon production.

The context is critical/negative: skills are being put to harmful ends (manufacture of "weapons of death"), so the sense is that they are being misapplied or abused for destruction.

Option (c) "Abused for destruction" best fits this negative sense. Options (a) and (b) are positive senses (dedicated/for betterment) and (d) "Underutilized" does not capture the sense of being put to harmful use.

Hence the correct choice is (c). Quick Tip: Always read the immediate context around the target word — positive/negative tone in the sentence will usually tell you which meaning is intended.


Question 8:

The biological consequences of nuclear war as given in the passage include all the following, except

  • (a) Fall in temperature below zero degree Celsius
  • (b) Ultraviolet radiation
  • (c) High doses of ionizing
  • (d) Abundant food for smaller population
Correct Answer:(d) Abundant food for smaller population
View Solution



The passage lists specific biological consequences: "Sub freezing temperatures, low light levels, and high doses of ionizing and ultraviolet radiation extending for many months..." — this supports (a), (b) and (c).

The passage further predicts "Post war survivors would face starvation..." which contradicts the idea of abundant food.

Therefore the statement that biological consequences include "abundant food for smaller population" is not given by the passage and is the exception.

Hence the correct answer is (d). Quick Tip: For 'except' questions, first mark all items explicitly mentioned in the passage — the remaining option is the correct choice.


Question 9:

It appears from the passage that the use of nuclear weapons is considered against morality by

  • (a) Only such of those nations who cannot afford to manufacture and sell weapons
  • (b) Almost all the nations of the word
  • (c) Only the superpowers who can afford to manufacture and sell weapons
  • (d) Most of the scientists devote their valuable skills to manufacture nuclear weapons.
Correct Answer:(b) Almost all the nations of the word
View Solution



The passage begins with: "There is a fairly universal sentiment that the use of nuclear weapons is clearly contrary to morality..." — "fairly universal" indicates a widespread (nearly global) moral objection.

Option (b) paraphrases this idea ("Almost all the nations of the world") and therefore best matches the passage.

Options (a) and (c) restrict the view to certain nations (not supported by "universal"), and (d) is a factual statement about scientists, not about who considers the weapons immoral.

Hence the correct answer is (b). Quick Tip: Words like "universal", "widely", "generally" in the passage point to answers that indicate majority or near-global views.


Question 10:

Which of the following statements I, II, III and IV is definitely true in the context of the passage?

  • (I) There is every likelihood of survival of the human species as a consequence of nuclear war.
  • (a) I
  • (b) III
  • (c) II
  • (d) IV
Correct Answer:(d) IV
View Solution



Check statement (I) — the passage warns extinction is possible and that human population "could be reduced to prehistoric levels or below, and extinction of human species itself cannot be excluded." So (I) is false.

Check (II) — the passage treats risks and harmful effects seriously (not as exaggerated), so (II) is false.

Check (III) — the passage says survivors "would face starvation ... and be exposed to near lethal doses of radiation" — not benefits of non-lethal radiation; (III) is false.

Step 4: Check (IV) — the passage explicitly says there "would be severe consequences, even in the areas not affected directly, because of the inter dependence of the world economy," so living organisms in indirectly affected areas would also suffer — (IV) is true.

Hence the only definitely true statement is (IV), so select (d). Quick Tip: For multi-statement items, check each statement against explicit lines in the passage — mark true/false and pick the option containing the definitely true statement(s).


Question 11:

Three of the four words given below are spelt wrong. Identify the correctly spelt one.

  • (a) renaissance
  • (b) renaisance
  • (c) renaiscence
  • (d) renaisence
Correct Answer:(a) renaissance
View Solution



The correct spelling of the word referring to the European cultural revival period is renaissance.

Options (b), (c), and (d) contain common misspellings with omitted or incorrect letters.

Hence the correct choice is (a). Quick Tip: For spelling questions, visual familiarity with commonly used foreign-derived words like \textit{renaissance helps in quickly eliminating wrong options.


Question 12:

Three of the four words given below are spelt wrong. Identify the correctly spelt one.

  • (a) malaese
  • (b) melaize
  • (c) melaise
  • (d) malaise
Correct Answer: (d) malaise
View Solution



The correct spelling of the term meaning discomfort or unease is malaise.

Options (a), (b), and (c) contain extra or misplaced vowels/letters.

Thus, (d) is the correct spelling. Quick Tip: Break tricky spellings into syllables: \textit{ma-laise helps remember the correct sequence.


Question 13:

Three of the four words given below are spelt wrong. Identify the correctly spelt one.

  • (a) irelevant
  • (b) irrelevant
  • (c) irrelvant
  • (d) irrellavant
Correct Answer: (b) irrelevant
View Solution



The correct spelling meaning "not related to" is irrelevant.

All other options have incorrect doubling, missing letters, or misplaced vowels.

Hence, the answer is (b). Quick Tip: For words with common prefixes like \textit{ir- and in-, focus on preserving the base spelling after the prefix.


Question 14:

Three of the four words given below are spelt wrong. Identify the correctly spelt one.

  • (a) survilance
  • (b) surveillance
  • (c) surveilance
  • (d) surveilllance
Correct Answer: (b) surveillance
View Solution



The correct spelling for monitoring or close observation is surveillance.

The double “l” after “veil” is important to note. Options (a), (c), and (d) deviate from the correct form.

Thus, the correct choice is (b). Quick Tip: Visualize the root word “veil” in \textit{surveillance to avoid misspelling.


Question 15:

Three of the four words given below are spelt wrong. Identify the correctly spelt one.

  • (a) gaiety
  • (b) gaiety
  • (c) gaeity
  • (d) gaitty
Correct Answer: (a) gaiety
View Solution



The correct spelling for cheerfulness or merriment is \textit{gaiety.

All other options insert extra letters or alter vowel placement.

Therefore, the answer is (a). Quick Tip: Some words replace “-y” with “-ety” when forming nouns — memorizing such transformations prevents errors.


Question 16:

Mala fide

  • (a) in good faith
  • (b) in bad faith
  • (c) without any faith
  • (d) with full faith
Correct Answer: (b) in bad faith
View Solution



\textit{Mala fide is a Latin term where “mala” means bad and “fide” means faith.

Together, it literally translates to “in bad faith,” often referring to dishonest or fraudulent intent.

Therefore, option (b) is correct. Quick Tip: For foreign phrases, break them into their root meanings. Latin legal terms are common in CLAT and other competitive exams.


Question 17:

Pro rata

  • (a) at the rate of
  • (b) at quoted rate
  • (c) in proportion
  • (d) beyond all proportion
Correct Answer: (c) in proportion
View Solution



\textit{Pro rata is Latin for “according to the rate” or “in proportion.”

It is commonly used in finance, law, and employment contexts to indicate proportional allocation.

Thus, (c) correctly captures its meaning. Quick Tip: If a phrase has “pro,” think of “for” or “according to,” which can hint at proportional meaning.


Question 18:

Vice versa

  • (a) in verse
  • (b) versatile verse
  • (c) in consonance with
  • (d) the other way round
Correct Answer: (d) the other way round
View Solution



\textit{Vice versa is Latin meaning “the position being reversed” or “conversely.”

It is used when the two parts of a statement can be interchanged.

Option (d) gives the exact sense. Quick Tip: Link “vice” with “switch” in your mind — it helps recall the reversal idea in “vice versa.”


Question 19:

Ab initio

  • (a) from the very beginning
  • (b) high initiative
  • (c) things done later
  • (d) without initiative
Correct Answer: (a) from the very beginning
View Solution



\textit{Ab initio is Latin, where “ab” means “from” and “initio” means “beginning.”

It is often used in legal contexts to indicate something valid or invalid from the start.

Hence, (a) is correct. Quick Tip: Latin phrases often break down logically — “initio” sounds like “initiate,” meaning start.


Question 20:

Alibi

  • (a) every where
  • (b) else where
  • (c) no where
  • (d) without any excuse
Correct Answer: (b) else where
View Solution



\textit{Alibi is Latin for “elsewhere.”

In legal contexts, it refers to proof that a person was at another place when an alleged act occurred.

Therefore, (b) is the correct choice. Quick Tip: For memory, think: “An alibi places you elsewhere” — both literally and legally.


Question 21:

To give the game away

  • (a) To lose the game
  • (b) To give a walk over in a game
  • (c) To reveal the secret
  • (d) To play the game badly
Correct Answer: (c) To reveal the secret
View Solution



The idiom “to give the game away” means to reveal a secret or a plan, intentionally or unintentionally.

It has nothing to do with literally losing or playing a game.

Therefore, (c) is the most accurate meaning.
Quick Tip: For idioms, focus on the figurative meaning rather than literal interpretation.


Question 22:

To cool one's heels

  • (a) To close the chapter
  • (b) To walk on high heels
  • (c) To kick someone with the heels
  • (d) To wait and rest for some time
Correct Answer: (d) To wait and rest for some time
View Solution



“To cool one’s heels” refers to being kept waiting, often before being attended to.

It originates from the idea of letting your heels cool while standing or sitting idly.

Hence, (d) is correct.
Quick Tip: Visualising the idiom literally can sometimes help remember its figurative meaning.


Question 23:

To bury the hatchet

  • (a) To fight with the hatchet
  • (b) To let get the enmity
  • (c) To bury the treasure underground
  • (d) To pick up enmity
Correct Answer: (b) To let get the enmity
View Solution



“To bury the hatchet” means to end a conflict or make peace.

The phrase has Native American origins, where burying weapons signified the end of hostilities.

Thus, (b) is the correct choice.
Quick Tip: When an idiom sounds violent but involves “burying,” it often means ending hostility.


Question 24:

Gift of the gab

  • (a) Gift for hard work
  • (b) Gift undeserved
  • (c) Gift of being a good conversationalist
  • (d) Gift from unknown person
Correct Answer: (c) Gift of being a good conversationalist
View Solution



“Gift of the gab” refers to the ability to speak easily, fluently, and persuasively.

It implies strong verbal skills rather than a literal present.

Therefore, (c) is correct.
Quick Tip: Link “gab” with “gabble” (talk) to remember its connection to speaking ability.


Question 25:

To smell a rat

  • (a) To suspect a trick
  • (b) To detect a foul smell
  • (c) To behave like a rat
  • (d) To trust blindly
Correct Answer: (a) To suspect a trick
View Solution



“To smell a rat” means to sense something suspicious or deceitful.

It does not literally involve rodents — it’s about detecting dishonesty.

Hence, (a) is correct.
Quick Tip: Associate “rat” with treachery in stories — spotting a “rat” means spotting betrayal.


Question 26:

Some people believe that in emotional maturity men are inferior __________ women.

  • (a) Than
  • (b) To
  • (c) From
  • (d) Against
Correct Answer: (b) To
View Solution



The comparative structure “inferior to” is the correct collocation in English grammar.

Other prepositions such as “than” are used with adjectives like “better” or “worse,” but “inferior” pairs with “to.”

Therefore, “to” correctly completes the sentence.
Quick Tip: Remember: “inferior,” “superior,” “junior,” and “senior” are followed by “to,” not “than.”


Question 27:

My father was annoyed __________ me.

  • (a) Towards
  • (b) Against
  • (c) With
  • (d) Upon
Correct Answer: (c) With
View Solution



The common usage is “annoyed with a person” and “annoyed at/about a situation.”

Since “me” refers to a person, the preposition “with” is correct.

Other prepositions like “towards” or “upon” are not idiomatic in this context.
Quick Tip: Link “annoyed with” to people and “annoyed at/about” to things or situations.


Question 28:

Some orthodox persons are averse __________ drinking liquor.

  • (a) Against
  • (b) For
  • (c) Towards
  • (d) To
Correct Answer: (d) To
View Solution



The adjective “averse” is always followed by “to” when expressing opposition to something.

“Averse to” means “having a strong dislike for.”

Therefore, “to” is the correct choice.
Quick Tip: Don’t confuse “averse to” (dislike) with “adverse to” (unfavourable towards).


Question 29:

The Cinema Hall was on fire and the Cinema owner had to send __________ the fire Brigade.

  • (a) For
  • (b) Through
  • (c) Off
  • (d) In
Correct Answer: (a) For
View Solution



The phrase “send for” means to request someone to come, usually for help.

In emergencies, we “send for” the doctor, police, or fire brigade.

Therefore, “for” is correct here.
Quick Tip: “Send for” = summon someone; “send to” = dispatch someone.


Question 30:

She was not listening __________ I was saying.

  • (a) That
  • (b) Which
  • (c) To what
  • (d) What
Correct Answer: (c) To what
View Solution



The correct construction is “listen to” + object.

Here, “what I was saying” acts as the object, so “to what” is grammatically correct.

Therefore, “to what” fits both meaning and structure.
Quick Tip: Listening always takes “to” before the object in standard English.


Question 31:

Drinking country liquor in marriage is a custom __________ certain tribes.

  • (a) In
  • (b) Among
  • (c) Between
  • (d) With
Correct Answer: (b) Among
View Solution



“Among” is used for more than two people or groups; “between” is for two.

Since “certain tribes” refers to multiple groups, “among” is correct.

Thus, option (b) fits the context.
Quick Tip: Among = more than two; Between = exactly two.


Question 32:

The struggle for justice brings __________ the best of moral qualities of men.

  • (a) Forward
  • (b) About
  • (c) In
  • (d) Out
Correct Answer: (d) Out
View Solution



The phrasal verb “bring out” means to reveal or highlight.

Here, the struggle reveals moral qualities, so “out” is correct.

Other options change the intended meaning.
Quick Tip: “Bring out” = reveal; “bring about” = cause something to happen.


Question 33:

If he __________ a horse he would fly.

  • (a) Was
  • (b) Were
  • (c) Is
  • (d) Goes
Correct Answer: (b) Were
View Solution



This is a subjunctive mood sentence, used for hypothetical situations.

In the subjunctive, “were” is used instead of “was” after “if” for all persons.

Therefore, “were” is correct.
Quick Tip: In unreal or hypothetical “if” clauses, always use “were” regardless of the subject.


Question 34:

Mohan has a bad habit of __________ at an odd hour.

  • (a) Turning up
  • (b) Turning in
  • (c) Turning over
  • (d) Turning off
Correct Answer: (b) Turning in
View Solution



“Turning in” is an informal phrase meaning to go to bed or sleep.

“At an odd hour” fits naturally with sleeping late or unusually.

Hence, “turning in” is the correct choice.
Quick Tip: Turning in = going to bed; Turning up = arriving; Turning off = switching off.


Question 35:

He must refrain __________ immoral conducts.

  • (a) Or
  • (b) Through
  • (c) From
  • (d) Against
Correct Answer: (c) From
View Solution



The verb “refrain” is always followed by “from” when meaning to abstain.

“Refrain from” + noun/verb-ing is standard usage.

Therefore, “from” is correct here.
Quick Tip: Refrain from = avoid doing something; Abstain from = deliberately not do something.


Question 36:

Directions (36 to 40): The constituent sentence of a passage have been jumbled up. Read jumbled sentences carefully and then choose the option which shows the best sequence of sentences of the passage.
The Collector said that the Dams should receive —

  • (a) ii, i, iv, iii
  • (b) i, iii, iv, ii
  • (c) iv, i, iii, ii
  • (d) ii, i, iv, iii
Correct Answer: (a) ii, i, iv, iii
View Solution



Sentence (ii) “Water up to a particular levels” introduces the core requirement.

Follow with (i) “To ensure uninterrupted” — this gives the purpose.

Then (iv) “Supply of water for irrigation” completes the purpose.

Step 4: Finally, (iii) provides the detail — the specific use.

Hence, the logical sequence is (ii, i, iv, iii). Quick Tip: When ordering jumbled sentences, start by identifying the subject introduction, follow with the reason or action, and end with elaborations or consequences.


Question 37:

Arrange the sentences to form a coherent passage —

  • (a) ii, i, iii, iv
  • (b) i, iv, ii, iii
  • (c) iv, i, iii, ii
  • (d) ii, iv, i, iii
Correct Answer: (a) ii, i, iii, iv
View Solution



Sentence (ii) “He wore a long, loose shirt...” sets the visual introduction.

Sentence (i) “He loved to distribute them among small kids” adds his action.

Sentence (iii) “And in doing so his eyes brightened” shows the emotional reaction.

Step 4: Sentence (iv) “The pockets of his shin bulged...” provides descriptive detail.

Hence, sequence is (ii, i, iii, iv). Quick Tip: Look for descriptive openings, then place action, emotional response, and details in that order.


Question 38:

Arrange the sentences to form a coherent passage —

  • (a) i, iii, ii, iv
  • (b) i, iv, ii, iii
  • (c) iv, i, iii, ii
  • (d) ii, iv, i, iii
Correct Answer: (a) i, iii, ii, iv
View Solution



Sentence (i) “As we all know, a legislation” introduces the subject.

Sentence (iii) “Passed by the Houses of Parliament” continues the idea.

Sentence (ii) “Needs the assent of the President” shows the next legal requirement.

Step 4: Sentence (iv) “To become law” concludes the process.

Thus, the logical order is (i, iii, ii, iv). Quick Tip: Procedural sequences typically move from introduction, intermediate steps, and end with the final outcome.


Question 39:

Arrange the sentences to form a coherent passage —

  • (a) ii, i, iv, iii
  • (b) i, iv, ii, iii
  • (c) i, iv, iii, ii
  • (d) ii, iv, i, iii
Correct Answer: (c) i, iv, iii, ii
View Solution



Sentence (i) “The farmers grow food for the whole country” introduces the main fact.

Sentence (iv) “Hence they are the most useful members...” logically follows.

Sentence (iii) “Yet these fellows are exploited by the rich” contrasts their value with their plight.

Step 4: Sentence (ii) “And therefore it is our duty...” concludes with a moral responsibility.

Thus, the correct sequence is (i, iv, iii, ii). Quick Tip: Contrast structures often follow: value → recognition → problem → call to action.


Question 40:

Arrange the sentences to form a coherent passage —

  • (a) ii, i, iv, iii
  • (b) ii, iv, iii, i
  • (c) iv, i, iii, ii
  • (d) iv, ii, i, iii
Correct Answer: (a) ii, i, iv, iii
View Solution



Sentence (ii) “We went to the pond” introduces the setting.

Sentence (i) “The ripples looked enchanting...” adds visual description.

Sentence (iv) “We stood knee deep...” gives the physical action.

Step 4: Sentence (iii) “We flung stones to create ripples” concludes with the playful act.

Thus, the sequence is (ii, i, iv, iii).


% quick Tip Quick Tip: In narrative sequencing, establish place, describe, add immersive actions, and then end with a key event.


Question 41:

Capital market means

  • (a) Mutual Funds
  • (b) Money Market
  • (c) Securities Market
  • (d) Banking Business
Correct Answer:(c) Securities Market
View Solution



The capital market refers to financial markets for buying and selling equity and debt instruments.

It is distinct from the money market, which deals with short-term funds.

Securities Market is the correct term encompassing both stock and bond markets — the main components of the capital market.

Hence, the correct choice is (c). Quick Tip: Capital markets handle long-term funds; money markets deal with short-term borrowing and lending.


Question 42:

From which river would the National River Project be started?

  • (a) Yamuna
  • (b) Gomti
  • (c) Ganga
  • (d) Krishna
Correct Answer:(c) Ganga
View Solution



The National River Project refers to initiatives aimed at conservation and cleaning of a designated river.

The Government of India launched the ``National River Ganga'' project as the flagship program for rejuvenation.

Hence, the correct answer is (c) Ganga. Quick Tip: Remember: Ganga is India’s only river to have been declared the National River.


Question 43:

``The Audacity of Hope'' is a book written by

  • (a) Bill Clinton
  • (b) Barack Obama
  • (c) George Bush
  • (d) Bill Gates
Correct Answer: (b) Barack Obama
View Solution



``The Audacity of Hope'' is a political book published in 2006 by then U.S. Senator Barack Obama.

The book outlines his political beliefs and vision for America.

The other options are well-known figures but are not connected to this title.

Hence, the correct choice is (b). Quick Tip: Link authors to their notable works for quick recall in exams.


Question 44:

``WPI'' is used as an acronym for

  • (a) World Price Index
  • (b) World Price Indicators
  • (c) Wholesale Price Index
  • (d) Wholesale Price Indicators
Correct Answer: (c) Wholesale Price Index
View Solution



WPI measures the average change in the price of goods at the wholesale stage.

It is a key economic indicator used to track inflation trends.

Therefore, the correct choice is (c). Quick Tip: WPI focuses on bulk transactions; CPI measures retail prices.


Question 45:

If the tax rate increases with the higher level of income, it shall be called

  • (a) Progressive Tax
  • (b) Proportional Tax
  • (c) Lump sum Tax
  • (d) Regressive Tax
Correct Answer: (a) Progressive Tax
View Solution



In a progressive tax system, the tax rate increases as income increases.

This system aims to reduce income inequality.

The other options either keep the rate fixed or inversely related to income.

Hence, the correct choice is (a). Quick Tip: Progressive taxes impose a higher rate on higher income brackets.


Question 46:

Who is the Director of ``Chak De India''?

  • (a) Shimit Amin
  • (b) Yash Chopra
  • (c) Shahrukh Khan
  • (d) Ram Gopal Verma
Correct Answer: (a) Shimit Amin
View Solution



``Chak De India'' is a sports drama film released in 2007.

It was directed by Shimit Amin and starred Shahrukh Khan in the lead role.

The other names are well-known filmmakers or actors, but not the director of this film.

Hence, the correct choice is (a). Quick Tip: Don’t confuse lead actors with directors — check the film credits.


Question 47:

What is the full form of the scanning technique CAT?

  • (a) Complete Anatomical Trepanning
  • (b) Computerized Automatic Therapy
  • (c) Computerized Axial Tomography
  • (d) Complete Axial Transmission
Correct Answer: (c) Computerized Axial Tomography
View Solution



CAT scan is an imaging procedure using computer-processed combinations of X-ray measurements.

It produces cross-sectional images of the body.

The correct expansion is Computerized Axial Tomography.

Hence, the correct choice is (c). Quick Tip: CAT scans are commonly used for detecting internal injuries and diagnosing diseases.


Question 48:

Who got the World Food Prize?

  • (a) Kofi Annan
  • (b) Man Mohan Singh
  • (c) Hillary Clinton
  • (d) Bhumibol Adulyadej
Correct Answer: (a) Kofi Annan
View Solution



The World Food Prize honors individuals who advance human development by improving food quality, quantity, or availability.

Kofi Annan, former UN Secretary-General, received the award in 2012 for his role in promoting sustainable agriculture in Africa.

The other options are notable leaders but did not receive this specific award.

Hence, the correct choice is (a). Quick Tip: Link awards with recipients’ major contributions for better retention.


Question 49:

ISO 9000 is a

  • (a) Quality Standard Mark
  • (b) Space Project
  • (c) Trade Technique
  • (d) Loan Security
Correct Answer: (a) Quality Standard Mark
View Solution



ISO 9000 is a set of international standards for quality management and assurance.

It helps organisations consistently meet customer and regulatory requirements.

It is not related to space projects, trade techniques, or loan security.

Hence, the correct choice is (a). Quick Tip: ISO standards are global benchmarks for quality, safety, and efficiency.


Question 50:

What is 'AGMARK'?

  • (a) Name of Brand
  • (b) A Marketing Research Organisation
  • (c) Eggs supplied by Government-run cooperative
  • (d) Agriculture marketing for agro products
Correct Answer: (d) Agriculture marketing for agro products
View Solution



AGMARK is a certification mark for agricultural products in India.

It ensures quality standards under the Agricultural Produce (Grading and Marking) Act, 1937.

It is not a brand name or limited to eggs supply.

Hence, the correct choice is (d). Quick Tip: AGMARK = Agricultural Marketing, mainly for farm product quality assurance.


Question 51:

The Headquarters of Indian Space Research Organisation is at

  • (a) Trivandrum
  • (b) New Delhi
  • (c) Bangalore
  • (d) Ahmedabad
Correct Answer: (c) Bangalore
View Solution



ISRO’s headquarters is located in Bengaluru, Karnataka.

It is responsible for India’s space program and satellite launches.

The other options are important Indian cities but not ISRO HQ.

Hence, the correct choice is (c). Quick Tip: Remember: Bengaluru = ISRO HQ, Sriharikota = Launch Centre.


Question 52:

``Saras'' is the name of

  • (a) An Aircraft
  • (b) A Tank
  • (c) A Missile
  • (d) A Submarine
Correct Answer: (a) An Aircraft
View Solution



Saras is India’s first indigenous civilian aircraft.

It was developed by the National Aerospace Laboratories (NAL).

It is not related to tanks, missiles, or submarines.

Hence, the correct choice is (a). Quick Tip: Connect code names with their categories — helps in defence/tech GK.


Question 53:

First woman Prime-Minister in the World was from

  • (a) Sri Lanka
  • (b) Bhutan
  • (c) India
  • (d) Nepal
Correct Answer: (a) Sri Lanka
View Solution



Sirimavo Bandaranaike from Sri Lanka became the world’s first female Prime Minister in 1960.

This was a historic milestone in global politics.

India’s first woman PM was Indira Gandhi in 1966, not the first in the world.

Hence, the correct choice is (a). Quick Tip: Chronology matters — Sri Lanka (1960) precedes India (1966) for female PMs.


Question 54:

Who was felicitated with 'Nishan-e-Pakistan'?

  • (a) Shatrughan Sinha
  • (b) Maulana Azad
  • (c) Dilip Kumar
  • (d) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan
Correct Answer: (c) Dilip Kumar
View Solution



Nishan-e-Pakistan is Pakistan’s highest civilian award.

Actor Dilip Kumar received this honour in 1998 for his contribution to cinema and cultural relations.

Other names are prominent but not recipients of this specific award.

Hence, the correct choice is (c). Quick Tip: Cross-border awards often highlight cultural diplomacy.


Question 55:

Which State provided separate reservation for Muslims and Christians in the State Backward Classes List in 2007?

  • (a) Andhra Pradesh
  • (b) Tamil Nadu
  • (c) Bihar
  • (d) Kerala
Correct Answer: (b) Tamil Nadu
View Solution



In 2007, Tamil Nadu included Muslims and Christians in the State Backward Classes category with separate quotas.

This was to ensure equitable representation in education and jobs.

The other states did not introduce this specific measure that year.

Hence, the correct choice is (b). Quick Tip: Year-based fact questions require precise memory — note both state and year.


Question 56:

Which of the following dances is not a classical dance?

  • (a) Kathakali
  • (b) Garba
  • (c) Odissi
  • (d) Manipuri
Correct Answer: (b) Garba
View Solution



Garba is a folk dance from Gujarat, usually performed during Navratri.

Kathakali, Odissi, and Manipuri are recognised classical dance forms of India.

Hence, Garba is not considered a classical dance.

Hence, the correct choice is (b). Quick Tip: Folk vs Classical — a frequent distinction in art & culture GK.


Question 57:

Sulabh International is an organisation which provides

  • (a) Health Services in Rural Areas
  • (b) Good Sanitation at Cheap Rates
  • (c) Low Cost Accommodation
  • (d) Low Cost Credit
Correct Answer: (b) Good Sanitation at Cheap Rates
View Solution



Sulabh International is an Indian social service organisation founded by Bindeshwar Pathak.

It focuses on sanitation, hygiene, and public toilet facilities at affordable rates.

It does not primarily deal with healthcare, housing, or loans.

Hence, the correct choice is (b). Quick Tip: Link NGOs with their core mission — common in CLAT GK.


Question 58:

Who among the following was honoured with 'Officer of the Legion of Honour' award by French Government in July 2008?

  • (a) Dev Anand
  • (b) Yash Chopra
  • (c) B.R. Chopra
  • (d) Mrinal Sen
Correct Answer: (b) Yash Chopra
View Solution



The Legion of Honour is France’s highest civilian award.

Filmmaker Yash Chopra received it in 2008 for his contribution to Indian cinema and strengthening Indo-French cultural ties.

Other names are prominent filmmakers but not recipients in 2008.

Hence, the correct choice is (b). Quick Tip: Match awards to recipients with year and country — helps avoid confusion.


Question 59:

The largest gland in the human body is

  • (a) Liver
  • (b) Pancreas
  • (c) Thyroid
  • (d) Endocrine
Correct Answer: (a) Liver
View Solution



The liver is the largest gland and performs vital functions like detoxification, protein synthesis, and bile production.

Pancreas and thyroid are smaller endocrine glands.

“Endocrine” is a system, not a gland.

Hence, the correct choice is (a). Quick Tip: Human anatomy facts are frequent — remember “Liver = largest gland”.


Question 60:

The Railway Budget for 2007-2008 has declared the year 2007 as the year of

  • (a) Cleanliness
  • (b) Passenger Comfort
  • (c) Staff Welfare
  • (d) Computerization of Reservations
Correct Answer: (b) Passenger Comfort
View Solution



The Railway Budget 2007-08 emphasised improving passenger amenities and services.

Initiatives included better seating, improved catering, and upgraded waiting areas.

Hence, it was declared the “Year of Passenger Comfort”.

Hence, the correct choice is (b). Quick Tip: Budget themes often signal government priorities for that year.


Question 61:

In the world of Hindi Cinema, who was affectionately called as 'Dada Moni'?\

  • (a) Balraj Sahni
  • (b) Prithviraj Kapoor
  • (c) Ashok Kumar
  • (d) Utpal Dutt
Correct Answer: (a) Balraj Sahni
View Solution



Balraj Sahni was a respected actor in Hindi cinema and was affectionately called 'Dada Moni' by his colleagues and fans. He is remembered for his natural acting style and socially relevant films. The other options are also famous actors, but the nickname 'Dada Moni' is specifically associated with Balraj Sahni.\ Quick Tip: Remember famous nicknames of Hindi cinema personalities by associating their popular works and personality traits.


Question 62:

Outstanding Parliamentarian Award (2006) was presented in 2007 to\

  • (a) P. Chidambram
  • (b) Sarad Pawar
  • (c) Mani Shankar Aiyar
  • (d) Sushma Swaraj
Correct Answer: (b) Sarad Pawar
View Solution



The Outstanding Parliamentarian Award is given annually to a distinguished member of the Indian Parliament who has demonstrated outstanding contribution to parliamentary proceedings. In 2007, the award for the year 2006 was given to Sharad Pawar for his exemplary parliamentary conduct and leadership. The other listed leaders have also been prominent parliamentarians but did not receive this award in 2006.\ Quick Tip: Stay updated with recent Indian political awards and their recipients as they are often asked in competitive exams.


Question 63:

World's longest sea bridge has taken shape in 2007 in\

  • (a) China
  • (b) Japan
  • (c) Singapore
  • (d) U.S.A.
Correct Answer: (a) China
View Solution



In 2007, the world's longest sea bridge project took shape in China. The Hong Kong-Zhuhai-Macao Bridge, which later became the longest sea crossing bridge, was part of China’s ambitious infrastructure development plans during this time. The other countries, though advanced in infrastructure, did not have the world's longest sea bridge in 2007.\ Quick Tip: Keep track of major world infrastructure projects by country, especially those setting world records.


Question 64:

Who among the following Indians became Citigroup's Investment Banking head?\

  • (a) L. N. Mittal
  • (b) A.K. Subramaniyam
  • (c) Vineet Seth
  • (d) Vikram Pandit
Correct Answer: (d) Vikram Pandit
View Solution



Vikram Pandit, an Indian-American banker, rose to become the head of Citigroup’s Investment Banking division and later the CEO of Citigroup. He is recognized globally for his leadership in investment banking. L. N. Mittal is an industrialist, and the other options are less associated with this role.\ Quick Tip: Remember key Indian-origin leaders in global financial institutions for general awareness.


Question 65:

The Green Revolution in India has been identified with\

  • (a) Dr. Man Mohan Singh
  • (b) Dr. Montek Singh Ahluwalia
  • (c) Mr. Rajendra Singh 'waterman'
  • (d) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan
Correct Answer: (d) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan\
View Solution



The Green Revolution in India refers to the period when agriculture was transformed by the adoption of high-yield variety seeds, improved irrigation, and fertilizers. Dr. M.S. Swaminathan is known as the father of the Green Revolution in India due to his pioneering research and efforts in agricultural science. The other individuals are notable but are associated with other areas like water conservation or economic reforms.\ Quick Tip: Associate major social and scientific movements with their key personalities for easy recall.


Question 66:

Indian Judge in the UN Law of the Sea Tribunal is\

  • (a) Dr. P.S. Rao
  • (b) Dr. P.C. Rao
  • (c) Mr. Justice Jagannath Rao
  • (d) Mr. Justice Rajendra Babu
Correct Answer: (b) Dr. P.C. Rao
View Solution



Dr. P.C. Rao has served as an Indian judge at the International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea, representing India's interests in maritime law. The other names, although prominent legal personalities, are not known for holding this particular position.\ Quick Tip: Link international positions with Indian representatives to remember judiciary-related facts.


Question 67:

The Ozone Layer thins down as a result of a chain chemical reaction that separates from the layer

  • (a) Oxygen
  • (b) Chlorine
  • (c) Nitrogen
  • (d) Hydrogen
Correct Answer: (b) Chlorine
View Solution



The thinning of the ozone layer is primarily caused by chlorine atoms released from chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs). These chlorine atoms catalytically destroy ozone molecules in the stratosphere through a chain reaction, leading to ozone depletion. Oxygen and nitrogen are components of the atmosphere but do not cause this depletion. Hydrogen is not involved in this chain reaction.\ Quick Tip: Remember environmental science basics about ozone depletion focusing on CFCs and chlorine’s role.


Question 68:

Joint SAARC University of eight SAARC Nations has been established in

  • (a) Colombo
  • (b) Dhaka
  • (c) Kathmandu
  • (d) New Delhi
Correct Answer: (c) Kathmandu
View Solution



The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) established the SAARC University in Kathmandu, Nepal. It is a regional university aimed at promoting education and research cooperation among the SAARC member countries. Kathmandu, as the capital of Nepal, was chosen as the host city. Quick Tip: Remember SAARC University is headquartered in Kathmandu, Nepal, the only SAARC member capital city hosting it.


Question 69:

Which country recently produced the world's first cloned rabbit using a biological process that takes cells from a fetus?

  • (a) U.K.
  • (b) China
  • (c) U.S.A.
  • (d) Germany
Correct Answer: (b) China
View Solution



China became the first country to successfully clone a rabbit using somatic cell nuclear transfer, a process where cells are taken from a fetus and used to create a genetically identical organism. This breakthrough is a major milestone in biotechnology and cloning research. Quick Tip: Keep updated on biotechnology breakthroughs; China has made significant advances in animal cloning.


Question 70:

Which one of the following Vitamins is responsible for blood clotting?

  • (a) Vitamin A
  • (b) Vitamin E
  • (c) Vitamin C
  • (d) Vitamin K
Correct Answer: (d) Vitamin K
View Solution



Vitamin K plays a crucial role in the synthesis of proteins required for blood clotting (coagulation). Without adequate Vitamin K, the blood cannot clot properly, leading to excessive bleeding. Vitamins A, C, and E have different physiological functions not directly involved in blood clotting. Quick Tip: Remember Vitamin K is essential for blood coagulation and wound healing processes.


Question 71:

What is the meaning of 'Gilt Edged Market'?

  • (a) Market in Government securities
  • (b) Market of smuggled goods
  • (c) Market of auctioned goods
  • (d) Market of Gold products
Correct Answer: (a) Market in Government securities
View Solution



The 'Gilt Edged Market' refers to the market for government securities, which are considered very safe investments since they are backed by the government. The term "gilt-edged" signifies high credit quality and low risk. It does not refer to smuggled goods, auctioned goods, or gold products. Quick Tip: Remember "Gilt Edged" means safe, secure government bonds or securities.


Question 72:

Who is the Central Chief Information Commissioner of India?

  • (a) Prof. Ansari
  • (b) Mrs. Padma Subramanian
  • (c) Mr. Wajahat Habibullah
  • (d) Dr. O.P. Kejariwal
Correct Answer: (d) Dr. O.P. Kejariwal
View Solution



Dr. O.P. Kejariwal is the Central Chief Information Commissioner of India, responsible for implementing the Right to Information Act and ensuring transparency in government affairs. The other options are notable officials but have not held this position at the time referred to in the question. Quick Tip: Remember the Chief Information Commissioner oversees the RTI implementation in India; Dr. O.P. Kejariwal is a key figure.


Question 73:

The youngest recipient of Padma Shri so far is

  • (a) Sachin Tendulkar
  • (b) Shobana Chandrakumar
  • (c) Sania Mirza
  • (d) Billy Arjan Singh
Correct Answer: (c) Sania Mirza
View Solution



Sania Mirza, an Indian professional tennis player, received the Padma Shri at a young age for her achievements in sports. She holds the distinction of being one of the youngest recipients of this prestigious civilian award. Sachin Tendulkar, Shobana Chandrakumar, and Billy Arjan Singh have also received Padma awards but were older at the time. Quick Tip: Remember Sania Mirza as one of the youngest Padma Shri awardees, noted for her tennis achievements.


Question 74:

Who is the Director of the film "Elizabeth: The Golden Age Cast"?

  • (a) Rama Nand Sagar
  • (b) Ram Gopal Verma
  • (c) Karan Johar
  • (d) Shekhar Kapur
Correct Answer: (d) Shekhar Kapur
View Solution



"Elizabeth: The Golden Age" is a historical drama film directed by Shekhar Kapur. The film stars Cate Blanchett as Queen Elizabeth I and explores her reign and the challenges she faced. Shekhar Kapur is known for his works in Indian and international cinema, including the famous film "Elizabeth" (1998) and its sequel "Elizabeth: The Golden Age" (2007). Quick Tip: Remember Shekhar Kapur as the director of the "Elizabeth" series, highlighting his international directorial acclaim.


Question 75:

The territorial waters of India extend up to?

  • (a) 12 Nautical Miles
  • (b) 6 Km
  • (c) 10 Nautical Miles
  • (d) 15 Nautical Miles
Correct Answer: (a) 12 Nautical Miles
View Solution



According to the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), territorial waters of a country extend up to 12 nautical miles from its baseline (usually the coastline). Within this area, the coastal state has sovereignty and jurisdiction over the waters, airspace, seabed, and subsoil. Quick Tip: Remember the territorial sea limit for any country as 12 nautical miles, a standard under UNCLOS.


Question 76:

'Samjhauta Express' runs between the Railway Stations of

  • (a) New Delhi - Wagah
  • (b) New Delhi – Lahore
  • (c) Amritsar - Lahore
  • (d) New Delhi – Islamabad
Correct Answer: (c) Amritsar - Lahore
View Solution



The Samjhauta Express is a passenger train service between India and Pakistan. It connects Amritsar in India to Lahore in Pakistan. The train is a symbol of peace and cooperation between the two countries. Quick Tip: Remember Samjhauta Express runs between the Indian city Amritsar and Pakistani city Lahore.


Question 77:

Blue revolution refers to

  • (a) Forest Development
  • (b) Fishing
  • (c) Poultry Farming
  • (d) Horticulture
Correct Answer: (b) Fishing
View Solution



The Blue Revolution refers to the significant increase in fish production through aquaculture and fisheries management. It is analogous to the Green Revolution, which improved crop production. The Blue Revolution aims at increasing seafood production and improving the livelihood of fishermen. Quick Tip: Remember Blue Revolution is about fisheries and fish production, just like Green Revolution is about agriculture.


Question 78:

Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam has been appointed as Chancellor of

  • (a) IIM Mumbai
  • (b) IIT Kanpur
  • (c) IIM Ahmedabad
  • (d) IIIT Thiruvananthapuram
Correct Answer: (d) IIIT Thiruvananthapuram
View Solution



Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam, former President of India and renowned scientist, was appointed as the Chancellor of the Indian Institute of Information Technology (IIIT), Thiruvananthapuram. This position allowed him to contribute to the development of technology and education. Quick Tip: Associate Dr. Kalam with IIIT Thiruvananthapuram as Chancellor, highlighting his role in technological education.


Question 79:

In which State "Kanya Vidyadhan Yojna" is operational?

  • (a) Andhra Pradesh
  • (b) Uttar Pradesh
  • (c) Rajasthan
  • (d) Haryana
Correct Answer: (b) Uttar Pradesh
View Solution



The "Kanya Vidyadhan Yojna" is a scholarship scheme launched by the Government of Uttar Pradesh aimed at encouraging the education of girls. It provides financial assistance to girls from economically weaker sections to pursue their studies. Quick Tip: Remember "Kanya Vidyadhan Yojna" is linked to Uttar Pradesh focusing on girls' education.


Question 80:

Who emerged the fastest woman of the world at Beijing Olympics?

  • (a) Sheron Sumpson
  • (b) Kerron Stewart
  • (c) Ann Fraser
  • (d) Elina Basiena
Correct Answer: (b) Kerron Stewart
View Solution



At the Beijing Olympics 2008, Jamaican sprinter Kerron Stewart was recognized as one of the fastest women in the world in the 100 meters sprint. She won a silver medal in the 100 meters and a bronze in the 200 meters, showcasing her speed on the global stage. Quick Tip: Remember Kerron Stewart as one of the top sprinters emerging from the Beijing 2008 Olympics.


Question 81:

Savannath grasslands are found in

  • (a) North America
  • (b) Africa
  • (c) Australia
  • (d) East Asia
Correct Answer: (b) Africa
View Solution



Savannath grasslands, commonly known as savannas, are mixed woodland-grassland ecosystems characterized by the trees being sufficiently widely spaced so that the canopy does not close. These grasslands are predominantly found in Africa, covering large parts of countries such as Kenya, Tanzania, and South Africa. The African savannas are known for their rich biodiversity, including many large herbivores and predators. Quick Tip: Savannath grasslands = African savannas, known for wildlife and open canopy.


Question 82:

Which State has launched the "Aarogya Sri" a health Insurance Scheme for families below poverty line?

  • (a) Andhra Pradesh
  • (b) Uttar Pradesh
  • (c) Maharashtra
  • (d) Kerala
Correct Answer: (a) Andhra Pradesh
View Solution



The "Aarogya Sri" scheme is a government health insurance initiative launched by the state of Andhra Pradesh. It aims to provide financial protection for families below the poverty line by covering the cost of medical treatments and hospitalizations, thereby reducing out-of-pocket expenditure for the poor. Quick Tip: Remember Aarogya Sri as Andhra Pradesh’s flagship health insurance for the poor.


Question 83:

The first nuclear reactor of India is named

  • (a) Rohini
  • (b) Vaishali
  • (c) Apsara
  • (d) Kamini
Correct Answer: (c) Apsara
View Solution



India's first nuclear reactor was named "Apsara." It became operational in 1956 and was Asia’s first nuclear reactor. Apsara was a research reactor located at the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) in Mumbai, and it played a significant role in India’s nuclear research and development. Quick Tip: Apsara = India's first nuclear reactor (1956, BARC Mumbai).


Question 84:

In May 2007 Air Sahara acquired by Jet Airways is being operated as a separate airline under the name of

  • (a) Jet Lite
  • (b) Jet Sahara
  • (c) Air Jet Line
  • (d) Jet Sahara Lite
Correct Answer: (b) Jet Sahara
View Solution



In May 2007, Jet Airways acquired Air Sahara. Post acquisition, Air Sahara continued to operate as a separate airline under the new name "Jet Sahara." This helped Jet Airways to strengthen its presence in the domestic aviation sector by having a budget airline operating separately. Quick Tip: Jet Airways + Air Sahara = Jet Sahara (separate brand post-acquisition).


Question 85:

Suez Canal connects

  • (a) Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea
  • (b) Mediterranean Sea and Black Sea
  • (c) Baltic Sea and Red Sea
  • (d) Baltic Sea and Black Sea
Correct Answer: (a) Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea
View Solution



The Suez Canal is a man-made waterway in Egypt that connects the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea. It provides a direct shipping route between Europe and Asia without the need to navigate around Africa, significantly reducing travel time for international maritime trade. Quick Tip: Suez Canal = Mediterranean Sea ↔ Red Sea, shortcut for Europe-Asia shipping.


Question 86:

Government has launched E – Passport Scheme and first E – Passport was issued to

  • (a) Mr. Arjun Singh
  • (b) Mrs. Sonia Gandhi
  • (c) Dr. Man Mohan Singh
  • (d) Mrs. Pratibha Patil
Correct Answer: (d) Mrs. Pratibha Patil
View Solution



The Government of India introduced the E-Passport scheme to enhance security features and streamline passport issuance. The first electronic passport (E-passport) was issued to then President of India, Mrs. Pratibha Patil, marking a significant milestone in India's passport services modernization. Quick Tip: Remember that the first E-passport in India was issued to the President to signify the importance of secure and advanced travel documents.


Question 87:

The Hindu outfit 'Hindraf' has been banned in

  • (a) Pakistan
  • (b) Thailand
  • (c) Malaysia
  • (d) Bangladesh
Correct Answer: (c) Malaysia
View Solution



Hindraf (Hindu Rights Action Force) is a coalition of Malaysian Hindu NGOs. It was banned by the Malaysian government because of its activism concerning the rights of ethnic Indians in Malaysia. The government viewed its activities as a threat to national security and public order. Quick Tip: Hindraf is associated with Malaysian Hindu activism and was banned in Malaysia due to political reasons.


Question 88:

Which organization is headed by Indian Environmentalist R.K. Pachauri, a Nobel Laureate?

  • (a) International Environment Panel
  • (b) International Panel on Climate Change
  • (c) International Pollution Control Panel
  • (d) International Panel on Global Warming
Correct Answer: (b) International Panel on Climate Change
View Solution



Dr. R.K. Pachauri was the chairman of the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC), an international body assessing the science related to climate change. Under his leadership, the IPCC was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2007, which he shared with Al Gore, for efforts to build up and disseminate greater knowledge about human-caused climate change. Quick Tip: Associate R.K. Pachauri with the IPCC and the Nobel Peace Prize for climate change awareness.


Question 89:

Kandhamal, the worst affected town by sectarian violence in September-October 2008, is situated in

  • (a) Orissa
  • (b) Gujarat
  • (c) Andhra Pradesh
  • (d) Karnataka
Correct Answer: (a) Orissa
View Solution



Kandhamal district in the state of Orissa (Odisha) witnessed severe communal violence in 2008, primarily targeting the Christian minority by Hindu extremist groups. The violence resulted in deaths, displacement, and destruction of property. Quick Tip: Remember Kandhamal violence took place in Orissa (now Odisha) during 2008 communal unrest.


Question 90:

World "No Tobacco Day" is observed on

  • (a) January 10
  • (b) June 1
  • (c) May 31
  • (d) March 5
Correct Answer: (c) May 31
View Solution



World No Tobacco Day is observed every year on May 31. It was created by the World Health Organization (WHO) to highlight the health risks associated with tobacco use and advocate for effective policies to reduce tobacco consumption worldwide. Quick Tip: Remember May 31 as the day dedicated globally to discourage tobacco use and raise awareness of its health hazards.


Question 91:

Which is the oldest Code of Law in India?

  • (a) Naradasmriti
  • (b) Manusmriti
  • (c) Vedasmriti
  • (d) Prasarsmriti
Correct Answer: (b) Manusmriti
View Solution



Manusmriti, also known as the Laws of Manu, is considered the oldest and most authoritative ancient code of law in India. It lays down laws and social norms for various aspects of life including dharma, social duties, and conduct. It is dated to around 200 BCE to 200 CE, making it the oldest surviving legal text in Indian tradition. Quick Tip: Remember Manusmriti as the ancient Hindu legal text containing social, civil, and criminal laws, oldest in Indian legal history.


Question 92:

Private international law is also called …….

  • (a) Civil Law
  • (b) Local laws
  • (c) Conflict of laws
  • (d) Common law
Correct Answer: (c) Conflict of laws
View Solution



Private international law is commonly known as the Conflict of Laws. It deals with cases where the laws of different jurisdictions might apply, determining which jurisdiction’s laws are applicable in disputes involving private parties across different countries. Quick Tip: Think of Private international law as “Conflict of Laws” which resolves jurisdictional issues in cross-border private disputes.


Question 93:

A nominal sum given as a token for striking a sale is called

  • (a) Earnest money
  • (b) Advance
  • (c) Interest
  • (d) Solatium
Correct Answer: (a) Earnest money
View Solution



Earnest money is a small amount of money given by a buyer to the seller as a token of intention to complete the sale. It acts as a guarantee that the buyer will fulfill the contract and is forfeited if the buyer defaults. Quick Tip: Earnest money = Token amount showing intent to buy; differs from advance which is partial payment.


Question 94:

Joint heirs to a property are called

  • (a) Co-heirs
  • (b) Coparceners
  • (c) Successors
  • (d) Joint owners
Correct Answer: (b) Coparceners
View Solution



Joint heirs, especially under Hindu law, who inherit a property together and share equal rights by birth in the ancestral property are called coparceners. Coparcenary is a unique feature of Hindu Joint Family Law. Quick Tip: Coparceners specifically refer to joint heirs in a Hindu Undivided Family having birthright shares in ancestral property.


Question 95:

The right of a party to initiate an action and be heard before a Court of law is called

  • (a) Right in rem
  • (b) Right in personam
  • (c) Fundamental right
  • (d) Locus standi
Correct Answer: (d) Locus standi
View Solution



Locus standi means the right or capacity to bring an action or appear in a court. It allows a party to initiate a legal proceeding and be heard. Without locus standi, a person cannot file a case. Quick Tip: Locus standi = Legal standing or right to sue in a court of law.


Question 96:

Indian Parliament is based on the principles of

  • (a) Bicameralism
  • (b) Universal Adult Franchise
  • (c) Dyarchy
  • (d) Federalism
Correct Answer: (a) Bicameralism
View Solution



The Indian Parliament is bicameral, meaning it consists of two houses: the Lok Sabha (House of the People) and the Rajya Sabha (Council of States). This structure is designed to ensure a balance of representation and review of legislation. Quick Tip: Remember Indian Parliament = Bicameral legislature with Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.


Question 97:

The Supreme Court held that evidence can be recorded by video-conferencing in the case …..

  • (a) State of Maharashtra v. Prafull B. Desai
  • (b) Paramjit Kaur v. State of Punjab
  • (c) Pappu Yadav v. State of Bihar
  • (d) Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab
Correct Answer: (a) State of Maharashtra v. Prafull B. Desai
View Solution



In the landmark case State of Maharashtra v. Prafull B. Desai, the Supreme Court of India held that evidence could be recorded through video-conferencing. This decision modernized court procedures and enabled remote testimony, particularly useful in cases where physical presence is difficult. Quick Tip: Remember the Supreme Court ruling on video-conferencing evidence from the Maharashtra v. Prafull B. Desai case.


Question 98:

When the master is held liable for the wrongful act of his servant, the liability is called

  • (a) Strict liability
  • (b) Vicarious liability
  • (c) Tortous liability
  • (d) Absolute liability
Correct Answer: (b) Vicarious liability
View Solution



Vicarious liability is a legal principle where a master (employer) is held liable for the wrongful acts committed by his servant (employee) in the course of employment. This means the liability is imposed without the master being personally at fault. It ensures victims get compensation from the responsible party. Quick Tip: Vicarious liability connects the responsibility of an employer for acts of their employee during employment.


Question 99:

The act of unlawfully entering into another’s property constitutes

  • (a) Trespass
  • (b) Restraint
  • (c) Appropriation
  • (d) Encroachment
Correct Answer: (a) Trespass
View Solution



Trespass refers to the unlawful entry onto someone else's property without permission. It is a wrongful act and is actionable under civil law. Trespass protects property rights by preventing unauthorized intrusion. Quick Tip: Remember, trespass specifically means unlawful entry onto property.


Question 100:

Which Parliamentary committee in Indian system of democracy is chaired by a member of Opposition Party?

  • (a) Estimates Committee
  • (b) Joint Parliamentary Committee
  • (c) Public Accounts Committee
  • (d) Finance Committee
Correct Answer: (c) Public Accounts Committee
View Solution



The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) is a key financial oversight committee in the Indian Parliament. Uniquely, the chairperson of PAC is a member of the opposition party to ensure impartial scrutiny of government spending and accountability. Quick Tip: The PAC chairmanship is always given to opposition members to maintain checks and balances.


Question 101:

Supreme Court held that Preamble as amended in the case of

  • (a) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
  • (b) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
  • (c) S.R. Bommai v. Union of India basic feature of Constitution cannot be amended
    (d) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
Correct Answer: (d) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
View Solution



In Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973), the Supreme Court ruled that the Preamble is part of the Constitution and its basic structure cannot be altered by amendment. This case introduced the "Basic Structure Doctrine," limiting Parliament's amending power. Quick Tip: Remember Kesavananda Bharati case for the Basic Structure Doctrine and the inviolability of the Preamble.


Question 102:

In the year 2002 the Competition Act was enacted replacing

  • (a) Trade Marks Act
  • (b) Copy Right Act
  • (c) Contract Act
  • (d) MRTP Act
Correct Answer: (d) MRTP Act
View Solution



The Competition Act, 2002 was enacted to replace the Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices (MRTP) Act, 1969. The Competition Act aims to promote competition, prevent anti-competitive practices, and protect consumer interests in the Indian market. Quick Tip: Competition Act 2002 replaced the outdated MRTP Act to regulate market competition.


Question 103:

A right to recover time barred debt is

  • (a) Universal right
  • (b) Perfect right
  • (c) Imperfect right
  • (d) Fundamental right
Correct Answer: (c) Imperfect right
View Solution



A time barred debt is a debt for which the limitation period to sue has expired. Although the debtor may owe the money, the creditor's legal right to recover is lost or becomes imperfect. Hence, it is called an imperfect right. Quick Tip: Time barred debts mean the creditor cannot legally enforce recovery; hence the right is imperfect.


Question 104:

The law relating to prisoners of war has been codified by

  • (a) Geneva Convention
  • (b) Vienna Convention
  • (c) Paris Convention
  • (d) None of the above
Correct Answer: (a) Geneva Convention
View Solution



The Geneva Convention, particularly the Third Geneva Convention of 1949, codifies the international law relating to the treatment and rights of prisoners of war. It sets humanitarian standards during armed conflicts. Quick Tip: Remember Geneva Convention for humanitarian treatment of prisoners of war.


Question 105:

Public holidays are declared under

  • (a) Criminal Procedure Code
  • (b) Civil Procedure Code
  • (c) Constitution of India
  • (d) Negotiable Instruments Act
Correct Answer: (b) Civil Procedure Code
View Solution



Public holidays for courts and government offices are declared under the Civil Procedure Code (CPC), which provides provisions regarding holidays for judicial and administrative purposes. Quick Tip: Public holidays for courts are governed by provisions in the Civil Procedure Code.


Question 106:

When a person is prosecuted for committing a criminal offence, the burden of proof is on

  • (a) Accused
  • (b) Prosecution
  • (c) Police
  • (d) Complainant
Correct Answer: (b) Prosecution
View Solution



In criminal law, the fundamental principle is that the burden of proof lies on the prosecution. The prosecution must prove the guilt of the accused beyond reasonable doubt. The accused is presumed innocent until proven guilty. Hence, it is the prosecution's responsibility to establish the charge with sufficient evidence. Quick Tip: Remember the maxim “Ei incumbit probatio qui dicit, non qui negat” – The burden of proof lies on the one who asserts, not on the one who denies.


Question 107:

Offence which can be compromised between the parties is known as

  • (a) Non-compoundable offence
  • (b) Cognizable offence
  • (c) Compoundable offence
  • (d) Non-cognizable offence
Correct Answer: (c) Compoundable offence
View Solution



A compoundable offence is one where the complainant can agree to withdraw the charges against the accused, often after a compromise or settlement. These offences are usually less serious in nature and allow parties to resolve the matter without a trial. Non-compoundable offences are serious crimes that cannot be settled privately and require trial by the court. Quick Tip: Compoundable offences allow settlement between parties; non-compoundable offences do not.


Question 108:

Husband and wife have a right to each other’s company. The right is called

  • (a) Conjugal right
  • (b) Human right
  • (c) Civil right
  • (d) Fundamental right
Correct Answer: (a) Conjugal right
View Solution



The right of husband and wife to live together and enjoy each other’s company is known as conjugal right. It is a legal right arising out of marriage, entitling spouses to cohabitation and companionship. This right is recognized and protected under personal laws. Quick Tip: Conjugal rights relate specifically to the rights and duties between husband and wife.


Question 109:

A person ‘dying intestate’ means he

  • (a) Died without legal heirs
  • (b) Died without making a will
  • (c) Died without any property
  • (d) Died without a son
Correct Answer: (b) Died without making a will
View Solution



'Dying intestate' means a person has died without leaving a valid will. When a person dies intestate, their property is distributed according to the rules of succession under the applicable personal or succession laws. This contrasts with 'dying testate,' where a valid will exists. Quick Tip: “Intestate” = without a will; “Testate” = with a will.


Question 110:

If a witness makes a statement in Court, knowing it to be false, he commits the offence of

  • (a) Forgery
  • (b) Falsehood
  • (c) Perjury
  • (d) Breach of trust
Correct Answer: (c) Perjury
View Solution



Perjury is the offence committed when a person knowingly makes a false statement while under oath in a judicial proceeding. This undermines the administration of justice. Forgery relates to falsifying documents, falsehood is a general term but not a legal offence like perjury, and breach of trust concerns misuse of entrusted property. Quick Tip: Perjury = knowingly lying under oath in court.


Question 111:

A child born after father’s death is

  • (a) Posthumous
  • (b) Heir
  • (c) Intestate
  • (d) Bastard
Correct Answer: (a) Posthumous
View Solution



A posthumous child is one who is born after the death of the father. This child is entitled to inherit from the deceased father as per succession laws. 'Heir' is a general term for one who inherits, 'intestate' means dying without a will, and 'bastard' refers to a child born out of wedlock. Quick Tip: Posthumous = born after father's death.


Question 112:

A formal instrument by which one person empowers another to represent him is known as

  • (a) Affidavit
  • (b) Power of attorney
  • (c) Will
  • (d) Declaration
Correct Answer: (b) Power of attorney
View Solution



Power of attorney is a legal document where one person (the principal) authorizes another (the agent) to act on their behalf in legal or financial matters. An affidavit is a sworn statement, a will directs distribution of property after death, and a declaration is a general statement of facts. Quick Tip: Power of attorney = authority to act for someone else.


Question 113:

The temporary release of a prisoner is called

  • (a) Parole
  • (b) Amnesty
  • (c) Discharge
  • (d) Pardon
Correct Answer: (a) Parole
View Solution



Parole is the temporary, conditional release of a prisoner before the completion of their sentence, usually for good behavior. Amnesty is a general pardon for offenses, discharge ends a trial or release from legal obligations, and pardon is a full forgiveness for a crime. Quick Tip: Parole = temporary release of prisoner under conditions.


Question 114:

The offence of inciting disaffection, hatred or contempt against Government is

  • (a) Perjury
  • (b) Forgery
  • (c) Sedition
  • (d) Revolt
Correct Answer: (c) Sedition
View Solution



Sedition is the offence of inciting people to rebel against the authority of the state or government, causing disaffection or hatred towards the government. Perjury is lying under oath, forgery involves falsification of documents, and revolt is an uprising or rebellion, not necessarily an offence by itself. Quick Tip: Sedition = inciting hatred or rebellion against the government.


Question 115:

India became the member of United Nations in the Year

  • (a) 1956
  • (b) 1945
  • (c) 1946
  • (d) 1950
Correct Answer: (b) 1945
View Solution



India became a founding member of the United Nations in 1945, immediately after the UN was established post-World War II. This marked India’s participation in the global forum for international cooperation. Quick Tip: India joined the UN as a founding member in 1945.


Question 116:

A party to the suit is called

  • (a) Accused
  • (b) Plaintiff
  • (c) Litigant
  • (d) Complainant
Correct Answer: (c) Litigant
View Solution



A litigant is a party involved in a lawsuit or legal proceeding. This term includes both plaintiffs (those who bring the suit) and defendants (those against whom the suit is brought). Accused is used in criminal cases, and complainant generally refers to the person who files a complaint. Quick Tip: Litigant = party involved in a legal case.


Question 117:

Who heads the four member Committee appointed to study the Centre-State relations especially the changes took place since Sarkaria Commission

  • (a) Justice M.M. Panchi
  • (b) Justice Nanavati
  • (c) Justice Bamcha
  • (d) Justice Kuldip Singh
Correct Answer: (d) Justice Kuldip Singh
View Solution



Justice Kuldip Singh headed the four-member committee appointed to study Centre-State relations, particularly focusing on developments after the Sarkaria Commission. This committee reviewed the evolving federal structure and recommended improvements. Quick Tip: Justice Kuldip Singh led the post-Sarkaria Commission committee on Centre-State relations.


Question 118:

No one can be convicted twice for the same offence. This doctrine is called

  • (a) Burden of proof
  • (b) Double conviction
  • (c) Double jeopardy
  • (d) Corpus delicti
Correct Answer:(c) Double jeopardy
View Solution



The doctrine of \textit{double jeopardy protects an individual from being tried or punished more than once for the same offence. In India, this principle is enshrined in Article 20(2) of the Constitution, which states that ``no person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once.'' This ensures fairness and prevents abuse of judicial processes. Quick Tip: Think ``jeopardy'' = ``danger'' — double jeopardy means being in legal danger twice for the same act, which is prohibited.


Question 119:

A participant in commission of crime is popularly known as

  • (a) Respondent
  • (b) Under-trial
  • (c) Defendant
  • (d) Accomplice
Correct Answer: } (d) Accomplice
View Solution



An accomplice is a person who voluntarily and intentionally assists another person in committing a crime. The assistance can be before, during, or after the offence, and may include planning, aiding, or abetting the act. In law, accomplice testimony is admissible but is often treated with caution, as it comes from someone involved in the crime. Quick Tip: Accomplice = ``partner in crime'' — someone who knowingly helps commit the offence.


Question 120:

Which of the following is not payable to Central Government?

  • (a) Land revenue
  • (b) Customs duty
  • (c) Income tax
  • (d) Wealth tax
Correct Answer:(a) Land revenue
View Solution



Land revenue is a tax levied on land and is collected by the State Governments, as per the division of powers in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India. In contrast, taxes like customs duty, income tax, and (historically) wealth tax are collected by the Central Government. Quick Tip: Land revenue = State subject; Customs/Income tax = Central subject.


Question 121:

Where is the National Judicial Academy located?

  • (a) Kolkata
  • (b) Bhopal
  • (c) Delhi
  • (d) Mumbai
Correct Answer:(b) Bhopal
View Solution



The National Judicial Academy (NJA) is located in Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh. It is an institution dedicated to the training and continuing education of judges in India, aimed at improving judicial competence, efficiency, and ethics. The NJA also conducts research and publishes materials to strengthen the judicial system. Quick Tip: NJA in Bhopal — think ``B'' for both Bhopal and Bench training.


Question 122:

Who have constitutional right to audience in all Indian Courts?

  • (a) President
  • (b) Chief Justice of India
  • (c) Attorney General
  • (d) Solicitor General
Correct Answer:(c) Attorney General
View Solution



Article 76 of the Constitution of India grants the Attorney General the right to audience in all courts in the territory of India. This means the Attorney General can appear and be heard in any court, regardless of jurisdiction, in matters concerning the Government of India. Quick Tip: Attorney General = top legal officer of India with the right to appear in all courts.


Question 123:

Which of the following is not included in the Preamble to the Constitution?

  • (a) Morality
  • (b) Justice
  • (c) Sovereign
  • (d) Socialist
Correct Answer:(a) Morality
View Solution



The Preamble to the Indian Constitution declares India to be a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic and secures Justice, Liberty, and Equality. The term “Morality” is not mentioned in the Preamble, though justice incorporates moral principles in a broader sense. Quick Tip: Remember: Preamble keywords = Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic, Justice, Liberty, Equality, Fraternity.


Question 124:

Court of Record is a Court which?

  • (a) Maintains records
  • (b) Preserves all its records
  • (c) Can punish for its contempt
  • (d) Is competent to issue writs
Correct Answer: } (c) Can punish for its contempt
View Solution



A Court of Record not only preserves its records for evidentiary value but also has the power to punish for contempt of court. In India, the Supreme Court and High Courts are designated as Courts of Record under Articles 129 and 215, respectively. Quick Tip: Court of Record = keeps permanent records + power to punish for contempt.


Question 125:

A judge of the Supreme Court can be removed from office only on grounds of

  • (a) Gross inefficiency
  • (b) Delivering wrong judgment
  • (c) Senility
  • (d) Proven misbehavior incapacity
Correct Answer:(d) Proven misbehavior incapacity
View Solution



Article 124(4) of the Constitution states that a Supreme Court judge can only be removed by the President on the grounds of proven misbehavior or incapacity, after an impeachment process is carried out by Parliament. Quick Tip: Two grounds for removal: proven misbehavior or incapacity — nothing else.


Question 126:

Fiduciary relationship means a relationship based on

  • (a) Trust
  • (b) Money
  • (c) Contract
  • (d) Blood relation or incapacity
Correct Answer:(a) Trust
View Solution



A fiduciary relationship exists when one party places trust and confidence in another, and the latter has a duty to act in the best interest of the former. Examples include trustee-beneficiary, lawyer-client, and guardian-ward relationships. Quick Tip: Fiduciary = trust-based duty to act in another’s best interest.


Question 127:

The Chairman of Tehelka Enquiry commission is

  • (a) Justice Kripal
  • (b) Justice S.N. Phukan
  • (c) Justice Saharia
  • (d) Justice Liberhan
Correct Answer:(b) Justice S.N. Phukan
View Solution



The Tehelka Enquiry Commission, set up to investigate allegations of corruption in defense procurement (Operation West End), was headed by Justice S.N. Phukan after Justice Venkataswami resigned. Quick Tip: Remember: Tehelka scam probe — Justice S.N. Phukan.


Question 128:

The concept of judicial review has been borrowed from the Constitution of

  • (a) U.S.S.R
  • (b) U.K.
  • (c) U.S.A
  • (d) Switzerland
Correct Answer:(c) U.S.A
View Solution



Judicial review, the power of courts to examine the constitutionality of legislative acts, has been borrowed from the U.S.A. In India, this power is vested primarily in the Supreme Court and High Courts under Articles 13, 32, and 226. Quick Tip: Judicial review origin: U.S.A — landmark case: Marbury v. Madison (1803).


Question 129:

Every duty enforceable by law is called

  • (a) Accountability
  • (b) Obligation
  • (c) Burden
  • (d) Incidence
Correct Answer:(b) Obligation
View Solution



An obligation in legal terms refers to a duty enforceable by law. It may arise from a contract, statute, or legal relationship, and failure to perform such duty can result in legal consequences. Quick Tip: Legal duty = obligation; moral duty ≠ necessarily legally enforceable.


Question 130:

The killing of a new born child by its parents is

  • (a) Malfeasance
  • (b) Infanticide
  • (c) Abortion
  • (d) Feticide
Correct Answer:(b) Infanticide
View Solution



Infanticide refers to the act of killing an infant, typically by the parents. In many legal systems, infanticide is treated separately from murder due to factors such as the mental condition of the mother post-childbirth. Quick Tip: Infanticide = killing of an infant; Feticide = killing of an unborn fetus.


Question 131:

Offence of breaking a divine idol is

  • (a) Salus populi
  • (b) Crime
  • (c) Sacrilege
  • (d) Blasphemy
Correct Answer:(c) Sacrilege
View Solution



Sacrilege refers to the violation or desecration of something that is regarded as sacred, such as a divine idol, temple, or holy object. It is considered a serious offence in many legal systems and religious laws, as it directly offends the sentiments of a faith community. Quick Tip: Sacrilege = breaking or defiling something sacred; Blasphemy = speaking irreverently about God.


Question 132:

A person who goes under-ground or evades the jurisdiction of the court is known as

  • (a) Offender
  • (b) Under-ground
  • (c) Absentee
  • (d) Absconder
Correct Answer:(d) Absconder
View Solution



An absconder is someone who deliberately hides or goes into concealment to evade arrest or avoid appearing before a court of law. Under criminal procedure, absconding can lead to the issuance of a proclamation and attachment of property under Sections 82–83 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC). Quick Tip: Absconder = deliberately hiding from law enforcement or court summons.


Question 133:

What is a caveat?

  • (a) A warning
  • (b) An injunction
  • (c) Writ
  • (d) Certiorari
Correct Answer:(a) A warning
View Solution



In legal terms, a caveat is a formal notice or warning lodged with a court to prevent certain actions without notifying the person who filed it. Under Section 148A of the Civil Procedure Code (CPC), a caveat ensures that the caveator is heard before any order is passed in the relevant matter. Quick Tip: Caveat = “let him beware” — a legal warning to be heard before action is taken.


Question 134:

Muslim religious foundations are known as

  • (a) Din
  • (b) Wakfs
  • (c) Ulema
  • (d) Quzat
Correct Answer:(b) Wakfs
View Solution



A Wakf in Islamic law is a permanent dedication of movable or immovable property for religious, pious, or charitable purposes as recognized by Muslim law. Once constituted, the property becomes inalienable and is managed by a Mutawalli (manager) for the benefit of the intended purpose. Quick Tip: Wakf = Islamic charitable endowment; managed by a Mutawalli.


Question 135:

Beyond what distance from the coast, is the sea known as ``High Sea''?

  • (a) 20 miles
  • (b) 300 miles
  • (c) 200 km
  • (d) 12 miles
Correct Answer:(d) 12 miles
View Solution



According to international maritime law, particularly the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), the territorial waters of a coastal nation extend up to 12 nautical miles from its baseline (coast). Beyond this limit, the waters are considered part of the ``High Seas,'' where no single state has sovereignty, and freedom of navigation is granted to all countries. Activities here are regulated by international agreements. Quick Tip: Think of ``12 nautical miles'' as the legal swimming pool boundary for a country — beyond it, everyone can swim freely.


Question 136:

Instructions: (question 136-145), each question below consists of one Assertion (A) and one Reason (R). Examine them and shade the correct answers using the Code below in the OMR Answer Sheet.
Code:

  • (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
  • (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  • (c) A is true but R is false
  • (d) A is false but R is true PREP TUTO 
    {A:} Area along the Equator records the highest temperature throughout the year.
    {R:} On the equator, days and nights are equal for the largest part of the year.
  • (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
  • (c) A is true but R is false
  • (d) A is false but R is true
Correct Answer:(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
View Solution



The Equator receives direct sunlight throughout the year, leading to consistently high temperatures. This makes Assertion (A) true. Reason (R) is also true — the equator experiences nearly equal day and night durations year-round due to Earth's tilt and orbit. However, equal day and night durations are not the cause of high temperatures; the direct angle of sunlight is the reason. Hence, both are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. Quick Tip: High temperatures at the equator are due to direct sunlight year-round, not equal day-night lengths.


Question 137:

A: Commercial fisheries have not developed in tropics.
R: The demand for marine food from low income population is low in the tropics.

  • (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
  • (c) A is true but R is false
  • (d) A is false but R is true
Correct Answer:(b)
View Solution



Commercial fisheries are less developed in the tropics due to several factors such as warm waters having lower nutrient content, resulting in less plankton and hence lower fish productivity. While it is true that the demand for marine food from low-income populations is low in the tropics, this is not the primary reason for the lack of development — environmental and ecological factors are more significant. Quick Tip: Warm waters = fewer fish, not just fewer buyers.


Question 138:

A: Lightning thunder end heavy rain accompany volcanic activity.
R: Volcanoes throw water vapour and charged particles in the atmosphere.

  • (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
  • (c) A is true but R is false
  • (d) A is false but R is true
Correct Answer:(a)
View Solution



Volcanic eruptions often produce lightning, thunder, and heavy rainfall. This is due to the massive release of water vapour and ash particles into the atmosphere, which create strong updrafts and charge separation, resulting in volcanic lightning. The water vapour can also condense rapidly, leading to heavy rain. Quick Tip: Volcanoes = nature’s fireworks with built-in thunderstorms.


Question 139:

A: Soils in some parts of Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan are saline.
R: Evaporation exceeds precipitation.

  • (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
  • (c) A is true but R is false
  • (d) A is false but R is true
Correct Answer:(a)
View Solution



In arid and semi-arid areas like parts of Punjab, Haryana, and Rajasthan, high evaporation rates and low precipitation lead to the accumulation of salts in the soil. This process, called salinization, makes the soils saline and less fertile. Quick Tip: Less rain + more evaporation = salty surprise in soil.


Question 140:

A: The monsoons arrive suddenly in India in June.
R: The monsoonal low pressure trough is well-developed over India.

  • (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
  • (c) A is true but R is false
  • (d) A is false but R is true
Correct Answer:(a)
View Solution



The sudden onset of monsoons in June is due to the development of a strong low-pressure area over northwestern India, which draws in moist winds from the Indian Ocean. This marks the dramatic shift from dry summer to wet monsoon conditions. Quick Tip: Low pressure = high rain excitement in June.


Question 141:

A: India built dams and reservoirs to manage water resources.
R: India had enough experience in canals.

  • (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
  • (c) A is true but R is false
  • (d) A is false but R is true
Correct Answer:(b)
View Solution



India built dams and reservoirs primarily for irrigation, power generation, and flood control. While India indeed had experience in canals, the decision to build large-scale water storage projects was driven more by agricultural and industrial needs than canal-building expertise. Quick Tip: Canals help, but dams store the real power (and water).


Question 142:

A: The life expectancy in European countries is very high.
R: European countries have low mortality rate.

  • (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
  • (c) A is true but R is false
  • (d) A is false but R is true
Correct Answer:(a)
View Solution



Life expectancy is high in European countries largely due to low mortality rates, which are a result of advanced healthcare, high living standards, and effective public health policies. Quick Tip: Low mortality = longer birthdays to celebrate.


Question 143:

A: The nomadic herders their animals for meat.
R: Animals form the chief source of food and livelihood for nomadic herders.

  • (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
  • (c) A is true but R is false
  • (d) A is false but R is true
Correct Answer:(a)
View Solution



For nomadic herders, livestock is the primary source of both food and income. Animals provide meat, milk, hides, and trade goods, making them central to survival and economy. Quick Tip: For nomads, animals = pantry + bank account.


Question 144:

A: Exploitation of equatorial rain forest of Amazon basin is not easy.
R: This region is very rich in several types of deadly animals and insects.

  • (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
  • (c) A is true but R is false
  • (d) A is false but R is true
Correct Answer:(b)
View Solution



The Amazon rainforest is difficult to exploit mainly due to dense vegetation, challenging terrain, and environmental protection concerns. While the presence of dangerous wildlife is true, it is not the primary obstacle to exploitation. Quick Tip: Trees, not tigers, are the bigger challenge here.


Question 145:

A: The Sea remains free from ice from British Columbia to Bering Sea.
R: A warm air flow off the comparatively warm waters of North Pacific Drift gives the coastal areas of British Columbia a warmer climate.

  • (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
  • (c) A is true but R is false
  • (d) A is false but R is true
Correct Answer:(a)
View Solution



The North Pacific Drift, a warm ocean current, moderates the climate along the coast from British Columbia to the Bering Sea, preventing ice formation even in winter. This warm air flow is indeed the reason behind the phenomenon. Quick Tip: Warm currents keep the coast ice-free — nature’s ocean heater.


Question 146:

Instructions (questions 146-155): In each question below are given one statement and two assumptions I and II. Examine the statements and shade the correct assumption which is implicit. In the statement on the OMR Answer Sheet using the following Code.
Code:

  • (a) If only assumption I is implicit.
  • (c) If either I or II is implicit.
  • (b) If only assumption II is implicit.
  • (d) If neither 1 nor II is implicit.
    {Statement:} The patient's condition would improve after operation.
    {Assumptions:} I. The patient can be operated upon in this condition. II. The patient cannot be operated upon in this condition.
  • (a) If only assumption I is implicit.
  • (b) If only assumption II is implicit.
  • (c) If either I or II is implicit.
  • (d) If neither I nor II is implicit.
Correct Answer:(a) If only assumption I is implicit.
View Solution



The statement predicts improvement "after operation", which presupposes that an operation is possible and will be performed. Therefore it implicitly assumes that the patient can be operated upon in the given condition (Assumption I). Assumption II directly contradicts I and thus cannot be implicit. Hence only Assumption I is implicit. Quick Tip: If a statement speaks of a result "after X", it usually presumes X can be done — check for feasibility assumptions.


Question 147:

Statement: Detergents should be used to clean cloths.
Assumptions: I. Detergent form more lather. II. Detergent helps to dislodge grease and dirt.

  • (a) If only assumption I is implicit.
  • (b) If only assumption II is implicit.
  • (c) If either I or II is implicit.
  • (d) If neither I nor II is implicit.
Correct Answer: (b) If only assumption II is implicit.
View Solution



The recommendation to use detergents to clean cloths rests on the functional quality of detergents — they help remove grease and dirt. That is precisely what Assumption II states, so II is implicit. Assumption I (that detergents form more lather) is a belief about a trait of some detergents but is not necessary for the statement; lather is not essential to the claim that detergents should be used. Hence only II is implicit. Quick Tip: Focus on whether an assumption is necessary to make the statement sensible — usefulness (dislodging dirt) is necessary; extra features (lather) need not be.


Question 148:

Statement: As there is a great demand, every person seeking ticket of the programme will be given only five tickets.
Assumptions: I. The organizers are not keen on selling the tickets. II. No one is interested in getting more than five tickets.

  • (a) If only assumption I is implicit.
  • (b) If only assumption II is implicit.
  • (c) If either I or II is implicit.
  • (d) If neither I nor II is implicit.
Correct Answer: (d) If neither I nor II is implicit.
View Solution



The statement imposes a limit because demand is high — it aims to ensure fair distribution. Assumption I (organizers not keen on selling) is contrary to the fact that they are selling tickets; limiting sales does not mean they are not keen to sell. Assumption II (no one wants more than five tickets) is not implied by the decision to limit; in fact, the limit is likely imposed because some people might want more. Thus neither assumption is necessarily implicit. Quick Tip: A restriction due to demand suggests fairness, not unwillingness to sell or lack of desire for extra tickets.


Question 149:

Statement: Double your money in five months — An advertisement.
Assumptions: I. The assurance is not genuine. II. People want their money to grow.

  • (a) If only assumption I is implicit.
  • (b) If only assumption II is implicit.
  • (c) If either I or II is implicit.
  • (d) If neither I nor II is implicit.
Correct Answer:(b) If only assumption II is implicit.
View Solution



An advertisement promising large returns appeals to the common desire of people to increase their wealth, so Assumption II is implicit. Assumption I (that the assurance is not genuine) is a skeptical judgment but is not necessarily implied by the mere presence of an advertisement — some adverts may be genuine — therefore it is not automatically assumed. Hence only II is implicit. Quick Tip: Ads assume people want benefits; they do not necessarily assume the claim is false.


Question 150:

Statement: Films have become indispensable for the entertainment of people.
Assumptions: I. Films are the only media of entertainment. II. People enjoy films.

  • (a) If only assumption I is implicit.
  • (b) If only assumption II is implicit.
  • (c) If either I or II is implicit.
  • (d) If neither I nor II is implicit.
Correct Answer:(b) If only assumption II is implicit.
View Solution



Saying films are indispensable implies people enjoy them (Assumption II) — otherwise they would not be indispensable. Assumption I (films are the only media of entertainment) is too strong and is not implied; other media (TV, internet, theatre) may also exist. Thus only II is implicit. Quick Tip: "Indispensable" implies popularity/utility, not exclusivity.


Question 151:

Statement: To keep myself up-to-date, I always listen to 9.00 p.m. news on radio — a candidate tells the interview board.

Assumptions: I. The candidate does not read newspaper. II. Recent news are broadcast only on radio.

  • (a) If only assumption I is implicit.
  • (b) If only assumption II is implicit.
  • (c) If either I or II is implicit.
  • (d) If neither I nor II is implicit.
Correct Answer:(d) If neither I nor II is implicit.
View Solution



The candidate's statement indicates a preference for a particular source (radio) to stay updated but does not imply that she/he does not read newspapers (I), nor does it imply that recent news are available only on radio (II). Both assumptions are unwarranted conclusions beyond what is stated. Hence neither assumption is implicit. Quick Tip: A personal habit does not imply the absence of other habits or exclusivity of sources.


Question 152:

Statement: Never before such a lucid book was available on the topic.

Assumptions: I. Some other books were available on this topic. II. You can write lucid books on very few topics.

  • (a) If only assumption I is implicit.
  • (b) If only assumption II is implicit.
  • (c) If either I or II is implicit.
  • (d) If neither I nor II is implicit.
Correct Answer:(a) If only assumption I is implicit.
View Solution



The claim "Never before such a lucid book was available" presupposes that earlier books on the topic did exist but were not as lucid — thus Assumption I is implicit. Assumption II (that lucid books can be written only on very few topics) is not implied by the statement; the sentence only compares this book to earlier ones on the same topic. Therefore only I is implicit. Quick Tip: "Never before" implies prior works existed; it does not generalize about all topics.


Question 153:

Statement: In case of any difficulty about this case, you may contact our company's lawyer.
Assumptions: I. Each company has a lawyer of its own. II. The company's lawyer is thoroughly briefed about this case.

  • (a) If only assumption I is implicit.
  • (b) If only assumption II is implicit.
  • (c) If either I or II is implicit.
  • (d) If neither I nor II is implicit.
Correct Answer:(b) If only assumption II is implicit.
View Solution



By offering the company's lawyer as a contact for difficulties about the case, the statement presumes that the lawyer will be able to help — which suggests that the lawyer is expected to be informed about the case (Assumption II). Assumption I (that each company has its own lawyer) is a generalization not implied by the offer; the statement refers to "our company's lawyer" only. Therefore only II is implicit. Quick Tip: An offer to contact someone's lawyer implies the lawyer can assist with that case, not that every company has a lawyer.


Question 154:

Statement: "Present day education is in shambles and the country is going to the dogs."
Assumptions: I. A good education system is essential for the well being of a nation. II. A good education alone is sufficient for the well being of a nation.

  • (a) If only assumption I is implicit.
  • (b) If only assumption II is implicit.
  • (c) If either I or II is implicit.
  • (d) If neither I nor II is implicit.
Correct Answer:(a) If only assumption I is implicit.
View Solution



The speaker's lament about education and the nation's decline presupposes the importance of education to national welfare, which aligns with Assumption I. However, Assumption II (that education alone is sufficient for national well-being) is too strong and not implied; the statement criticises education as a factor but does not claim it is the sole determinant. Hence only I is implicit. Quick Tip: Criticism of one system suggests its importance, not that it is the only factor.


Question 155:

Statement: Children are influenced more by their teachers nowadays.

Assumptions: I. The children consider teachers as their models. II. A large amount of children's time is spent in school.

  • (a) If only assumption I is implicit.
  • (b) If only assumption II is implicit.
  • (c) If either I or II is implicit.
  • (d) If neither I nor II is implicit.
Correct Answer:(c) If either I or II is implicit.
View Solution



Saying that children are influenced more by teachers implies reasons for such influence. Both assumptions offer plausible and commonly accepted reasons: that children view teachers as role models (I) and that children spend substantial time in school (II). Either or both could underlie the asserted increase in influence, so both assumptions are implicitly reasonable. Therefore option (c) (either I or II implicit) is appropriate. Quick Tip: When a statement of influence is given, look for plausible causal factors — both modelling and exposure/time are valid.


Question 156:

Instructions (question 156-160): Each question below contains a Statement on relationship and a question regarding relationship hased on the Statement. Shade the correct option on relationship on the OMR Answer Shevet
Pointing to a photograph, a lady tells Ram, "I am the only daughter of this lady and her son is your maternal uncle". How is the lady related to Ram's father?

  • (a) Sister-in-law
  • (b) Wife
  • (c) Either (a) or (b)
  • (d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Correct Answer: (b) Wife
View Solution

"This lady" (in the photograph) has a son who is Ram's maternal uncle — therefore "this lady" is Ram's maternal grandmother.

The speaker is the only daughter of that grandmother — hence the speaker is Ram's mother.

The speaker (Ram's mother) is related to Ram's father as his wife.

Therefore the correct option is (b) Wife. Quick Tip: Find the referenced relative step-by-step (identify the grandmother → daughter → mother) and then link to the required person.


Question 157:

Introducing a man, a woman said, "He is the only son of my mother's mother." How is the woman related to the man?

  • (a) Mother
  • (b) Aunt
  • (c) Sister
  • (d) Niece
Correct Answer: (d) Niece
View Solution

"My mother's mother" = the woman's maternal grandmother.

The "only son" of the maternal grandmother must be the woman's maternal uncle (since the woman's mother is a daughter of that grandmother; the son cannot be her father without implying incest).

Therefore the man is the woman's maternal uncle, and the woman is his niece.

Hence the correct option is (d) Niece. Quick Tip: Avoid impossible relations (like a grandmother's son being also the woman's spouse); use biological constraints to resolve ambiguity.


Question 158:

Shyam said, "This girl is the wife of the grandson of my mother". Who is Shyam to the girl?

  • (a) Father
  • (b) Grandfather
  • (c) Husband
  • (d) Father-in-law
Correct Answer: (d) Father-in-law
View Solution

"The grandson of my mother" — for Shyam, the grandson of his mother would normally be Shyam's son (a person who is a grandson to Shyam's mother).

The girl is the wife of that grandson (i.e., wife of Shyam's son).

Therefore Shyam is the father-in-law of the girl.

Hence the correct option is (d) Father-in-law. Quick Tip: Translate phrases like "grandson of my mother" into the speaker's perspective (usually the speaker's son) before mapping the relation.


Question 159:

Pointing to a man on the stage, Sunita said, "He is the brother of the daughter of the wife of my husband". How is the man on the stage related to Sunita?

  • (a) Son
  • (b) Husband
  • (c) Cousin
  • (d) Nephew
Correct Answer: (a) Son
View Solution




"Wife of my husband" — Sunita is the wife of her husband (assuming monogamy), so this refers to Sunita herself.

"Daughter of the wife of my husband" = Sunita's daughter.

"Brother of the daughter" = the daughter’s brother, i.e., Sunita's son.

Therefore the man on the stage is Sunita's son — option (a). Quick Tip: Replace phrases like "wife of my husband" with the simplest equivalent (usually the speaker) to simplify the chain.


Question 160:

Introducing a man to her husband, a woman said, "His brother's father is the only son of my grandfather". How is the woman related to the man?

  • (a) Mother
  • (b) Aunt
  • (c) Daughter
  • (d) Sister
Correct Answer: (d) Sister
View Solution




"His brother's father" is simply the father of the man (both the man and his brother share the same father).

That father is "the only son of my grandfather" — the only son of the woman's grandfather is the woman's father.

So the man's father = the woman's father ⇒ the man and the woman have the same father ⇒ they are siblings.

Therefore the woman is the man's sister — option (d). Quick Tip: Simplify "brother's father" → "father" and "only son of my grandfather" → "my father" to see the sibling relation.


Question 161:

Legislation : Enactment :: Executive : ?

  • (a) Minister
  • (b) Officer
  • (c) Implementation
  • (d) Leader
Correct Answer: (c) Implementation
View Solution

Legislation leads to an enactment (legislation is made/converted into enactment).

The Executive branch's corresponding role is to implement or carry out laws — i.e., implementation.

Therefore the correct analogy is Implementation — option (c). Quick Tip: Match relationship types (process → result) rather than category labels.


Question 162:

UP : Uttranchal :: Bihar : ?

  • (a) Jharkhand
  • (b) Chhattisgarh
  • (c) Madhya Pradesh
  • (d) Manipur
Correct Answer: (a) Jharkhand
View Solution

The pair indicates a state and a region/state that was carved out / associated historically (Uttarakhand — formerly Uttaranchal — was carved out of UP regionally; similarly Jharkhand was formed from Bihar).

Bihar's corresponding bifurcated state is Jharkhand, carved out of southern Bihar.

Therefore the correct option is (a) Jharkhand. Quick Tip: In state-pair analogies, think of division/formation relationships (which modern state originated from which older state).


Question 163:

Gold : Silver :: Cotton : ?

  • (a) Yarn
  • (b) Silk
  • (c) Fibre
  • (d) Synthetic
Correct Answer: (b) Silk
View Solution




Gold and silver are both valuable, naturally occurring metallic substances (a parallel class: precious metals).

Cotton and silk are both natural, commonly valued textile fibres.

The best analogy pair is Cotton : Silk (both are natural textile fibres and often compared).

Hence the correct option is (b) Silk. Quick Tip: Prefer matching items at the same level (both are examples from the same category) rather than category-to-item mappings.


Question 164:

Botany : Flora :: Zoology : ?

  • (a) Fauna
  • (b) Biology
  • (c) Fossils
  • (d) Pathology
Correct Answer: (a) Fauna
View Solution

Botany is the science of plants, and its subject matter is termed "flora".

Zoology is the science of animals, and its subject matter is termed "fauna".

Therefore the correct option is (a) Fauna. Quick Tip: Match fields of study to their specific subject terms (Botany → Flora; Zoology → Fauna).


Question 165:

Cold wave : Winter :: Loo : ?

  • (a) Humidity
  • (b) Frostbite
  • (c) Summer
  • (d) Storm
Correct Answer: (c) Summer
View Solution

A "cold wave" is an extreme wind/temperature phenomenon associated with winter.

"Loo" is a hot, dry wind experienced in northern India during summer.

Therefore the analogous season for "Loo" is Summer — option (c). Quick Tip: Pair climatic phenomena with the season they typically occur in (cold wave → winter; loo → summer).


Question 166:

King : Royal :: Saint : ?

  • (a) Religious
  • (b) Red
  • (c) Priesthood
    (d) Blue
Correct Answer: } (a) Religious
View Solution



"Royal" is the adjectival form related to "King".
The adjective related to "Saint" is "Religious" (or "saintly" in plain English). Among the options, "Religious" is the correct adjective.
Hence the correct option is (a) Religious. Quick Tip: For word → adjective analogies, convert the noun to its descriptive adjective (king → royal; saint → religious/saintly).


Question 167:

Sculptor : Statue :: Poet : ?

  • (a) Painter
  • (b) Singer
  • (c) Poem
  • (d) Writer
Correct Answer: (c) Poem
View Solution

A sculptor produces (creates) a statue — the relationship is creator : creation.
A poet produces (creates) a poem — same creator : creation relationship.
Therefore the correct analogous item is Poem (option c). Quick Tip: In analogy questions identify whether the relation is maker→made, part→whole, cause→effect, etc., then match the same relation.


Question 168:

Laugh : Happy :: Cry : ?

  • (a) Sad
  • (b) Bickering
  • (c) Frown
  • (d) Complain
Correct Answer: (a) Sad
View Solution

"Laugh" is an expression of the emotion "happy".
"Cry" is typically an expression of the emotion "sad".
Hence the correct analogy is Cry : Sad — option (a). Quick Tip: Map expressions to the emotions they commonly represent (laugh→happiness; cry→sadness).


Question 169:

Black : Absence :: White : ?

  • (a) Red
  • (b) Presence
  • (c) Rainbow
  • (d) Crystal
Correct Answer: (b) Presence
View Solution



In many conceptual/semantic analogies, "black" is associated with absence (e.g., absence of light).
The opposite concept to absence is presence, and "white" is often used to denote presence or full light.
Therefore the best match is Presence — option (b). Quick Tip: Look for opposites or complementary semantic pairs (black↔absence, white↔presence) in such analogy items.


Question 170:

Governor : President :: Chief : Minister ?

  • (a) Commissioner
  • (b) Attorney General
  • (c) Justice
  • (d) Prime – Minister
Correct Answer: (d) Prime – Minister
View Solution



A Governor is the constitutional head of a State, while the President is the constitutional head of the country — i.e., state-level head : national-level head.
By analogy, "Chief" (as in Chief Minister) is the head of a State government while "Prime Minister" is the head of the national government — i.e., state-level executive head : national-level executive head.
Thus the correct analogous pair is Chief (Minister) : Prime – Minister — option (d). Quick Tip: For polity analogies, align the administrative/hierarchical level (state vs national) before selecting the match.


Question 171:

Instructions: (question 171-175), each question below contains a Statement and two Courses of Action I and II. Assuming the statement to be true, decide which of the two suggested Course of Action logically follows and shade on the OMR Answer sheet, using the Code given below.

Code:

  • (a) If only 1 follow
  • (c) If either I or II follow
  • (b) If only II follow
  • (d) If neither 1 nor II follow.}
    Statement: One of the problems facing the food processing industry is the irregular supply of raw material. The producers of raw materials are not getting a reasonable price. 
    Courses of Action:
    I. The government should regulate the supply of raw material to other industries also.
    II. The government should announce an attractive package to ensure regular supply of raw material for food processing industry.
  • (a) Only I follows
  • (b) Only II follows
  • (c) If either I or II follows
  • (d) If neither I nor II follows
Correct Answer: (b) Only II follows
View Solution



The core problem is irregular supply due to producers not getting a fair price. Regulating supply to other industries (I) does not address the root cause — the low price received by producers. This is not a direct solution.

Announcing an attractive package (II) addresses both price and regular supply, tackling the real issue behind the irregularity.

Thus, only Course of Action II logically follows. Quick Tip: When evaluating courses of action, focus on measures that directly address the root cause rather than merely controlling related effects.


Question 172:

Statement: The Officer In-charge of a Company had a hunch that some money was missing from the safe.
Course of Action I: He should get it recounted with the help of the staff and check it with the balance sheet.
Course of Action II: He should inform the police.

  • (a) Only I follows
  • (b) Only II follows
  • (c) If either I or II follows
  • (d) If neither I nor II follows
Correct Answer: (a) If only I follows
View Solution




A mere hunch is not enough for police involvement; facts must be verified first.
Course I — recounting money and checking records — is a logical first step.
Course II — informing police — is premature without confirmation.

Therefore only Course I follows. Quick Tip: Always verify facts internally before escalating to external authorities like police.


Question 173:

Statement: If the retired Professors of the same Institutes are also invited to deliberate on restructuring of the organization, their contribution may be beneficial to the Institute.
Course of Action I: Management may seek opinion of the employees before calling retired Professors.
Course of Action II: Management should involve experienced people for the systematic restructuring of the organization.

  • (a) Only I follows
  • (b) Only II follows
  • (c) If either I or II follows
  • (d) If neither I nor II follows
Correct Answer: (b) If only II follows
View Solution

The statement highlights the value of retired professors’ expertise.
Course I — seeking employees’ opinion before inviting retired professors — is unnecessary and may delay the process.
Course II — involving experienced people — is directly aligned with the statement’s suggestion.

Hence only Course II follows. Quick Tip: When a statement implies a clear beneficial action, prioritize that over unrelated consultative steps.


Question 174:

Statement: The sale of particular products has gone down considerably causing great concern to the company.
Course of Action I: The company should make a proper study of rival products in the market.
Course of Action II: The price of the product should be reduced and quality improved.

  • (a) Only I follows
  • (b) Only II follows
  • (c) If either I or II follows
  • (d) If neither I nor II follows
Correct Answer: (c) If either I or II follows
View Solution



Falling sales can be addressed by market research (Course I) or by improving competitiveness through price and quality (Course II).
Either action independently could be a logical response to the problem.

Thus, either Course I or II follows. Quick Tip: When multiple independent remedies are viable, “either I or II” is the correct logical choice.


Question 175:

Statement: Mr. X, an active member of the Union, often insults his superiors in the office with his rude behavior.
Course of Action I: He should be transferred to some other department.
Course of Action II: The matter should be referred to the Union.

  • (a) Only I follows
  • (b) Only II follows
  • (c) If either I or II follows
  • (d) If neither I nor II follows
Correct Answer: (b) If either I or II follows
View Solution

The problem is an employee’s repeated rude behavior towards superiors.
Course I — transferring to another department — could reduce friction.
Course II — referring the matter to the Union — could address behavior through his association.
Step 4: Either action independently could be effective.

Thus, either Course I or II follows. Quick Tip: When two independent solutions both address the problem, “either I or II” applies.


Question 176:

Statement: Should a total ban be put on trapping wild animals?
Course of Action I: Yes. Trappers are making a lot of money.
Course of Action II: No. Bans on hunting and trapping are not effective.

  • (a) Only I follows
  • (b) Only II follows
  • (c) If either I or II follows
  • (d) If neither I nor II follows
Correct Answer: (d) If neither I nor II follows
View Solution

The core issue is conservation and animal welfare; the profit motive (Course I) is irrelevant to whether trapping should be banned.
Course II argues inefficacy without weighing ethical/ecological necessity; mere inefficacy does not negate the need for a ban or for alternate enforcement measures.
Neither Course I nor II addresses the primary policy consideration (conservation, biodiversity, legal/ethical concerns) adequately.

Therefore, neither I nor II follows. Quick Tip: Reject arguments that are irrelevant to the central policy concern (e.g., profit) or that dismiss a measure solely on assumed inefficacy without alternatives.


Question 177:

Statement: Should school education be made free in India?
Course of Action I: Yes. This is the only way to improve the level of literacy.
Course of Action II: No. It would add to the already heavy burden on the exchequer.

  • (a) Only I follows
  • (b) Only II follows
  • (c) If either I or II follows
  • (d) If neither I nor II follows
Correct Answer: (a) If only I follows
View Solution



The stated objective is improving literacy — Course I directly targets this social objective.
Course II raises a valid fiscal concern but does not negate the effectiveness of free education as a means to improve literacy; it is a contra-implementation point, not an argument against the objective.
Since the question asks which course logically follows to achieve the stated aim, only I follows.

Therefore, only Course I follows. Quick Tip: Differentiate between an argument against implementation (cost) and an argument against the objective itself (literacy); CLAT treats the objective-focused course as strong.


Question 178:

Statement: Should government jobs in rural areas have more incentives?
Course of Action I: Yes. Incentives are essential for attracting government servants there.
Course of Action II: No. Rural areas are already cheaper, healthier and less complex than big cities, so why offer extra incentives?

  • (a) Only I follows
  • (b) Only II follows
  • (c) If either I or II follows
  • (d) If neither I nor II follows
Correct Answer: (a) If only I follows
View Solution



The problem to solve is difficulty in staffing rural posts; Course I directly addresses this by proposing incentives.
Course II relies on generalisations about rural life and ignores structural drawbacks (infrastructure, career prospects, schooling, healthcare) that deter staff.
Therefore only the incentive-based course logically follows to address the stated issue.

Thus, only Course I follows. Quick Tip: When a course directly remedies the staffing/attraction problem, it is usually the correct choice; discount simplistic cost-of-living rebuttals.


Question 179:

Statement: Should luxury hotels be banned in India?
Course of Action I: Yes. They are places from where international criminals operate.
Course of Action II: No. Affluent foreign tourists will have no place to stay.

  • (a) Only I follows
  • (b) Only II follows
  • (c) If either I or II follows
  • (d) If neither I nor II follows
Correct Answer: (d) If neither I nor II follows
View Solution




Course I is an overbroad, unsupported generalisation—criminals may use many venues; banning all luxury hotels is not a justified remedy.
Course II assumes luxury hotels are the sole accommodation for affluent tourists; this is not necessarily true and does not address the concern of crime.
Neither argument reasonably supports or refutes a blanket ban based on the given statement.

Hence, neither I nor II follows. Quick Tip: Be wary of sweeping generalisations or straw-man rebuttals; CLAT treats such weak general claims as insufficient.


Question 180:

Statement: Should the political parties be banned?
Course of Action I: Yes. It is necessary to teach a lesson to the politicians.
Course of Action II: No. It will lead to an end of democracy.

  • (a) Only I follows
  • (b) Only II follows
  • (c) If either I or II follows
  • (d) If neither I nor II follows
Correct Answer: (b) If only II follows
View Solution

Course I is punitive and emotional; it does not present a reasoned policy basis for dismantling a constitutional structure.
Course II points to the fundamental constitutional implication—banning political parties would undermine democratic processes and is therefore a strong, logical objection.
Since the question asks which course logically follows, only II (which protects democratic framework) follows.

Therefore, only Course II follows. Quick Tip: Prioritise arguments grounded in constitutional or systemic consequences over emotional/punitive suggestions in CLAT reasoning items.


Question 181:

he average monthly income of a person in a certain family of 5 members is Rs. 1000. What will be monthly average income of one person in the same family if the income of one person increased by Rs. 12000/- per year?

  • (a) Rs. 1200/-
  • (b) Rs. 1600/-
  • (c) Rs. 2000/-
  • (d) Rs. 3400/-
Correct Answer: (a) Rs. 1200/-
View Solution



Initial total monthly income = \(5\times 1000=5000\) Rs.
Increase of Rs. 12000 per year = Rs. \(\dfrac{12000}{12}=1000\) per month.
New total monthly income = \(5000+1000=6000\) Rs.
Step 4: New average per person = \(6000\div 5=1200\) Rs.

Hence option (a). Quick Tip: Convert annual changes to monthly when averages are monthly; update total first, then divide for the new average.


Question 182:

A dishonest shopkeeper uses a weight of 800 gm for a kg and professes to sell his good at cost price. His profit is

  • (a) 20%
  • (b) 21%
  • (c) 24%
  • (d) 25%
Correct Answer: (d) 25%
View Solution

He charges for 1000 g but supplies only 800 g. So for every 800 g (his cost), he receives price of 1000 g.
Profit = \((1000-800)/800 \times 100% =200/800\times100%=25%\).

Hence option (d). Quick Tip: When faulty weights are used, treat SP as for full measure and CP as for actual measure given; profit = (extra/actual)% .


Question 183:

By selling 11 oranges for a rupee, a man loses 10%. How many oranges for a rupee should he sell to gain 10%?
(a) 9
(b) 10
(c) 8
(d) 5

Correct Answer:(a) 9
View Solution

Selling 11 for Rs.1 means SP per orange = \(\dfrac{1}{11}\). This SP gives 10% loss, so SP = \(0.9\times CP\). Thus \(CP = \dfrac{SP}{0.9} = \dfrac{1/11}{0.9}=\dfrac{1}{9.9}\).
For 10% gain, desired SP per orange = \(1.1\times CP = 1.1\times \dfrac{1}{9.9} = \dfrac{1}{9}\).
Thus he should sell 9 oranges for Rs.1.

Hence option (a). Quick Tip: Find CP from given loss/gain relation, then compute required SP for the desired gain and invert to get quantity per unit price.


Question 184:

 A person takes 3 hours to walk a certain distance and riding back. He could walk both ways in 5 hours. How long could it take to ride both ways.
(a) 1.5 hr
(b) 1 hr
(c) 0.5 hr
(d) 2 hr

Correct Answer:(d) 2 hr
View Solution

Let walking time one-way = \(w\), riding one-way = \(r\). Given \(w+r=3\).
Walking both ways \(2w=5\Rightarrow w=2\) hours.
Then \(r=3-w=3-2=1\) hour (one-way). Riding both ways \(=2r=2\) hours.

Hence option (d). Quick Tip: Set variables for one-way times; use given combined times to solve linear equations quickly.


Question 185:

Change 1/8 into percentage

  • (a) 12.5%
  • (b) 15%
  • (c) 8%
  • (d) 25%
Correct Answer:(a) 12.5%
View Solution

\( \dfrac{1}{8}=0.125\).
As percentage \(0.125\times100%=12.5%\).

Hence option (a). Quick Tip: Remember common fraction↔percentage conversions: \(\tfrac{1}{2}=50%\), \(\tfrac{1}{4}=25%\), \(\tfrac{1}{5}=20%\), \(\tfrac{1}{8}=12.5%\).


Question 186:

12.5% of 80 is equal to

  • (a) 8
  • (b) 20
  • (c) 10
  • (d) 40
Correct Answer:(c) 10
View Solution



Convert 12.5% to fraction form: \( 12.5% = \frac{12.5}{100} = \frac{1}{8} \).

Multiply this fraction by 80: \( \frac{1}{8} \times 80 = 10 \).

Thus, 12.5% of 80 is 10.

Hence the correct answer is (c) 10. Quick Tip: Always convert percentages to fractions or decimals before multiplying for faster mental math.


Question 187:

Which number should fill the blank space to complete the series: 1,2,4,5,7,8,10,11, ___

  • (a) 12
  • (b) 13
  • (c) 14
  • (d) 15
Correct Answer:(b) 13
View Solution



Observe the pattern: numbers come in pairs where within each pair the increment alternates +1, +2. Example: 1 (+1) 2 (+2) 4 (+1) 5 (+2) 7 (+1) 8 (+2) 10 (+1) 11.

After 11, following the pattern the next increment should be +2, so 11 + 2 = 13.

Hence the correct answer is (b) 13. Quick Tip: Look for small repeating difference patterns (e.g., +1, +2 cycles) when series alternate between two increments.


Question 188:

The smallest of the fractions given below is:

  • (a) 9/10
  • (b) 11/12
  • (c) 23/28
  • (d) 32/33
Correct Answer:(c) 23/28
View Solution



Convert each fraction to decimal (or compare by cross-multiplication). Decimal approximations: 9/10 = 0.900, 11/12 ≈ 0.9167, 23/28 ≈ 0.8214, 32/33 ≈ 0.9697.

The smallest decimal value is 0.8214 which corresponds to 23/28.

Hence the correct answer is (c) 23/28. Quick Tip: When comparing several fractions close to 1, converting to decimals or bringing to common denominator quickly shows the smallest/largest.


Question 189:

Three friends shared the cost of a television. If Amit, Bharat and Dinesh each paid Rs. 3000 and Rs. 1800 respectively, then Dinesh paid what percent of the total cost?

  • (a) 10%
  • (b) 20%
  • (c) 30%
  • (d) 40%
Correct Answer:
View Solution



I could not confidently read the scanned question text for Q189 — the amounts assigned to Amit, Bharat and Dinesh appear garbled (the phrase "each paid Rs. 3000 and Rs. 1800 respectively" is inconsistent). To compute Dinesh's percentage of the total we need the three contributions (Amit, Bharat, Dinesh).

Please confirm the exact amounts paid by Amit, Bharat and Dinesh (in the order given). Example interpretations and results:

• If the contributions were Amit = 3000, Bharat = 3000, Dinesh = 1800, then Dinesh's share = 1800 / (3000+3000+1800) = 1800/7800 ≈ 23.08% (none of the listed options).

• If the contributions were Amit = 3000, Bharat = 2000, Dinesh = 1800, then Dinesh's share = 1800/(3000+2000+1800) = 1800/6800 ≈ 26.47%.

Please upload a clearer crop of Q189 or type the three amounts and I will finish the solution in the same LaTeX format. Quick Tip: Always double-check scanned numbers when transcribing — a small OCR/read error can change the whole percentage result.


Question 190:

The average age of 29 boys of a class is equal to 14 years. When the age of the class teacher is included, the average becomes 15 years. Find the age of the class teacher.

  • (a) 44 years
  • (b) 40 years
  • (c) 52 years
  • (d) 66 years
Correct Answer:(a) 44 years
View Solution



Total age of 29 boys = 29 × 14 = 406 years.

With teacher included there are 30 people, average 15 ⇒ total = 30 × 15 = 450 years.

Teacher's age = 450 − 406 = 44 years.

Hence the correct answer is (a) 44 years. Quick Tip: Use total = average × number to handle average-with-an-extra-person type questions.


Question 191:

It takes 8 people working at equal rates to finish a work in 96 days. How long will 6 workers take for the same work?

  • (a) 92 days
  • (b) 128 days
  • (c) 111 days
  • (d) 84 days
Correct Answer:(b) 128 days
View Solution



Total work in person-days = 8 workers × 96 days = 768 person-days.

With 6 workers, days required = 768 / 6 = 128 days.

Hence the correct answer is (b) 128 days. Quick Tip: Work = number_of_workers × days (for equal-rate workers). Use person-days to switch worker counts.


Question 192:

Ram's income is 20% less than Shyam's. How much is Shyam's income more than Ram's in percentage terms?

  • (a) 20%
  • (b) 30%
  • (c) 25%
  • (d) 15%
Correct Answer:(c) 25%
View Solution



Let Shyam's income = S. Then Ram's income = S − 20% of S = 0.8S.

Shyam's income more than Ram's = S − 0.8S = 0.2S. Percentage more relative to Ram's = (0.2S / 0.8S) × 100% = 25%.

Hence the correct answer is (c) 25%. Quick Tip: If A is x% less than B, then B is ( x / (100 − x) ) × 100% more than A. For 20% less, reverse is 25% more.


Question 193:

The monthly salary of A, B and C is in the ratio 2:3:5. If C's monthly salary is Rs. 1200 more than that of A, find B's annual salary.

  • (a) Rs. 2000
  • (b) Rs. 1000
  • (c) Rs. 1500
  • (d) Rs. 1200
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Let the ratio unit be k. Then A = 2k, B = 3k, C = 5k.

Given C − A = 5k − 2k = 3k = 1200 ⇒ k = 400.

Therefore B's monthly salary = 3k = 1200. B's annual salary = 1200 × 12 = 14,400.

Hence B's annual salary = Rs. 14,400. Quick Tip: Translate ratio parts to a variable unit k, use given difference to solve for k, then compute required quantity.


Question 194:

In a town there are 94,500 people. 2/9 of them are foreigners, 6,400 are immigrants and the rest are natives. How many are natives?

  • (a) 67,100
  • (b) 27,400
  • (c) 77,600
  • (d) 88,100
Correct Answer:(a) 67,100
View Solution



Number of foreigners = (2/9) × 94,500 = 21,000.

Immigrants = 6,400. So natives = 94,500 − 21,000 − 6,400 = 67,100.

Hence the correct answer is (a) 67,100. Quick Tip: Subtract the known subgroups from the total; convert fraction-of-total first for accuracy.


Question 195:

Total salary of three persons A, B and C is Rs. 144000. They spend 80%, 85% and 75% respectively. If their savings are in the ratio 8:9:20, find C's salary.

  • (a) 48000
  • (b) 64000
  • (c) 40000
  • (d) 32000
Correct Answer:(b) Rs. 64,000
View Solution



Let salaries be A, B, C. Their savings are: A saves 20% ⇒ 0.20A, B saves 15% ⇒ 0.15B, C saves 25% ⇒ 0.25C.

Given 0.20A : 0.15B : 0.25C = 8 : 9 : 20. Let common multiplier = k. Then:

\hspace{1em0.20A = 8k ⇒ A = 40k.

\hspace{1em0.15B = 9k ⇒ B = 60k.

\hspace{1em0.25C = 20k ⇒ C = 80k.

Sum A + B + C = 40k + 60k + 80k = 180k = 144000 ⇒ k = 800.

Step 4: C = 80k = 80 × 800 = 64,000.

Hence C's salary = Rs. 64,000. Quick Tip: Express savings in terms of salary and a common multiplier to convert a ratio into absolute salaries.


Question 196:

The population of a town is 155,625. For every 1000 males there are 1075 females. If 40% of the males and 24% of the females are literate, find the percentage of literacy in the town.

  • (a) 33.7
  • (b) 32.7
  • (c) 31.7
  • (d) 30.7
Correct Answer:(c) 31.7% (approximately)
View Solution



Let ratio parts M:F = 1000 : 1075 ⇒ total parts = 2075.

Number of males = 155,625 × (1000/2075) = 75,000. Number of females = 155,625 − 75,000 = 80,625.

Literate males = 40% of 75,000 = 30,000. Literate females = 24% of 80,625 = 19,350.

Step 4: Total literates = 30,000 + 19,350 = 49,350. Percentage literacy = (49,350 / 155,625) × 100 ≈ 31.7108% ≈ 31.7%.

Hence the correct answer is (c) 31.7% (approximately). Quick Tip: Use ratio parts to split the population, then apply literacy percentages to each subgroup to get the overall rate.


Question 197:

10 sheep and 5 pigs were brought for Rs. 6000. If the average price of a sheep is Rs. 450, find the average price of pig.

  • (a) Rs. 380
  • (b) Rs. 410
  • (c) Rs. 340
  • (d) Rs. 300
Correct Answer:(d) Rs. 300
View Solution



Total cost of 10 sheep = 10 \times 450 = 4,500.

Remaining cost for 5 pigs = 6,000 − 4,500 = 1,500.

Average price per pig = 1,500 / 5 = 300.

Hence the correct answer is (d) Rs. 300. Quick Tip: Find the total cost of the known group first, subtract from overall total, then divide by the number in the remaining group.


Question 198:

Ram weighs 25 kg more than Shyam. Their combined weight is 325 kg. How much does Shyam weigh?

  • (a) 150 kg
  • (b) 200 kg
  • (c) 125 kg
  • (d) 160 kg
Correct Answer:(a) 150 kg
View Solution



Let Shyam's weight be \( x \) kg.
Then Ram's weight will be \( x + 25 \) kg.

According to the question: \[ x + (x + 25) = 325 \] \[ 2x + 25 = 325 \] \[ 2x = 300 \] \[ x = 150 \]

Therefore, Shyam weighs \( 150 \) kg. Quick Tip: In weight problems, assign variables to unknowns and translate word statements into equations for quick solving.


Question 199:

Find out the wrong number in the series: 3, 8, 15, 24, 34, 48, 63

  • (a) 24
  • (b) 34
  • (c) 15
  • (d) 63
Correct Answer:(b) 34
View Solution



Look at successive differences: 8−3=5, 15−8=7, 24−15=9, 34−24=10, 48−34=14, 63−48=15.

Expected pattern of differences is odd numbers increasing by 2: 5,7,9,11,13,15.

Replacing 34 by 35 would give differences 11 and 13 in the relevant places and the full pattern 5,7,9,11,13,15. Thus 34 is incorrect (should be 35).

Hence the wrong number is (b) 34. Quick Tip: When differences almost form a simple sequence (like odd numbers), check for a single term that breaks the incremental pattern.


Question 200:

What is the location value of 7 in the figure 9872590?

  • (a) 72590
  • (b) 7
  • (c) 70000
  • (d) 7000
Correct Answer:(c) 70000
View Solution



Write the number with place values: 9,872,590 ⇒ 9 (millions), 8 (hundred-thousands), 7 (ten-thousands), 2 (thousands), 5 (hundreds), 9 (tens), 0 (units).

The digit 7 is in the ten-thousands place, so its place (location) value = 7 × 10,000 = 70,000.

Hence the correct answer is (c) 70000. Quick Tip: Count places from the right (units = 10^0) to determine the place value: tens = 10^1, hundreds = 10^2, thousands = 10^3, ten-thousands = 10^4, etc.

CLAT Previous Year Question Paper with Answer Key PDFs

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