TS PGECET 2023 Food Technology Question Paper with Answer key PDF is available here for download. TS PGECET 2023 was conducted by JNTU Hyderabad on behalf of TSCHE on May 29, 2023. TS PGECET 2023 FT Question Paper consisted of 120 questions carrying 1 mark for each.

TS PGECET 2023 Food Technology Question Paper

TS PGECET 2023 FT Question Paper​ with Answer Key Download PDF Check Solution
TS PGECET 2023 Food Technology

Question 1:

The system of equations \[ \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 2 & 4
2 & 1 & 2
1 & 2 & a-4 \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} x
y
z \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} 6
4
a \end{bmatrix} \]
will have a unique solution for:

  • (1) \( a = 8 \)
  • (2) \( a \neq 8 \)
  • (3) \( a \in \mathbb{R} \)
  • (4) \( a \in \mathbb{Z} \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( a \neq 8 \)
View Solution

Step 1:
A system of linear equations has a unique solution if the determinant of its coefficient matrix is non-zero.

Step 2:
Compute the determinant: \[ \left| \begin{array}{ccc} 1 & 2 & 4
2 & 1 & 2
1 & 2 & a-4 \end{array} \right| \]

Step 3:
Expand the determinant using the first row: \[ = 1 \begin{vmatrix} 1 & 2
2 & a-4 \end{vmatrix} - 2 \begin{vmatrix} 2 & 2
1 & a-4 \end{vmatrix} + 4 \begin{vmatrix} 2 & 1
1 & 2 \end{vmatrix} \]

Step 4:
Simplify the minors: \[ = 1 \times (1 \times (a-4) - 2 \times 2) - 2 \times (2 \times (a-4) - 1 \times 2) + 4 \times (2 \times 2 - 1 \times 1) \]
\[ = (a-4 - 4) - 2 \times (2a-8 - 2) + 4 \times (4-1) \]
\[ = (a-8) - 2 \times (2a-10) + 4 \times 3 \]
\[ = a-8 - (4a-20) + 12 \]
\[ = a-8 - 4a + 20 + 12 \]
\[ = -3a + 24 \]

Step 5:
For unique solution: \[ -3a + 24 \neq 0 \] \[ \Rightarrow a \neq 8 \] Quick Tip: To check for unique solutions in a system of linear equations, always test if the determinant of the coefficient matrix is non-zero. A zero determinant means no or infinitely many solutions.


Question 2:

If \[ A = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 2 & 2
2 & 1 & 2
2 & 2 & 1 \end{bmatrix} \]
satisfies the matrix equation \[ A^3 - 3A^2 + KA - 5I = 0 \]
then \( K = \)

  • (1) \( -8 \)
  • (2) \( 8 \)
  • (3) \( -9 \)
  • (4) \( 9 \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( -9 \)
View Solution

Step 1:
Use the Cayley-Hamilton theorem: A square matrix satisfies its own characteristic equation.

Step 2:
Find the characteristic equation of matrix \( A \): \[ |A - \lambda I| = 0 \]
\[ = \begin{vmatrix} 1-\lambda & 2 & 2
2 & 1-\lambda & 2
2 & 2 & 1-\lambda \end{vmatrix} \]

Step 3:
Expand the determinant: \[ = (1-\lambda)\left( (1-\lambda)^2 - 4 \right) - 2 \left( 2(1-\lambda) - 4 \right) + 2 \left( 4 - 2(1-\lambda) \right) \]

Simplify: \[ = (1-\lambda)\left( \lambda^2 - 2\lambda - 3 \right) \] \[ = (1-\lambda)(\lambda-3)(\lambda+1) \]

Step 4:
So, characteristic equation: \[ (\lambda-3)(\lambda-(-1))(\lambda-1) = 0 \]

Step 5:
Therefore, the characteristic polynomial is: \[ \lambda^3 - 3\lambda^2 - 9\lambda - 5 = 0 \]

Comparing with the given matrix equation: \[ A^3 - 3A^2 + KA - 5I = 0 \]

We find that: \[ K = -9 \] Quick Tip: When a matrix satisfies a polynomial equation, use the Cayley-Hamilton theorem to equate the characteristic equation with the given equation and compare coefficients directly.


Question 3:

The value of \[ \int_{0}^{1} \frac{35x^3}{32\sqrt{1-x}}\, dx \]
is:

  • (1) \( 1 \)
  • (2) \( 3 \)
  • (3) \( \frac{35}{32} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{32}{35} \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( 1 \)
View Solution

Step 1:
Consider the given integral: \[ I = \int_{0}^{1} \frac{35x^3}{32\sqrt{1-x}}\, dx \]

Step 2:
Use the Beta function identity: \[ \int_{0}^{1} x^{m-1}(1-x)^{n-1}\, dx = B(m,n) \]
where \[ B(m,n) = \frac{\Gamma(m)\Gamma(n)}{\Gamma(m+n)} \]

Step 3:
Compare: \[ \frac{35}{32} x^3 (1-x)^{-\frac{1}{2}} \]
with \[ x^{m-1}(1-x)^{n-1} \]
We have: \( m-1 = 3 \Rightarrow m = 4 \) \( n-1 = -\frac{1}{2} \Rightarrow n = \frac{1}{2} \)

Step 4:
Now apply the Beta function formula: \[ I = \frac{35}{32} \times B(4,\frac{1}{2}) \]

Step 5:
Use the Beta function value: \[ B(m,n) = \frac{\Gamma(m)\Gamma(n)}{\Gamma(m+n)} \]
and \[ \Gamma(4) = 3! = 6, \ \Gamma\left(\frac{1}{2}\right) = \sqrt{\pi}, \ \Gamma\left(4 + \frac{1}{2}\right) = \Gamma\left(\frac{9}{2}\right) \]

But it's better to use the property: \[ B(m,n) = \frac{\Gamma(m)\Gamma(n)}{\Gamma(m+n)} = \frac{\Gamma(4)\Gamma(\frac{1}{2})}{\Gamma(\frac{9}{2})} \]

Using \(\Gamma(\frac{9}{2}) = \frac{105\sqrt{\pi}}{16}\)

Now: \[ I = \frac{35}{32} \times \frac{6 \times \sqrt{\pi}}{\frac{105 \sqrt{\pi}}{16}} = \frac{35}{32} \times \frac{6 \times 16}{105} = \frac{35}{32} \times \frac{96}{105} = \frac{3360}{3360} = 1 \] Quick Tip: When integrating expressions of the form \( x^m (1-x)^n \) over \([0,1]\), consider using the Beta function for a quicker solution.


Question 4:

The greatest value of the directional derivative of the function \[ f = \frac{x^3}{3} + y + z^2 \]
at \( (-1, 1, 1) \) is:

  • (1) \( \sqrt{3} \)
  • (2) \( \sqrt{5} \)
  • (3) \( \sqrt{7} \)
  • (4) \( \sqrt{6} \)
Correct Answer: (4) \( \sqrt{6} \)
View Solution

Step 1:
The greatest value of the directional derivative at a point is the magnitude of the gradient vector at that point: \[ |\nabla f| \]

Step 2:
Compute the gradient: \[ \nabla f = \left( \frac{\partial f}{\partial x}, \frac{\partial f}{\partial y}, \frac{\partial f}{\partial z} \right) \] \[ = (x^2, 1, 2z) \]

Step 3:
Evaluate at \( (-1, 1, 1) \): \[ \nabla f|_{(-1,1,1)} = (1, 1, 2) \]

Step 4:
Find the magnitude: \[ |\nabla f| = \sqrt{1^2 + 1^2 + 2^2} = \sqrt{1 + 1 + 4} = \sqrt{6} \] Quick Tip: The maximum value of the directional derivative at any point is simply the magnitude of the gradient vector at that point — no need to compute any direction vector.


Question 5:

If a random variable has a Poisson distribution such that \[ P(X=1) = P(X=2), \]
then \( P(X=4) \) is:

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{4} e^{-2} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{1}{3} e^{-2} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{2}{3} e^{-2} \)
  • (4) \( e^{-2} \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( \frac{2}{3} e^{-2} \)
View Solution

Step 1:
The Poisson probability formula is: \[ P(X = k) = \frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^k}{k!} \]

Step 2:
Given \( P(X=1) = P(X=2) \) \[ \frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^1}{1!} = \frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^2}{2!} \]

Step 3:
Simplify and solve for \( \lambda \) \[ \lambda = \frac{\lambda^2}{2} \] \[ \lambda^2 - 2\lambda = 0 \] \[ \lambda(\lambda - 2) = 0 \]
Since \( \lambda \) cannot be 0 for a Poisson distribution, \[ \lambda = 2 \]

Step 4:
Now, find \( P(X=4) \) \[ P(X=4) = \frac{e^{-2} 2^4}{4!} = \frac{e^{-2} \times 16}{24} = \frac{2}{3} e^{-2} \] Quick Tip: For Poisson distribution problems, use the standard probability formula carefully and equate probabilities as given in the question to find the unknown parameter.


Question 6:

If the density function of continuous random variable \( X \) is given by \[ f(X=x) = \begin{cases} \frac{1}{\beta} e^{-\left(\frac{x}{\beta}\right)}, & x>0
0, & otherwise \end{cases} \]
then the mean of the distribution is:

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{\beta} \)
  • (2) \( \beta \)
  • (3) \( \beta^2 \)
  • (4) \( \beta^3 \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( \beta \)
View Solution

This is the probability density function (pdf) of an exponential distribution: \[ f(x) = \frac{1}{\beta} e^{-x/\beta}, \quad x > 0 \]

The mean (expected value) of an exponential distribution is: \[ E(X) = \beta \]

Hence, the mean of this distribution is \( \beta \). Quick Tip: For an exponential distribution with pdf \( f(x) = \frac{1}{\beta} e^{-x/\beta} \), the mean is always \( \beta \) and variance is \( \beta^2 \).


Question 7:

If \( D^n = \frac{d^n}{dx^n} \) then \[ \frac{1}{D^2 + 9} \sin 3x = \]

  • (1) \( \frac{-x}{6} \cos 3x \)
  • (2) \( \frac{x}{6} \cos 3x \)
  • (3) \( \frac{-x}{6} \sin 3x \)
  • (4) \( \frac{x}{6} \sin 3x \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( \frac{-x}{6} \cos 3x \)
View Solution

We use the operator method for linear differential equations. Given: \[ \frac{1}{D^2 + 9} \sin 3x \]

Since \( D^2 \sin 3x = -9 \sin 3x \), substitute: \[ = \frac{1}{-9 + 9} \sin 3x \]

But the denominator becomes zero, so apply the method of inverse operators for repeated roots: \[ = \frac{x}{2 \cdot 3} \cdot \frac{\cos 3x}{3} = \frac{-x}{6} \cos 3x \] Quick Tip: When the auxiliary equation has a repeated root (like here \( D^2+9=0 \) for \( \sin 3x \)), use the method of inverse operators with an \( x \) multiplier to find a particular integral.


Question 8:

The Laplace transform of \( \left\{ t e^{2t} \sin 3t \right\} \) is:

  • (1) \( \frac{s-2}{\left(s^2 - 4s + 13\right)} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{s-2}{\left(s^2 - 4s + 13\right)^2} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{6(s+2)}{\left(s^2 - 4s + 13\right)^2} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{6(s-2)}{\left(s^2 - 4s + 13\right)^2} \)
Correct Answer: (4) \( \frac{6(s-2)}{\left(s^2 - 4s + 13\right)^2} \)
View Solution

We use the formula: \[ \mathcal{L}\left\{ t e^{a t} \sin b t \right\} = \frac{2b (s-a)}{\left[ (s-a)^2 + b^2 \right]^2} \]

Given: \[ a = 2, \ b = 3 \]

Substituting: \[ = \frac{2 \times 3 \times (s-2)}{\left[(s-2)^2 + 9\right]^2} \]

Simplifying denominator: \[ (s-2)^2 + 9 = s^2 - 4s + 13 \]

So final Laplace transform: \[ = \frac{6(s-2)}{\left(s^2 - 4s + 13\right)^2} \] Quick Tip: Always remember to multiply by \( t \) in the Laplace transform formula increases the power of the denominator by 1 and multiplies the numerator by 2\( b \).


Question 9:

If \( \frac{dy}{dx} = x + y^2 \), \( y(0) = 1 \), then by Picard's method the second approximation \( y^{(2)}(x) \) is:

  • (1) \( 1 + x + \frac{3}{2} x^2 \)
  • (2) \( 1 + x + \frac{3}{2} x^2 + \frac{2}{3} x^3 \)
  • (3) \( 1 + x + \frac{3}{2} x^2 + \frac{2}{3} x^3 + \frac{x^4}{4} + \frac{x^5}{20} \)
  • (4) \( 1 + x + \frac{3}{2} x^2 + \frac{2}{3} x^3 + \frac{x^4}{4} + \frac{x^5}{20} + \frac{x^6}{120} \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( 1 + x + \frac{3}{2} x^2 + \frac{2}{3} x^3 + \frac{x^4}{4} + \frac{x^5}{20} \)
View Solution

Picard's successive approximations: \[ y^{(0)}(x) = 1 \] \[ y^{(1)}(x) = 1 + \int_0^x \left( t + 1^2 \right) dt = 1 + \frac{x^2}{2} + x \] \[ y^{(2)}(x) = 1 + \int_0^x \left( t + \left( 1 + t + \frac{t^2}{2} \right)^2 \right) dt \]
Expanding and integrating term-by-term gives: \[ = 1 + x + \frac{3}{2} x^2 + \frac{2}{3} x^3 + \frac{x^4}{4} + \frac{x^5}{20} \] Quick Tip: In Picard’s method, each iteration integrates the function of \( x \) and the previous approximation, so remember to expand and integrate carefully.


Question 10:

The Newton-Raphson iteration formula for finding \( \sqrt[3]{20} \) is

  • (A) \( x_{n+1} = \dfrac{2x_n^3 - 20}{3x_n^2} \)
  • (B) \( x_{n+1} = \dfrac{2x_n^3 + 20}{x_n^3} \)
  • (C) \( x_{n+1} = \dfrac{x_n^3 + 20}{3x_n^2} \)
  • (D) \( x_{n+1} = \dfrac{2x_n^3 + 20}{3x_n^2} \)
Correct Answer: (D) \( x_{n+1} = \dfrac{2x_n^3 + 20}{3x_n^2} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Let \( f(x) = x^3 - 20 \). We want to find the cube root of 20, i.e., solve \( f(x) = 0 \).

Step 2: The Newton-Raphson formula is: \[ x_{n+1} = x_n - \dfrac{f(x_n)}{f'(x_n)} \]

Step 3: Compute the derivative: \[ f'(x) = 3x^2 \]

Step 4: Substitute into the formula: \[ x_{n+1} = x_n - \dfrac{x_n^3 - 20}{3x_n^2} = \dfrac{3x_n^3 - (x_n^3 - 20)}{3x_n^2} = \dfrac{2x_n^3 + 20}{3x_n^2} \]

Step 5: This matches option (D). Quick Tip: For root-finding using Newton-Raphson, set \( f(x) = 0 \) and apply \( x_{n+1} = x_n - \frac{f(x_n)}{f'(x_n)} \). Use derivatives carefully.


Question 11:

Which of the following is an end compound of Strecker degradation?

  • (A) Acid
  • (B) Ester
  • (C) Aldehyde
  • (D) Ketone
Correct Answer: (C) Aldehyde
View Solution

Step 1: Strecker degradation involves the breakdown of amino acids in the presence of reducing sugars and heat.

Step 2: In this process, the amino group is removed, and the resulting compound is typically an aldehyde.

Step 3: Therefore, aldehydes are the end compounds formed in Strecker degradation. Quick Tip: Remember: Strecker degradation ends with the formation of aldehydes — useful in flavor chemistry and amino acid degradation pathways.


Question 12:

Rancidity is progressed through the formation of

  • (A) Free radicals
  • (B) Carbanions
  • (C) Carbocations
  • (D) Carbenes
Correct Answer: (A) Free radicals
View Solution

Step 1: Rancidity is the oxidation of fats and oils, especially unsaturated fatty acids.

Step 2: This process is initiated and propagated by free radical chain reactions.

Step 3: Free radicals react with oxygen, leading to peroxides and aldehydes, contributing to the unpleasant smell and taste. Quick Tip: Oxidative rancidity is a free radical-driven process—think of free radicals as the culprits behind spoilage of fats.


Question 13:

Flavour reversion in oils can be defined as

  • (A) Rancidity due to oxygen
  • (B) Rancidity caused due to reaction with water
  • (C) Flavour change before the onset of rancidity
  • (D) Rancidity caused due to fungi
Correct Answer: (C) Flavour change before the onset of rancidity
View Solution

Step 1: Flavour reversion refers to the early stage deterioration of edible oils and fats.

Step 2: It occurs before rancidity, involving minor chemical changes that affect taste and smell.

Step 3: It is not necessarily due to microbial or oxidative processes like true rancidity, but indicates initial degradation. Quick Tip: Flavour reversion is a warning sign — it occurs before oils become rancid. Watch for taste changes even when spoilage isn’t obvious.


Question 14:

Linoleic acid is

  • (A) \(\omega\)-2 fatty acid
  • (B) \(\omega\)-3 fatty acid
  • (C) \(\omega\)-4 fatty acid
  • (D) \(\omega\)-6 fatty acid
Correct Answer: (D) \(\omega\)-6 fatty acid
View Solution

Step 1: Linoleic acid is a polyunsaturated fatty acid with 18 carbon atoms and two double bonds.

Step 2: The first double bond occurs at the sixth carbon from the methyl (omega) end, classifying it as an \(\omega\)-6 fatty acid.

Step 3: Omega-6 fatty acids are essential nutrients important for cellular function and inflammation regulation. Quick Tip: To identify omega fatty acids, count from the methyl end to the first double bond. Linoleic acid’s first bond is at position 6 → \(\omega\)-6.


Question 15:

The product of heating sugar above its melting point in acidic condition is

  • (A) Fructose
  • (B) Caramel
  • (C) Amylose
  • (D) Glyoxalates
Correct Answer: (B) Caramel
View Solution

Step 1: When sugar is heated above its melting point, especially under acidic conditions, it undergoes decomposition.

Step 2: This leads to a process known as caramelization, producing a brown, sticky substance called caramel.

Step 3: Other options such as fructose or amylose are unrelated to this thermal degradation process. Quick Tip: Caramel is formed from sugar when heated — not a new sugar like fructose, but a breakdown product with a brown color and distinct aroma.


Question 16:

Raffinose is made up of

  • (A) Mannose, glucose and galactose
  • (B) Mannose, fructose and galactose
  • (C) Glucose, fructose and galactose
  • (D) Glucose, fructose and sucrose
Correct Answer: (C) Glucose, fructose and galactose
View Solution

Step 1: Raffinose is a trisaccharide made up of three monosaccharides: galactose, glucose, and fructose.

Step 2: Structurally, it consists of a galactose unit joined to a sucrose molecule (which is glucose + fructose).

Step 3: Therefore, the correct composition is glucose, fructose, and galactose. Quick Tip: Remember: raffinose = galactose + sucrose → and sucrose = glucose + fructose.


Question 17:

Scurvy is a disease caused due to deficiency of

  • (A) Vitamin A
  • (B) Vitamin C
  • (C) Vitamin K
  • (D) Vitamin D
Correct Answer: (B) Vitamin C
View Solution

Step 1: Scurvy is a condition that results from a prolonged deficiency of Vitamin C (ascorbic acid).

Step 2: Vitamin C is essential for collagen synthesis, and its absence weakens connective tissues, leading to symptoms like bleeding gums, weakness, and joint pain.

Step 3: Hence, Vitamin C deficiency is the correct cause of scurvy. Quick Tip: Scurvy = Vitamin C deficiency. Think: C for Collagen, C for Citrus — both linked to Vitamin C!


Question 18:

Vitamin K naturally occurs as

  • (A) Phylloquinone
  • (B) Menaquinone
  • (C) Napthoquinone
  • (D) Cystoquinone
Correct Answer: (A) Phylloquinone
View Solution

Step 1: Vitamin K exists primarily in two natural forms: Vitamin K\(_1\) (Phylloquinone) and Vitamin K\(_2\) (Menaquinone).

Step 2: Phylloquinone is the main form found in plants and is the primary dietary source.

Step 3: Therefore, the naturally occurring form of Vitamin K in most diets is Phylloquinone. Quick Tip: Vitamin K from leafy greens = Phylloquinone (K\(_1\)). Remember: “Phyto” = plants!


Question 19:

Zinc decreases the bioavailability of

  • (A) Calcium
  • (B) Magnesium
  • (C) Copper
  • (D) Iron
Correct Answer: (C) Copper
View Solution

Step 1: Zinc and copper compete for absorption in the gastrointestinal tract.

Step 2: High levels of zinc induce the synthesis of metallothionein, a protein that binds copper and prevents its absorption.

Step 3: Therefore, increased zinc intake reduces the bioavailability of copper. Quick Tip: Remember: Excessive zinc intake can lead to copper deficiency due to competitive absorption.


Question 20:

Chemically Annatto is

  • (A) Carotenoids
  • (B) Flavonoids
  • (C) Heme Pigment
  • (D) Pheaols
Correct Answer: (A) Carotenoids
View Solution

Step 1: Annatto is a natural food coloring derived from the seeds of the achiote tree.

Step 2: Its primary pigments are bixin and norbixin, which are carotenoids.

Step 3: Thus, chemically, annatto is classified under carotenoids. Quick Tip: Think of Annatto as a plant-based colorant rich in carotenoids like bixin — not a flavonoid!


Question 21:

After removal of Mg ion from chlorophyll the compound formed is

  • (A) Heptochlorophyll
  • (B) Pheophytin
  • (C) Chlorophillide
  • (D) Mesochlorophyl
Correct Answer: (B) Pheophytin
View Solution

Step 1: Chlorophyll contains a central magnesium ion in its porphyrin ring.

Step 2: When Mg\(^{2+}\) is removed from chlorophyll, the resulting compound is pheophytin.

Step 3: Pheophytin is a magnesium-free derivative that plays a role in photosynthesis as an electron carrier. Quick Tip: Think: Mg\(^{2+}\) removal from chlorophyll always gives pheophytin — a key intermediate in electron transport.


Question 22:

The number of amino acids per turn of helical structure is

  • (A) 3.0
  • (B) 3.2
  • (C) 3.6
  • (D) 4.0
Correct Answer: (C) 3.6
View Solution

Step 1: The alpha-helix is a common structural motif in proteins.

Step 2: Each full turn of the alpha-helix consists of approximately 3.6 amino acid residues.

Step 3: This structure is stabilized by hydrogen bonding between the \( N-H \) of one amino acid and the \( C=O \) of another four residues earlier. Quick Tip: Remember the magic number: 3.6 amino acids per turn in an alpha-helix structure.


Question 23:

Propyl gallate is used in Fat / Oil processing as

  • (A) Plasticizer
  • (B) Emulsifier
  • (C) Synergistic
  • (D) Antioxidant
Correct Answer: (D) Antioxidant
View Solution

Step 1: Propyl gallate is a type of phenolic antioxidant.

Step 2: It is commonly added to edible oils and fats to prevent oxidation.

Step 3: This helps in extending shelf life and preserving food quality by preventing rancidity. Quick Tip: Remember: Propyl gallate = antioxidant used to prevent oxidation in oils/fats.


Question 24:

Biuret test is for the qualitative analysis of

  • (A) Reducing Sugar
  • (B) Proteins
  • (C) Saturated fatty acid
  • (D) Vitamin A
Correct Answer: (B) Proteins
View Solution

Step 1: The Biuret test is used to detect peptide bonds.

Step 2: Proteins contain peptide bonds, which react with copper(II) ions in alkaline conditions to give a violet/purple complex.

Step 3: The appearance of a violet color confirms the presence of proteins. Quick Tip: Biuret test = Protein test. Violet color = Peptide bonds detected.


Question 25:

Cobalamin is known as

  • (1) Vitamin B-1
  • (2) Vitamin B-2
  • (3) Vitamin B-6
  • (4) Vitamin B-12
Correct Answer: (4) Vitamin B-12
View Solution

Step 1: Cobalamin is the scientific name for Vitamin B-12.

Step 2: It plays a crucial role in red blood cell formation, neurological function, and DNA synthesis.

Step 3: Deficiency of Vitamin B-12 can cause megaloblastic anemia. Quick Tip: Cobalamin = Vitamin B-12. Important for red blood cells and nerve health.


Question 26:

The logarithmic order of death for bacterial population is described by

  • (1) Decimal reduction time
  • (2) Death rate curve
  • (3) Death Production curve
  • (4) Death reduction curve
Correct Answer: (2) Death rate curve
View Solution

Step 1: A death rate curve plots the logarithmic decline in the number of viable microorganisms over time.

Step 2: It is used to study microbial inactivation kinetics during food processing and sterilization.

Step 3: This curve helps determine appropriate processing times for microbial safety. Quick Tip: Logarithmic microbial death → described by the death rate curve.


Question 27:

The food product which is like soft cheese made by curdling fresh hot soya milk with coagulant is

  • (1) Tofu
  • (2) Tempeh
  • (3) Cheddar cheese
  • (4) Paneer
Correct Answer: (1) Tofu
View Solution

Step 1: Tofu is made by curdling fresh hot soya milk, typically using a coagulant like calcium sulfate or magnesium chloride.

Step 2: This process is similar to how cheese is made from dairy milk, resulting in a soft, cheese-like product.

Step 3: Tempeh and paneer differ in source and method, while cheddar is a fermented dairy product. Quick Tip: Tofu = Soya milk + coagulant → curdled into soft cheese-like texture.


Question 28:

Cheddar cheese is manufactured using lipase extracted from

  • (1) Penicillium camemberti
  • (2) Kid pre-gastric lipase
  • (3) Aspergillus niger
  • (4) Lamb pre-gastric lipase
Correct Answer: (3) Aspergillus niger
View Solution

Step 1: Lipases are enzymes that hydrolyze fats and are used in cheese manufacturing for flavor development.

Step 2: In cheddar cheese production, microbial lipases from Aspergillus niger are commonly used due to their efficiency and non-animal origin.

Step 3: Animal lipases (kid/lamb) are used in some cheeses but not typically in cheddar. Quick Tip: Cheddar cheese → uses microbial lipase from \textit{Aspergillus niger.


Question 29:

Which of the following acid will have higher bacteriostatic effect at a given pH

  • (1) Acetic acid
  • (2) Tartaric acid
  • (3) Citric acid
  • (4) Maleic acid
Correct Answer: (1) Acetic acid
View Solution

Step 1: Bacteriostatic effect depends on the undissociated acid form at a specific pH.

Step 2: Acetic acid remains more undissociated and thus penetrates microbial membranes effectively.

Step 3: This enhances its ability to inhibit microbial growth compared to other listed acids. Quick Tip: More undissociated acid at given pH → Stronger bacteriostatic effect (e.g., Acetic acid).


Question 30:

Which of the following is not true for the thermal resistance of the bacterial cells?

  • (1) Cocci are usually more resistant than rods
  • (2) Higher the optimal and maximal temperatures for growth, higher the resistance
  • (3) Bacteria that clump considerably or form capsules are difficult to kill
  • (4) Cells low in lipid content are harder to kill than other cells
Correct Answer: (1) Cocci are usually more resistant than rods
View Solution

Step 1: Rod-shaped bacteria, especially spore-forming types, tend to be more heat resistant.

Step 2: Cocci are generally less thermally resistant than rods.

Step 3: Statements (2), (3), and (4) are true and supported by microbial heat resistance principles. Quick Tip: Cocci are generally less heat resistant than rods — opposite of what's stated.


Question 31:

Yeast and mould count determination requires

  • (1) Nutrient agar
  • (2) Acidified potato glucose agar
  • (3) MacConkey agar
  • (4) Violet Red Bile agar
Correct Answer: (2) Acidified potato glucose agar
View Solution

Step 1: Yeast and molds prefer acidic conditions for growth.

Step 2: Acidified potato glucose agar is a selective medium with low pH that favors fungi over bacteria.

Step 3: Other media like MacConkey and VRBA are selective for bacteria, not fungi. Quick Tip: Acidified media like potato glucose agar → ideal for fungal (yeast and mold) counts.


Question 32:

The time temperature combination for HTST pasteurization at 71.1°C for 15 sec is selected on the basis of

  • (1) Coxiella burnetii
  • (2) E. coli
  • (3) Subtilis
  • (4) Botulinum
Correct Answer: (1) Coxiella burnetii
View Solution

Step 1: HTST (High Temperature Short Time) pasteurization targets the most heat-resistant non-spore-forming pathogen.

Step 2: Coxiella burnetii, the causative agent of Q-fever, is that organism.

Step 3: Eliminating \textit{C. burnetii ensures safety against other less heat-resistant pathogens. Quick Tip: HTST pasteurization → based on killing \textit{Coxiella burnetii.


Question 33:

Microorganisms used in biotechnology primarily shall not

  • (1) Grow rapidly in cheap culture medium
  • (2) be readily manipulated
  • (3) be pathogenic
  • (4) be omnipotent
Correct Answer: (3) be pathogenic
View Solution

Step 1: Ideal biotech microbes must be safe and non-pathogenic to ensure safe handling.

Step 2: Traits like fast growth, low-cost media, and manipulability are desirable.

Step 3: Pathogenicity poses safety risks in industrial and research applications. Quick Tip: Biotech microbes → should be safe (non-pathogenic), easy to grow and modify.


Question 34:

Fermentation is

  • (1) An aerobic process of converting sugars into alcohols or acids and carbon dioxide
  • (2) An aerobic process of converting sugars into alcohols or acids and Oxygen
  • (3) An anaerobic process of converting sugars into alcohols or acids and oxygen
  • (4) An anaerobic process of converting sugars into alcohols or acids and carbon dioxide
Correct Answer: (4) An anaerobic process of converting sugars into alcohols or acids and carbon dioxide
View Solution

Step 1: Fermentation occurs in the absence of oxygen (anaerobic conditions).

Step 2: Microorganisms convert sugars into alcohols (e.g., ethanol) or acids (e.g., lactic acid).

Step 3: Carbon dioxide is often a by-product in many fermentative processes. Quick Tip: Fermentation = Anaerobic conversion of sugar → alcohol/acid + CO\textsubscript{2}.


Question 35:

Cider is the product obtained from

  • (1) Fermentation of plum
  • (2) Fermentation of Peach
  • (3) Fermentation of Apple
  • (4) Distillation of wine
Correct Answer: (3) Fermentation of Apple
View Solution

Step 1: Cider is an alcoholic beverage derived from apples.

Step 2: It is made by fermenting apple juice using yeast.

Step 3: Other fruits like plum or peach are not typically used for cider. Quick Tip: Cider = Fermented apple juice.


Question 36:

Separating the outer hull from inner hull is called

  • (1) Tulling
  • (2) Dehulling
  • (3) Shelling
  • (4) Beating
Correct Answer: (2) Dehulling
View Solution

Step 1: Dehulling is the process of removing the outer husk from grains or seeds.

Step 2: It improves digestibility and processing quality.

Step 3: Commonly used in legumes, millets, and oilseeds. Quick Tip: Dehulling = Removing outer husk from seeds/grains.


Question 37:

Which of the following bioactive component is rich in Oats?

  • (1) \(\beta\)-Glucan
  • (2) Glutamic acid
  • (3) \(\beta\)-Glucose
  • (4) \(\alpha\)-Amylase
Correct Answer: (1) \(\beta\)-Glucan
View Solution

Step 1: Oats are known for high \(\beta\)-glucan content, a soluble fiber.

Step 2: It helps lower cholesterol and supports heart health.

Step 3: Other options are either amino acids or enzymes not specifically abundant in oats. Quick Tip: Oats = Rich in \(\beta\)-glucan → key dietary fiber with heart benefits.


Question 38:

Which of the following moisture content is considered safe for storage of food grains?

  • (1) 15%
  • (2) 14%
  • (3) 16%
  • (4) 17%
Correct Answer: (2) 14%
View Solution

Step 1: Safe grain storage requires moisture content low enough to inhibit microbial and insect growth.

Step 2: 14% or lower is considered ideal for most cereals.

Step 3: Higher moisture levels promote spoilage and aflatoxin development. Quick Tip: Safe storage moisture for grains = ≤ 14%.


Question 39:

Parboiling of rice originated from?

  • (1) Bhutan
  • (2) India
  • (3) Nepal
  • (4) USA
Correct Answer: (2) India
View Solution

Step 1: Parboiling is a hydrothermal process applied to paddy before milling.

Step 2: The process was historically developed in the Indian subcontinent.

Step 3: It improves nutritional content and reduces grain breakage during milling. Quick Tip: India is the origin of the rice parboiling process.


Question 40:

Indian Institute of Wheat and Barley is situated in

  • (1) Ghaziabad, Uttar Pradesh
  • (2) Bhubaneswar, Odisha
  • (3) Dharwad, Karnataka
  • (4) Karnal, Haryana
Correct Answer: (4) Karnal, Haryana
View Solution

Step 1: The Indian Institute of Wheat and Barley Research (IIWBR) is a premier institution under ICAR.

Step 2: It is located in Karnal, Haryana.

Step 3: It conducts advanced research and development in wheat and barley improvement and production. Quick Tip: IIWBR is located in Karnal, Haryana — focus: wheat & barley R\&D.


Question 41:

The oil, which experiences flavor reversion even at the lower peroxide value is _______.

  • (1) Mustard
  • (2) Soybean
  • (3) Palm
  • (4) Sesame
Correct Answer: (2) Soybean
View Solution

Step 1: Flavor reversion is the development of off-flavors in edible oils even at low levels of oxidation.

Step 2: Soybean oil is particularly prone to this, even at low peroxide values.

Step 3: This makes flavor stability a key challenge in soybean oil processing and storage. Quick Tip: Soybean oil undergoes flavor reversion at low peroxide values.


Question 42:

What treatment should be given to pulses which are hard to dehusk?

  • (1) Soak with hot water
  • (2) Apply red earth
  • (3) Soak with cold water
  • (4) Apply black soil
Correct Answer: (2) Apply red earth
View Solution

Step 1: Pulses that are difficult to dehusk are treated before milling to improve husk removal.

Step 2: Applying red earth helps loosen the husk.

Step 3: This traditional method enhances milling efficiency and reduces losses. Quick Tip: Apply red earth to ease dehusking of hard pulses.


Question 43:

What is the drying temperature of pulses in mechanically heated air dryers?

  • (1) 26–48\degree C
  • (2) 60–120\degree C
  • (3) 80–135\degree C
  • (4) 100–120\degree C
Correct Answer: (2) 60–120\degree C
View Solution

Step 1: Mechanical air dryers are used for controlled drying of pulses.

Step 2: The recommended drying temperature range is 60–120°C to prevent damage and preserve quality.

Step 3: Proper drying improves shelf life and milling performance. Quick Tip: Pulse drying in air dryers: 60–120°C is optimal.


Question 44:

Yellow Revolution is related to \hspace{1cm}.

  • (1) Oilseed production
  • (2) Fish production
  • (3) Paddy production
  • (4) Pulse production
Correct Answer: (1) Oilseed production
View Solution

Step 1: The Yellow Revolution in India focused on increasing oilseed production.

Step 2: It aimed at achieving self-sufficiency in edible oils.

Step 3: It paralleled the Green and White revolutions in its impact on agriculture. Quick Tip: Yellow Revolution = Oilseed boom in India.


Question 45:

Pitambari is a variety of ___.

  • (1) Wheat
  • (2) Mustard
  • (3) Gram
  • (4) Paddy
Correct Answer: (2) Mustard
View Solution

Step 1: Pitambari is a popular cultivar known for its high yield.

Step 2: It belongs to the mustard group of oilseeds.

Step 3: It is widely cultivated in India. Quick Tip: Pitambari is a mustard variety.


Question 46:

The delayed bitterness of citrus fruit juices is due to

  • (1) Turpentine
  • (2) Peroxide
  • (3) Limonin
  • (4) Phenol
Correct Answer: (3) Limonin
View Solution

Step 1: Limonin is a bitter compound found in citrus fruits.

Step 2: It develops slowly after juice extraction, causing delayed bitterness.

Step 3: This compound is especially prevalent in oranges and lemons. Quick Tip: Limonin causes delayed bitterness in citrus juices.


Question 47:

Which of the following is commonly used preservative in tomato sauce?

  • (1) Sulphur-di-oxide
  • (2) Salicylic acid
  • (3) Potassium sorbate
  • (4) Sodium benzoate
Correct Answer: (4) Sodium benzoate
View Solution

Step 1: Preservatives are used to extend the shelf life of food.

Step 2: Sodium benzoate is a widely used preservative in acidic foods like tomato sauce.

Step 3: It inhibits the growth of bacteria, yeast, and fungi. Quick Tip: Sodium benzoate is the standard preservative in tomato sauce.


Question 48:

Sticking of powder to wall of the chamber during spray drying of fruit juice is due to

  • (1) Low glass transition temperature of the compounds in juice
  • (2) High glass transition temperature of the compounds in juice
  • (3) Improper processing parameters of spray dryer
  • (4) Presence of gums in feed material
Correct Answer: (1) Low glass transition temperature of the compounds in juice
View Solution

Step 1: During spray drying, juice solids with low glass transition temperature tend to become sticky.

Step 2: This causes powder to adhere to the dryer walls.

Step 3: Proper formulation and carriers help mitigate this issue. Quick Tip: Low glass transition temperature leads to wall sticking in spray drying.


Question 49:

Which of the following term explains, blanching influences vegetable tissues?

  • (1) Enzymes production
  • (2) Alteration of cytoplasmic membrane
  • (3) Stabilization of cytoplasmic proteins
  • (4) Stabilization of nuclear proteins
Correct Answer: (2) Alteration of cytoplasmic membrane
View Solution

Step 1: Blanching causes physical changes in tissues.

Step 2: This includes alteration of cytoplasmic membranes to inactivate enzymes. Quick Tip: Blanching alters cytoplasmic membranes in vegetables.


Question 50:

Which of the following is an oil soluble pigment present in fruits and vegetables?

  • (1) Flavonoids
  • (2) Carotenoids
  • (3) Anthocyanins
  • (4) Tannins
Correct Answer: (2) Carotenoids
View Solution

Step 1: Carotenoids are lipid-soluble pigments.

Step 2: They are responsible for red, yellow, and orange coloration in produce. Quick Tip: Carotenoids are oil soluble pigments in fruits & veggies.


Question 51:

Which of the following vegetable consumption could significantly reduce the chances of atherosclerosis

  • (1) USFA (Unsaturated Fatty acids)
  • (2) SFA (Saturated Fatty acids)
  • (3) Waxes
  • (4) SCFA (Short Chain Fatty acids)
Correct Answer: (1) USFA (Unsaturated Fatty acids)
View Solution

Step 1: Unsaturated fats help lower LDL cholesterol levels.

Step 2: This reduces the risk of arterial blockage and atherosclerosis. Quick Tip: USFAs are heart-friendly and reduce atherosclerosis risk.


Question 52:

What is the Temperature and Time required for the Sterilization of Fruits and acidic vegetables like tomato?

  • (1) 100\degree C for 30 minutes
  • (2) 100\degree C for 1 minute
  • (3) 65\degree C for 15 minutes
  • (4) 140\degree F for 10 minutes
Correct Answer: (1) 100\degree C for 30 minutes
View Solution

Step 1: Acidic foods require lower sterilization temperature.

Step 2: 100\degree C for 30 minutes ensures safety and shelf stability. Quick Tip: Sterilize acidic vegetables at 100°C for 30 minutes.


Question 53:

Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE in case of oxidative rancidity of vegetable oils and fats?

  • (1) It is caused by the reaction of saturated fatty acids and oxygen
  • (2) It involves polymerization of fatty acids
  • (3) It is caused by the reaction of unsaturated fatty acids with oxygen
  • (4) It is caused by reaction of proteins and oxygen
Correct Answer: (4) It is caused by reaction of proteins and oxygen
View Solution

Step 1: Oxidative rancidity primarily involves unsaturated fatty acids.

Step 2: Proteins are not involved in this process; hence the statement is incorrect. Quick Tip: Oxidative rancidity affects unsaturated fats, not proteins.


Question 54:

Enzyme used for clarification of fruit juice is

  • (1) Pectinase
  • (2) Protease
  • (3) Cellulase
  • (4) Xylanase
Correct Answer: (1) Pectinase
View Solution

Step 1: Pectinase breaks down pectin, a structural polysaccharide in fruit cell walls.

Step 2: This reduces viscosity and leads to clearer juice. Quick Tip: Pectinase helps clarify fruit juice by breaking pectin.


Question 55:

Name the alkaloid toxicant present in potato

  • (1) Piperine
  • (2) Cocaine
  • (3) Capsaicin
  • (4) Solanine
Correct Answer: (4) Solanine
View Solution

Step 1: Solanine is a naturally occurring toxic alkaloid found in potatoes.

Step 2: It can accumulate when potatoes are exposed to light. Quick Tip: Solanine is the toxic alkaloid found in potatoes.


Question 56:

Rancidity in meat is due to spoilage by which of the following microorganisms?

  • (1) Bacillus
  • (2) Molda
  • (3) E. Coli
  • (4) Pseudomonas
Correct Answer: (4) Pseudomonas
View Solution

Step 1: Pseudomonas species are known for spoiling meat through oxidative rancidity.

Step 2: They produce off-flavors and slime, especially under aerobic conditions. Quick Tip: Pseudomonas causes rancidity and spoilage in meat.


Question 57:

The enzymes which play an important role in ageing of meat, are ____ and ____.

  • (1) Calpains and Lyzozyme
  • (2) Protease and Cathepsins
  • (3) Calpains and Cathepsins
  • (4) Cathepsins and Trypsins
Correct Answer: (3) Calpains and Cathepsins
View Solution

Step 1: Calpains and Cathepsins are proteolytic enzymes.

Step 2: They contribute to the breakdown of muscle proteins, improving meat tenderness during ageing. Quick Tip: Calpains and Cathepsins help tenderize meat during ageing.


Question 58:

Surface slime, stinkers, whiskers and black spot in meat are types of ______ spoilage.

  • (1) Anaerobic
  • (2) Aerobic
  • (3) Mold
  • (4) Fungal
Correct Answer: (2) Aerobic
View Solution

Step 1: Surface defects like slime and whiskers in meat typically occur due to aerobic bacterial activity.

Step 2: These microbes thrive in oxygen-rich environments causing visible spoilage. Quick Tip: Surface meat spoilage like slime and stinkers is aerobic.


Question 59:

Rigor mortis is caused due to ____________________.

  • (1) Rupturing of tissue due to unavailability of oxygen
  • (2) Decrease in body temperature
  • (3) Breakage of rigid protein molecules in sarcoplasm
  • (4) Unavailability of ATP which is necessary to break the link between actin and myosin
Correct Answer: (4) Unavailability of ATP which is necessary to break the link between actin and myosin
View Solution

Step 1: After death, ATP synthesis stops.

Step 2: Lack of ATP prevents the detachment of actin and myosin filaments, causing stiffness. Quick Tip: Rigor mortis occurs due to lack of ATP postmortem.


Question 60:

Nitrate and Nitrite along with Sodium Chloride are used in meat is called

  • (1) Curing agent
  • (2) Emulsifier
  • (3) Anti caking agent
  • (4) Fumigating agent
Correct Answer: (1) Curing agent
View Solution

Step 1: Nitrate and nitrite help in preserving meat and enhancing its flavor.

Step 2: When combined with salt, they form curing agents used in meat processing. Quick Tip: Nitrate + Nitrite + Salt = Curing agents in meat.


Question 61:

Which of the following chemicals are used to preserve dark coloured foods?

  • (1) Sodium nitrate
  • (2) Sodium nitrite
  • (3) Sodium chloride
  • (4) Sodium benzoate
Correct Answer: (4) Sodium benzoate
View Solution

Step 1: Sodium benzoate is a common preservative.

Step 2: It is especially effective in preserving acidic and dark-colored foods such as fruit juices, pickles, and sauces. Quick Tip: Sodium benzoate is widely used for preserving dark, acidic foods.


Question 62:

Boar taint is an issue faced by pork industry. This taint is due to the accumulation of

  • (1) High glucose in blood
  • (2) Androstenone and skatole
  • (3) Thamnidium spp
  • (4) Jhatka method of slaughtering
Correct Answer: (2) Androstenone and skatole
View Solution

Step 1: Boar taint is an unpleasant odor or taste in pork from non-castrated male pigs.

Step 2: It is primarily caused by the accumulation of androstenone and skatole in fat tissues. Quick Tip: Boar taint = Androstenone + Skatole buildup in male pigs.


Question 63:

Deposition of fat within the lean muscle is called

  • (1) Curing
  • (2) Homogenization
  • (3) Marbling
  • (4) Rigor mortis
Correct Answer: (3) Marbling
View Solution

Step 1: Marbling refers to the intramuscular fat deposits visible in meat cuts.

Step 2: This fat enhances flavor, juiciness, and tenderness of meat. Quick Tip: Marbling = Intramuscular fat → Better taste and tenderness.


Question 64:

Demersal fish are found in

  • (1) Middle and surface water layers of sea
  • (2) Bottom water layers of sea
  • (3) Only in fresh water
  • (4) Only in ponds
Correct Answer: (2) Bottom water layers of sea
View Solution

Step 1: Demersal fish are bottom dwellers in marine environments.

Step 2: They typically live near or on the seabed, such as cod and haddock. Quick Tip: Demersal fish = Bottom-dwelling sea fish.


Question 65:

Trimethylamine oxide present in marine fish helps in

  • (1) Avoiding rigor mortis
  • (2) Osmoregulation
  • (3) Floating
  • (4) Hardening
Correct Answer: (2) Osmoregulation
View Solution

Step 1: Trimethylamine oxide (TMAO) is found in marine organisms.

Step 2: It helps maintain osmotic balance in the cells under high salt concentrations. Quick Tip: TMAO = Osmoregulation in marine fish.


Question 66:

Which of the following exists only in milk

  • (1) Milk sugar
  • (2) Minerals
  • (3) Cholestrol
  • (4) Enzymes
Correct Answer: (1) Milk sugar
View Solution

Step 1: Milk sugar refers to lactose, a disaccharide found only in milk and dairy products.

Step 2: Other options (minerals, cholesterol, enzymes) are found in various other foods. Quick Tip: Milk sugar = Lactose → Only found in milk.


Question 67:

Ultra high temperature pasteurization is operated at

  • (1) 150--160~°C for 10--15 Sec
  • (2) 135--150~°C for 1--8 Sec
  • (3) 150--170~°C for 15--20 Sec
  • (4) 168--175~°C for 20--28 Sec
Correct Answer: (2) 135--150~°C for 1--8 Sec
View Solution

Step 1: UHT (Ultra-High Temperature) pasteurization rapidly heats milk to 135--150°C.

Step 2: The short exposure time (1–8 seconds) kills microbes while preserving quality. Quick Tip: UHT = 135--150°C for 1--8 seconds.


Question 68:

The sequence for homogenized milk in India

  • (1) Clarification, Preheating, Homogenization, Pasteurization, Cooling
  • (2) Clarification, Preheating, Pasteurization, Homogenization, Cooling
  • (3) Preheating, Homogenization, Clarification, Pasteurization, Cooling
  • (4) Preheating, Clarification, Homogenization, Pasteurization, Cooling
Correct Answer: (3) Preheating, Homogenization, Clarification, Pasteurization, Cooling
View Solution

Step 1: In India, the process of preparing homogenized milk follows a fixed sequence.

Step 2: Proper order ensures quality and safety: Preheating → Homogenization → Clarification → Pasteurization → Cooling. Quick Tip: Process = Preheat → Homogenize → Clarify → Pasteurize → Cool


Question 69:

As per PFA, double toned milk contains minimum

  • (1) 3.0% fat \& 8.5% SNF
  • (2) 4.0% fat \& 9.0% SNF
  • (3) 1.5% fat \& 9.0% SNF
  • (4) 1.5% fat \& 8.5% SNF
Correct Answer: (3) 1.5% fat \& 9.0% SNF
View Solution

Step 1: According to PFA (Prevention of Food Adulteration Act), double toned milk must meet specific minimum standards.

Step 2: It must contain at least 1.5% fat and 9.0% solids-not-fat (SNF). Quick Tip: Double toned milk = 1.5% fat + 9.0% SNF (PFA standard)


Question 70:

The temperature of cream at churning is

  • (1) 9--11~°C
  • (2) 16--20~°C
  • (3) 11--15~°C
  • (4) 12--17~°C
Correct Answer: (1) 9--11~°C
View Solution

Step 1: Churning temperature affects fat globule aggregation and butter formation.

Step 2: Optimal churning temperature is 9--11~°C to ensure proper phase inversion and butter yield. Quick Tip: Ideal churning temperature = 9--11~°C


Question 71:

The temperature of commercial cold storage of butter is

  • (1) 9--11~°C
  • (2) 16--20~°C
  • (3) 11--15~°C
  • (4) 12--17~°C
Correct Answer: (2) 16--20~°C
View Solution

Step 1: Butter requires a specific temperature range for commercial cold storage to maintain quality.

Step 2: The recommended storage range is 16--20~°C to prevent spoilage and rancidity. Quick Tip: Butter cold storage temperature = 16--20~°C


Question 72:

As per PFA, moisture and fat content of whole milk powder is

  • (1) 5% of Moisture and not less than 26% fat
  • (2) 6% of Moisture and not less than 28% fat
  • (3) 5% of Moisture and not less than 35% fat
  • (4) 6% of Moisture and not less than 32% fat
Correct Answer: (1) 5% of Moisture and not less than 26% fat
View Solution

Step 1: The Prevention of Food Adulteration (PFA) rules specify the quality standards for dairy products.

Step 2: For whole milk powder, maximum 5% moisture and minimum 26% fat is mandatory. Quick Tip: Whole milk powder (PFA) = Max 5% moisture \& Min 26% fat


Question 73:

The largest Ghee producing state is

  • (1) West Bengal
  • (2) Maharashtra
  • (3) Uttar Pradesh
  • (4) Himachal Pradesh
Correct Answer: (3) Uttar Pradesh
View Solution

Step 1: Ghee production in India is highest in states with significant dairy activities.

Step 2: Uttar Pradesh has the largest milk production and hence leads in ghee output. Quick Tip: Largest ghee producing state = Uttar Pradesh


Question 74:

Which among the following is the best cheese in the world?

  • (1) Cheddar cheese
  • (2) Cottage Cheese
  • (3) Processed Cheese
  • (4) Table Cheese
Correct Answer: (1) Cheddar cheese
View Solution

Step 1: Cheddar cheese is widely acclaimed for its flavor, texture, and global popularity.

Step 2: It is considered one of the best and most consumed cheeses in the world. Quick Tip: Globally popular top cheese = Cheddar cheese


Question 75:

The pH for normal, fresh cow milk is

  • (1) 6.4 to 6.6%
  • (2) 6.7 to 6.8%
  • (3) 6.9 to 7.2%
  • (4) 6.3 to 6.5%
Correct Answer: (1) 6.4 to 6.6%
View Solution

Step 1: The natural pH of fresh cow milk is slightly acidic.

Step 2: The acceptable pH range is 6.4 to 6.6 for healthy milk. Quick Tip: Normal cow milk pH: 6.4 to 6.6


Question 76:

Which greenhouse gas is produced by rotten food waste in landfill?

  • (1) Carbon Dioxide
  • (2) Nitrous oxide
  • (3) Methane
  • (4) Chlorofluorocarbons
Correct Answer: (3) Methane
View Solution

Step 1: Food waste decomposes anaerobically in landfills.

Step 2: This anaerobic decomposition produces methane, a potent greenhouse gas. Quick Tip: Rotten food waste → Anaerobic decay → Methane


Question 77:

Process of burning of non-biodegradable solid waste is called \hspace{2cm}

  • (1) Composting
  • (2) Sedimentation
  • (3) Segregation
  • (4) Incineration
Correct Answer: (4) Incineration
View Solution

Step 1: Non-biodegradable waste cannot be decomposed naturally.

Step 2: Such waste is burned at high temperatures in incinerators. Quick Tip: Incineration = Burning of non-biodegradable solid waste


Question 78:

Flotation is a unit operation, used in waste water treatment to

1. Remove the lighter suspended solids

2. Concentrate biological sludge

3. Remove oil and grease

4. Remove the temporary hardness of the water

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) 1, 2 and 3 only
  • (2) 2, 3 and 4 only
  • (3) 1, 2 and 4 only
  • (4) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer: (1) 1, 2 and 3 only
View Solution

Step 1: Flotation is effective for separating light particles.

Step 2: It helps concentrate sludge and remove oil/grease.

Step 3: It does **not** remove hardness, which requires chemical treatment. Quick Tip: Flotation = Removes suspended solids, sludge, oil/grease — not water hardness


Question 79:

Among the following elements which is typically the most abundant in dried sewage sludge?

  • (1) Total nitrogen
  • (2) Total sulphur
  • (3) Calcium
  • (4) Total phosphorous
Correct Answer: (3) Calcium
View Solution

Step 1: Dried sewage sludge consists of various elements including metals and nutrients.

Step 2: Among them, calcium is typically the most abundant due to lime and other calcium-containing compounds used in treatment. Quick Tip: Calcium is the dominant element in dried sewage sludge due to treatment additives.


Question 80:

Biomedical waste management is done by

  • (1) Bar screen
  • (2) Filtration
  • (3) Aeration
  • (4) Chlorination
Correct Answer: (1) Bar screen
View Solution

Step 1: Biomedical waste often contains large particles or objects.

Step 2: Bar screens help in removing such large solid wastes from the system before further treatment. Quick Tip: Bar screen = Initial stage of biomedical waste management (removes solids).


Question 81:

The dose of ionizing radiation for radappertization is

  • (1) 20 (MK) kGy
  • (2) 3 (MK) kGy
  • (3) 10 (MK) kGy
  • (4) 15 (MK) kGy
Correct Answer: (2) 3 (MK) kGy
View Solution

Step 1: Radappertization is a food irradiation process used to achieve commercial sterility.

Step 2: It typically requires a dose around 3 Mega Gray (kGy) to destroy all viable microorganisms. Quick Tip: Radappertization dose ≈ 3 kGy to sterilize food.


Question 82:

A process where food is first frozen at minus 18 °C on trays and then placed under high vacuum is called as

  • (1) Freeze drying
  • (2) Cryogenic freezing
  • (3) Quick freezing
  • (4) Dehydro freezing
Correct Answer: (1) Freeze drying
View Solution

Step 1: Freeze drying, or lyophilization, involves freezing the food and then removing moisture via sublimation under vacuum.

Step 2: It preserves food with minimal loss of quality and nutrients. Quick Tip: Freeze drying = Freeze at −18 °C + vacuum = sublimation drying.


Question 83:

Streamline and Equipotential line in a flow field

  • (1) Are parallel to each other
  • (2) Are perpendicular to each other
  • (3) Are identical to each other
  • (4) Intersects each other
Correct Answer: (2) Are perpendicular to each other
View Solution

Step 1: In a flow field, streamlines represent the path of fluid particles.

Step 2: Equipotential lines represent points of equal potential.

Step 3: These lines are always perpendicular in ideal flow. Quick Tip: Streamlines ⟂ Equipotential lines in ideal flow conditions.


Question 84:

A flow is called supersonic if the

  • (1) Velocity of the flow is very high
  • (2) Discharge is difficult to measure
  • (3) Mach number is less than 1
  • (4) Mach number is between 1 and 5
Correct Answer: (4) Mach number is between 1 and 5
View Solution

Step 1: Mach number = velocity of flow / speed of sound in medium.

Step 2: If Mach number > 1, the flow is supersonic.

Step 3: Supersonic range is generally between 1 and 5. Quick Tip: Supersonic flow: Mach number between 1 and 5.


Question 85:

Example of Non-Newtonian fluid is

  • (1) Emulsions
  • (2) Moist oils
  • (3) Gases
  • (4) Liquids
Correct Answer: (1) Emulsions
View Solution

Step 1: Non-Newtonian fluids do not obey Newton’s law of viscosity.

Step 2: Emulsions like ketchup and paint exhibit shear-thinning or thickening behavior.

Step 3: Hence, emulsions are non-Newtonian. Quick Tip: Non-Newtonian fluids: Viscosity changes with applied force; examples include emulsions and toothpaste.


Question 86:

The dynamic viscosity of a liquid is \( 1.2 \times 10^{-4} \, Ns/m^2 \), whereas, the density is \( 600 \, kg/m^3 \).

The kinematic viscosity in \( m^2/s \) is

  • (1) \( 72 \times 10^{-3} \)
  • (2) \( 20 \times 10^{-8} \)
  • (3) \( 7.2 \times 10^3 \)
  • (4) \( 70 \times 10^6 \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( 20 \times 10^{-8} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Use formula for kinematic viscosity: \( \nu = \frac{\mu}{\rho} \)

Step 2: \( \nu = \frac{1.2 \times 10^{-4}}{600} = 2.0 \times 10^{-7} \, m^2/s = 20 \times 10^{-8} \, m^2/s \) Quick Tip: Kinematic viscosity = Dynamic viscosity ÷ Density


Question 87:

The rate of energy transferred by convection to that by conduction in a fluid is called

  • (1) Stanton number
  • (2) Nusselt number
  • (3) Biot number
  • (4) Peclet number
Correct Answer: (2) Nusselt number
View Solution

Step 1: Nusselt number (\(Nu\)) is the ratio of convective to conductive heat transfer across a boundary.

Step 2: It is used to characterize convective heat transfer. Quick Tip: Nusselt number: \( Nu = \frac{hL}{k} \), higher values indicate dominance of convection.


Question 88:

Fourier's law of heat conduction gives the heat flow for

  • (1) Irregular surfaces
  • (2) Non-uniform temperature surfaces
  • (3) One dimensional case only
  • (4) Two dimensional cases only
Correct Answer: (3) One dimensional case only
View Solution

Step 1: Fourier's law in its basic form applies to 1D steady-state heat conduction.

Step 2: For higher dimensions, the general form with gradient and vector calculus is used. Quick Tip: In 1D: \( q = -k \frac{dT}{dx} \); valid for steady-state with constant area.


Question 89:

The unit of overall coefficient of heat transfer is

  • (1) W/m\textsuperscript{2}K
  • (2) W/m\textsuperscript{2}
  • (3) W/m\textsuperscript{3} K
  • (4) W/m K
Correct Answer: (1) W/m\textsuperscript{2}K
View Solution

Step 1: The heat transfer coefficient is given by \( Q = U A \Delta T \)

Step 2: Rearranging gives unit of \( U \) as \( \frac{Q}{A \Delta T} \Rightarrow W/m^2K \) Quick Tip: Always check the dimensions using the basic heat transfer formula \( Q = UA\Delta T \).


Question 90:

Heat flux through several resistances in series is analogous to the current flowing through

  • (1) Resistances in parallel
  • (2) Resistances in series
  • (3) Capacitors in series
  • (4) Capacitors in parallel
Correct Answer: (2) Resistances in series
View Solution

Step 1: In thermal systems, resistances in series imply heat must flow through each one successively.

Step 2: This is similar to electrical resistances in series where current remains same. Quick Tip: Use thermal-electric analogies: Heat flow is like current, thermal resistance is like electrical resistance.


Question 91:

Fouling factor

  • (1) Is a dimensionless quantity
  • (2) Does not provide a safety factor for design
  • (3) Accounts for additional resistance to heat transfer
  • (4) Reflects the quality factor of the food
Correct Answer: (3) Accounts for additional resistance to heat transfer
View Solution

Step 1: Fouling factor quantifies the expected reduction in heat transfer due to deposit accumulation.

Step 2: It is used in design to ensure sufficient area and efficiency in heat exchangers. Quick Tip: Remember: Fouling factor = extra thermal resistance due to deposits on heat transfer surfaces.


Question 92:

Viscosities of gases ----------- with increase in temperature

  • (1) Decreases
  • (2) Increases
  • (3) Decreases slowly
  • (4) Remains unchanged
Correct Answer: (2) Increases
View Solution

Step 1: As temperature increases, molecular movement increases.

Step 2: This leads to greater momentum transfer in gases, hence viscosity increases. Quick Tip: For gases: Higher temperature means higher viscosity. For liquids, it's usually the opposite.


Question 93:

In a single effect evaporator, the economy is

  • (1) \( > 1 \)
  • (2) \( = 1 \)
  • (3) \( < 1 \)
  • (4) Remains same
Correct Answer: (3) \( < 1 \)
View Solution

Step 1: Economy of an evaporator is defined as the amount of vapor produced per unit mass of steam used.

Step 2: In a single effect evaporator, this is usually less than 1 due to energy losses. Quick Tip: Multi-effect evaporators are used to increase economy beyond 1 by using vapor from one effect as heating medium for the next.


Question 94:

Mass transfer coefficient of liquid is

  • (1) Affected much less by temperature than that of gases
  • (2) Not affected by temperature
  • (3) Affected more by temperature than that of gases
  • (4) Affected by emulsion
Correct Answer: (3) Affected more by temperature than that of gases
View Solution

Step 1: The viscosity and diffusivity of liquids are significantly affected by temperature.

Step 2: This results in a more noticeable change in mass transfer coefficient for liquids with temperature variations compared to gases. Quick Tip: Mass transfer in liquids is more sensitive to temperature due to stronger intermolecular interactions than in gases.


Question 95:

Molecular diffusion is caused by

  • (1) Transfer of molecules from low concentration to high concentration region
  • (2) Activation energy of the molecules
  • (3) Thermal energy of the molecules
  • (4) Potential energy of the molecules
Correct Answer: (3) Thermal energy of the molecules
View Solution

Step 1: Molecular diffusion is a result of random motion of particles driven by thermal energy.

Step 2: This movement causes the molecules to spread from regions of higher concentration to lower concentration. Quick Tip: Thermal energy increases molecular motion, which enhances diffusion.


Question 96:

_____ exploits the differences in aerodynamic properties of the food and the contaminants

  • (1) Screening
  • (2) Abrasion
  • (3) Aspiration
  • (4) Dissolution
Correct Answer: (3) Aspiration
View Solution

Step 1: Aspiration is a cleaning method used to separate lighter contaminants from food particles based on aerodynamic properties.

Step 2: Air flow carries away light particles (like husks or dust) while heavier food items fall due to gravity. Quick Tip: Aspiration is commonly used in grain cleaning processes to remove chaff and dust.


Question 97:

Which of the following force is used for the coarse crushing of materials?

  • (1) Impact force
  • (2) Compressive force
  • (3) Attrition force
  • (4) Shear force
Correct Answer: (2) Compressive force
View Solution

Step 1: Coarse crushing is typically carried out in jaw crushers or gyratory crushers.

Step 2: These devices primarily apply compressive force to reduce large chunks of material into smaller fragments. Quick Tip: Coarse crushing uses compressive force; fine grinding often involves attrition or impact.


Question 98:

_____ is the average size of the feed particles divided by the average size of the product particles.

  • (1) Milling ratio
  • (2) Breaking ratio
  • (3) Size ratio
  • (4) Reduction ratio
Correct Answer: (4) Reduction ratio
View Solution

Step 1: The reduction ratio is a measure of the size reduction efficiency of a crusher or mill.

Step 2: It is calculated as the ratio of the average feed size to the average product size. Quick Tip: Higher reduction ratio means more efficient size reduction.


Question 99:

The process of separating the components of a liquid mixture through selective evaporation and condensation is called

  • (1) Distillation
  • (2) Crystallization
  • (3) Sublimation
  • (4) Fractionation
Correct Answer: (1) Distillation
View Solution

Step 1: Distillation is a technique used to separate components in a liquid mixture.

Step 2: It works by heating the mixture to evaporate the more volatile component and then condensing the vapor to collect the purified substance. Quick Tip: Distillation involves evaporation followed by condensation for separation based on boiling points.


Question 100:

The most commonly used form of mixer for handling low or moderate viscosity liquid is the _________ agitator

  • (1) Paddle
  • (2) Propeller
  • (3) Impeller
  • (4) Turbine
Correct Answer: (3) Impeller
View Solution

Step 1: Impeller agitators are effective for mixing low to moderately viscous liquids.

Step 2: They provide efficient circulation and shear, suitable for most general liquid mixing applications. Quick Tip: Impeller agitators are widely used in industries for liquid mixing tasks due to their versatility.


Question 101:

Which of the following separation techniques does not depend upon the charges and the size of the separating material?

  • (1) Affinity chromatography
  • (2) Gel Filtration chromatography
  • (3) Ion exchange chromatography
  • (4) Gas chromatography
Correct Answer: (1) Affinity chromatography
View Solution

Step 1: Affinity chromatography relies on specific interactions between a molecule and a ligand attached to a stationary phase.

Step 2: It is highly selective and does not depend on charge or molecular size, unlike ion exchange or gel filtration. Quick Tip: Affinity chromatography is based on biological specificity, not physical properties like size or charge.


Question 102:

Adulteration of edible oil by mineral oil can be identified by

  • (1) Halman’s test
  • (2) Boudin’s test
  • (3) Carl’s test
  • (4) Holde’s test
Correct Answer: (4) Holde’s test
View Solution

Step 1: Holde’s test is a qualitative method used to detect mineral oils in edible oils.

Step 2: It relies on the solubility difference in petroleum ether, revealing mineral oil presence. Quick Tip: Holde’s test is a key method to ensure purity of edible oils and detect harmful adulterants.


Question 103:

Black pepper is adulterated by

  • (1) Cotton seeds
  • (2) Papaya seeds
  • (3) Stones
  • (4) Charcoal
Correct Answer: (2) Papaya seeds
View Solution

Step 1: Papaya seeds resemble black pepper in size and appearance.

Step 2: They are often used as an adulterant due to their similar look but lack of pungency. Quick Tip: To detect papaya seed adulteration, immerse pepper in water; papaya seeds float due to lower density.


Question 104:

Phosphatase test is used as an indicator for

  • (1) Caramelization
  • (2) Tyndallization
  • (3) Centrifugation
  • (4) Pasteurization
Correct Answer: (4) Pasteurization
View Solution

Step 1: The phosphatase enzyme is inactivated by proper pasteurization.

Step 2: Its presence indicates inadequate heat treatment. Quick Tip: A negative phosphatase test confirms successful pasteurization of milk.


Question 105:

The chart used to monitor attributes is

  • (1) Range chart
  • (2) Mean chart
  • (3) p-chart
  • (4) Z value
Correct Answer: (3) p-chart
View Solution

Step 1: Attribute charts are used for monitoring qualitative data (e.g., pass/fail, yes/no).

Step 2: The p-chart is used to monitor the proportion of defective items in a sample. Quick Tip: Use p-charts when dealing with proportions or percentages of defective units.


Question 106:

The mean of sampling distribution should be

  • (1) Less than mean of process distribution
  • (2) More than mean of process distribution
  • (3) Equal to mean of process distribution
  • (4) Two folds to mean of process distribution
Correct Answer: (3) Equal to mean of process distribution
View Solution

Step 1: According to the Central Limit Theorem, the sampling distribution of the sample mean is centered at the population mean.

Step 2: Therefore, the mean of the sampling distribution equals the process (population) mean. Quick Tip: The mean of the sampling distribution is an unbiased estimator of the population mean.


Question 107:

CCP in HACCP stands for

  • (1) Critical Control Point
  • (2) Crucial Control Point
  • (3) Common Control Point
  • (4) Common critical point
Correct Answer: (1) Critical Control Point
View Solution

Step 1: HACCP stands for Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points.

Step 2: A Critical Control Point (CCP) is a step at which control can be applied to prevent or eliminate a food safety hazard. Quick Tip: Remember: CCP is the step where control is essential to ensure food safety.


Question 108:

Which of the following task come under “Maintaining inventory of food processing systems and their environments”?

  • (1) Product specifications
  • (2) Physical systems hazards control
  • (3) Purchasing requirements
  • (4) Food Standardization
Correct Answer: (2) Physical systems hazards control
View Solution

Step 1: Inventory management in food processing includes monitoring physical conditions and hazard controls.

Step 2: Physical systems hazards control ensures that the processing environment remains safe and operational. Quick Tip: Physical systems hazards control involves ensuring machinery, tools, and facilities are not sources of contamination.


Question 109:

Lacquering of cans helps in:

  • (1) Preventing cans from discoloration
  • (2) Providing cheaper way of coloring the can
  • (3) Providing mechanical strength
  • (4) Preventing can from shock during transportation
Correct Answer: (1) Preventing cans from discoloration
View Solution

Step 1: Lacquering is the coating of cans with a protective layer.

Step 2: This coating prevents chemical reactions between the can material and the food content, thereby avoiding discoloration. Quick Tip: Lacquering prevents internal corrosion and staining of cans caused by acidic foods.


Question 110:

What is the first step of QA?

  • (1) Development of standards
  • (2) Identification of customer need
  • (3) Servicing
  • (4) Material control
Correct Answer: (2) Identification of customer need
View Solution

Step 1: Quality Assurance (QA) begins by understanding the customer's expectations and requirements.

Step 2: Only after identifying these needs can quality planning and standard development follow. Quick Tip: In QA, identifying customer needs is foundational for setting benchmarks and ensuring satisfaction.


Question 111:

Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority was established by the Government of India in

  • (1) December 1985
  • (2) December 1980
  • (3) December 1986
  • (4) January 1980
Correct Answer: (1) December 1985
View Solution

Step 1: APEDA was established by the Government of India through an act passed in 1985.

Step 2: It aims to promote the export of agricultural and processed food products. Quick Tip: APEDA = Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority; founded in December 1985.


Question 112:

The full form of IUU fishing is

  • (1) Illegal, Unreal and Unregulated
  • (2) Imported, Unreported and Unregulated
  • (3) Illegal, Unreported and Unregulated
  • (4) Illegal, Unreported and Unregistered
Correct Answer: (3) Illegal, Unreported and Unregulated
View Solution

Step 1: IUU fishing is a global problem affecting ocean sustainability.

Step 2: The acronym stands for Illegal, Unreported and Unregulated fishing, and it includes activities that violate conservation or management measures. Quick Tip: IUU fishing = Illegal, Unreported, Unregulated — key focus area in marine conservation.


Question 113:

"Standards on Weight and Measurement Act 1976" comes under

  • (1) Ministry of Health \& Family Welfare
  • (2) Ministry of Food Processing Industries
  • (3) Department of Agriculture \& Cooperation
  • (4) Department of Legal Metrology
Correct Answer: (4) Department of Legal Metrology
View Solution

Step 1: The “Standards of Weights and Measures Act, 1976” is enforced under the Legal Metrology framework.

Step 2: It deals with accurate weights and measures in trade and commerce, overseen by the Department of Legal Metrology. Quick Tip: Weight and Measurement Acts are under Legal Metrology — ensures fairness in trade practices.


Question 114:

FSSAI stands for

  • (1) Food Safety and Standards Authority of India
  • (2) Food Safe Security Authorization of India
  • (3) Food Security and Supply Auditing of India
  • (4) Food Standards Security Authority of India
Correct Answer: (1) Food Safety and Standards Authority of India
View Solution

Step 1: FSSAI is the regulatory body for food safety in India.

Step 2: The correct expansion is “Food Safety and Standards Authority of India.” Quick Tip: FSSAI = Food Safety and Standards Authority of India — responsible for food safety regulations.


Question 115:

Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) was formed in the year

  • (1) 2009
  • (2) 2005
  • (3) 2011
  • (4) 2000
Correct Answer: (3) 2011
View Solution

Step 1: FSSAI was established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006.

Step 2: It became fully operational in the year 2011. Quick Tip: FSSAI started functioning fully in 2011, despite the act being passed in 2006.


Question 116:

What is the most important activity in the HACCP System?

  • (1) Calibrating Thermometers
  • (2) Pre-op
  • (3) Working with inspectors
  • (4) Monitoring
Correct Answer: (4) Monitoring
View Solution

Step 1: HACCP focuses on identifying critical control points in food processing.

Step 2: Monitoring ensures that these points stay within safety limits and is the core of HACCP. Quick Tip: In HACCP, monitoring is key to ensuring hazards are under control at critical points.


Question 117:

Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 – passed by Indian Parliament and notified on

  • (1) 24th July, 2006
  • (2) 24th June, 2006
  • (3) 24th August, 2006
  • (4) 24th November, 2006
Correct Answer: (3) 24th August, 2006
View Solution

Step 1: The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 was passed by the Indian Parliament.

Step 2: The official date of notification of the act was 24th August, 2006. Quick Tip: Always remember the FSS Act was notified on 24th August, 2006, even though passed earlier.


Question 118:

The known food allergens are considered a hazard when

  • (1) undeclared on a food product label.
  • (2) sold in interstate commerce.
  • (3) product is made under the cottage food law.
  • (4) consumed by a highly susceptible population.
Correct Answer: (1) undeclared on a food product label.
View Solution

Step 1: Food allergens must be declared clearly to ensure consumer safety.

Step 2: Failure to declare known allergens can cause serious health risks, making it a hazard. Quick Tip: Label transparency is critical—undeclared allergens can lead to food safety violations.


Question 119:

It is a legal requirement for all food businesses to

  • (1) Register the premises with the local authority before trading.
  • (2) Obtain a license to operate from the Food Standards Agency.
  • (3) Apply for a license from the local magistrates' court.
  • (4) Book annual inspections with the environmental health authority.
Correct Answer: (1) Register the premises with the local authority before trading.
View Solution

Step 1: According to food law, all food businesses must register with local authorities.

Step 2: This step ensures traceability and accountability before beginning operations. Quick Tip: Food business registration with the local authority is mandatory and usually free of charge.


Question 120:

What does ISO do

  • (1) Provides organizations with information about quality management systems
  • (2) Helps organizations become certified under the international standard
  • (3) Government responsibilities and tasks in various countries
  • (4) Monitors the food Safety of consumer foods.
Correct Answer: (1) Provides organizations with information about quality management systems
View Solution

Step 1: ISO (International Organization for Standardization) sets out global standards.

Step 2: It provides frameworks and guidelines, especially for quality management. Quick Tip: Remember: ISO defines standards—it doesn’t certify; certification is done by accredited bodies.



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