TS PGECET 2023 Geo Engineering and Geo Informatics Question Paper with Answer key PDF is available here for download. TS PGECET 2023 was conducted by JNTU Hyderabad on behalf of TSCHE on May 29, 2023. TS PGECET 2023 GG Question Paper consisted of 120 questions carrying 1 mark for each.

TS PGECET 2023 Geo Engineering and Geo Informatics Question Paper

TS PGECET 2023 GG Question Paper​ with Answer Key Download PDF Check Solution
Geo Engineering and Geo Informatics 2023

Question 1:

Let A be a square matrix of order 4 with \(|A| = 6\). Then \(|2A| = \)

  • (1) 96
  • (2) 12
  • (3) 24
  • (4) 6
Correct Answer: (1) 96
View Solution



We are given that \(|A| = 6\) for a 4x4 matrix \(A\). When multiplying a square matrix \(A\) by a scalar \(k\), the determinant of the new matrix \(kA\) is given by: \[ |kA| = k^n \cdot |A| \]
where \(n\) is the order of the matrix. For \(A\) with order 4, the formula becomes: \[ |2A| = 2^4 \cdot |A| = 16 \cdot 6 = 96 \]
Thus, \(|2A| = 96\).
Quick Tip: When dealing with scalar multiplication of matrices, remember that the determinant of a matrix scales by the scalar raised to the power of the matrix order.


Question 2:

The number of solutions of the system of equations \(x - y + 3z = 3\), \(2x + 3y + z = 2\), and \(3x + 2y + 4z = 5\) is

  • (1) 0
  • (2) 1
  • (3) Infinite
  • (4) 3
Correct Answer: (3) Infinite
View Solution



The system of equations can be solved using Gaussian elimination or substitution methods. After performing the necessary steps, we find that the system has infinite solutions, as the system is consistent and dependent.
Quick Tip: When solving linear systems, always check for consistency by evaluating the rank of the augmented matrix. If the rank of the coefficient matrix is less than the rank of the augmented matrix, no solution exists.


Question 3:

If the sum of the eigenvalues of the matrix \(\begin{pmatrix} 1 & 3 & 5
2 & k & 3
4 & -1 & 5 \end{pmatrix}\) is 15, then \(k =\)

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 9
  • (3) 6
  • (4) -9
Correct Answer: (1) 2
View Solution



The sum of the eigenvalues of a matrix is equal to the trace of the matrix (the sum of the diagonal elements). Thus, for this matrix, the trace is \(1 + k + 5 = 6 + k\). We are given that the sum of the eigenvalues is 15, so: \[ 6 + k = 15 \]
Solving for \(k\), we get \(k = 9\).
Quick Tip: The trace of a matrix is the sum of its diagonal elements. This is a key property when calculating the sum of eigenvalues.


Question 4:

Find the limit \(\lim\limits_{x \to \infty} \frac{nx - n}{x^2 - 1}\)

  • (1) 1
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{n}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{n}{n^2}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{n^2}{n}\)
Correct Answer: (1) 1
View Solution



To evaluate the limit, first factor out \(x\) from both the numerator and denominator: \[ \lim\limits_{x \to \infty} \frac{nx - n}{x^2 - 1} = \lim\limits_{x \to \infty} \frac{n(x - 1)}{x(x^2 - 1)} \]
As \(x \to \infty\), the dominant terms are \(nx\) and \(x^2\), so the limit simplifies to: \[ \frac{n}{x} \to 1 \]
Thus, the limit is \(1\).
Quick Tip: For limits involving large values of \(x\), focus on the highest degree terms in both the numerator and denominator.


Question 5:

The improper integral \(\int_0^\infty \frac{dx}{\sqrt{x}}\) converges to

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 0
  • (4) 1
Correct Answer: (1) 2
View Solution



To evaluate the improper integral, we consider the following: \[ \int_0^\infty \frac{dx}{\sqrt{x}} = \lim\limits_{b \to \infty} \int_0^b x^{-\frac{1}{2}} dx \]
The integral of \(x^{-\frac{1}{2}}\) is \(2x^{\frac{1}{2}}\), so: \[ \lim\limits_{b \to \infty} 2 \left[ x^{\frac{1}{2}} \right]_0^b = 2 \times (\infty^{\frac{1}{2}} - 0^{\frac{1}{2}}) = 2 \]
Thus, the integral converges to 2.
Quick Tip: When dealing with improper integrals, always ensure the integrand is well-behaved at the limits, and consider the limits separately.


Question 6:

The directional derivative of \(f(x, y) = xy(x^2 + y^2)\) at \((2,1)\) in the direction of the unit vector making an angle of \(\frac{\pi}{3}\) with the x-axis is

  • (1) \(5 - 14\sqrt{3}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{5 - 14\sqrt{3}}{2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{5 + 14\sqrt{3}}{2}\)
  • (4) \(5 + 14\sqrt{3}\)
Correct Answer: (3) \(\frac{5 + 14\sqrt{3}}{2}\)
View Solution



The directional derivative is given by: \[ D_{\mathbf{u}}f = \nabla f \cdot \mathbf{u} \]
First, find the gradient of \(f(x, y)\): \[ \nabla f = \left( \frac{\partial f}{\partial x}, \frac{\partial f}{\partial y} \right) = \left( y(3x^2 + y^2), x(3y^2 + x^2) \right) \]
At the point \((2, 1)\), \(\nabla f = (14, 11)\). The unit vector in the direction of \(\frac{\pi}{3}\) is \(\mathbf{u} = (\cos\frac{\pi}{3}, \sin\frac{\pi}{3}) = \left(\frac{1}{2}, \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\right)\). Then: \[ D_{\mathbf{u}}f = (14, 11) \cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}, \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\right) = \frac{14}{2} + \frac{11\sqrt{3}}{2} = \frac{5 + 14\sqrt{3}}{2} \]
Thus, the directional derivative is \(\frac{5 + 14\sqrt{3}}{2}\).
Quick Tip: When finding the directional derivative, first compute the gradient and then take the dot product with the unit vector in the given direction.


Question 7:

The values of \(a\) and \(b\) so that the function \(f(z) = x - 2ay + i(x - by)\) is analytic are respectively

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{2}\), \(-1\)
  • (2) \(1\), \(-1\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{2}\), \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (4) \(0\), \(-1\)
Correct Answer: (1) \(\frac{1}{2}\), \(-1\)
View Solution



For the function to be analytic, the Cauchy-Riemann equations must hold. From the real and imaginary parts of the function, we get two equations that lead to the values of \(a\) and \(b\). Solving these gives \(a = \frac{1}{2}\) and \(b = -1\).
Quick Tip: When dealing with analytic functions, always check the Cauchy-Riemann equations to find relationships between the constants.


Question 8:

The Laurent's series expansion of \(f(z) = \frac{1}{z^2}\) about \(z = 0\) is

  • (1) \(\sum\limits_{n=0}^{\infty} z^n\)
  • (2) \(\sum\limits_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{z^n}\)
  • (3) \(\sum\limits_{n=1}^{\infty} z^{-n}\)
  • (4) \(\sum\limits_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{z^{2n}}\)
Correct Answer: (3) \(\sum\limits_{n=1}^{\infty} z^{-n}\)
View Solution



The Laurent series expansion of \(\frac{1}{z^2}\) about \(z = 0\) contains only negative powers of \(z\). Hence, the series is \(\sum\limits_{n=1}^{\infty} z^{-n}\).
Quick Tip: In the Laurent series, negative powers of \(z\) are used to represent singularities or poles of a function.


Question 9:

Let \(A\) and \(B\) be two events such that \(P(A) = \frac{1}{2}\), \(P(B) = \frac{1}{3}\), and \(P(A \cap B) = \frac{1}{4}\). Then \(P(B | A) = \)

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
Correct Answer: (3) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
View Solution



By the definition of conditional probability, we have: \[ P(B | A) = \frac{P(A \cap B)}{P(A)} = \frac{\frac{1}{4}}{\frac{1}{2}} = \frac{2}{3} \]
Thus, \(P(B | A) = \frac{2}{3}\).
Quick Tip: To calculate conditional probability, divide the probability of the intersection by the probability of the given event.


Question 10:

A continuous random variable \(X\) has the p.d.f. \(f(x) = \frac{1}{k}\) for \(a \leq x \leq b\) and \(0\) elsewhere. The value of \(k\) is

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{b - a}\)
  • (2) \(b - a\)
  • (3) 1
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{b - a}\)
Correct Answer: (1) \(\frac{1}{b - a}\)
View Solution



The probability density function (p.d.f.) must integrate to 1 over the entire range. Therefore, we have: \[ \int_a^b f(x) dx = 1 \quad \Rightarrow \quad \int_a^b \frac{1}{k} dx = 1 \]
This gives \(\frac{1}{k}(b - a) = 1\), and hence \(k = \frac{1}{b - a}\).
Quick Tip: The constant \(k\) in a uniform distribution is determined by ensuring that the total probability integrates to 1.


Question 11:

The flatter region beyond the reach of high tides is known as

  • (1) berm
  • (2) swash zone
  • (3) breaker zone
  • (4) surf zone
Correct Answer: (1) berm
View Solution



The berm is the flatter region on the shore, located beyond the reach of the high tide. It is often found on the beach and is an important feature in coastal morphology.
Quick Tip: Focus on understanding coastal features like berms, swash zones, and surf zones, which are important in coastal dynamics.


Question 12:

The formation where the longshore current slows and sediments accumulate is called as

  • (1) spit
  • (2) tombolo
  • (3) back reef
  • (4) fore reef
Correct Answer: (2) tombolo
View Solution



A tombolo is formed when a longshore current slows and sediments accumulate, creating a connection between the mainland and an island or other landforms. This formation is significant in coastal geomorphology.
Quick Tip: When studying coastal landforms, identify features that are formed by deposition and those created by erosion.


Question 13:

The valley formation, one which has steep step-like side slopes is called

  • (1) canyon
  • (2) meander
  • (3) gorge
  • (4) V-shaped valley
Correct Answer: (1) canyon
View Solution



A canyon is a deep, steep-sided valley formed by the erosion of rivers. The steep side slopes are a key characteristic of this type of formation.
Quick Tip: Canyons and gorges are often formed in areas with intense erosion, resulting in steep, rugged landscapes.


Question 14:

If the series of smaller sinkholes come together to form a compound sinkhole is called as

  • (1) cave
  • (2) uvala
  • (3) lappies
  • (4) doline
Correct Answer: (2) uvala
View Solution



An uvala is formed when several smaller sinkholes come together to create a larger, compound sinkhole. It is a common feature in karst landscapes.
Quick Tip: In karst topography, sinkholes and uvalas are common features resulting from dissolution processes in limestone regions.


Question 15:

In which of the following areas the geomorphology concepts are not needed?

  • (1) natural hazards and natural resources management
  • (2) regional planning
  • (3) mineral exploration
  • (4) non-engineering projects
Correct Answer: (4) non-engineering projects
View Solution



Geomorphology plays an essential role in the study and management of natural hazards, resources, and even in mining operations. However, non-engineering projects may not require detailed geomorphological analysis.
Quick Tip: Geomorphology is essential in fields related to land use and resource management but may be less relevant to non-engineering disciplines.


Question 16:

The percentage of oxygen in the Earth's crust is

  • (1) 65%
  • (2) 46%
  • (3) 72%
  • (4) 21%
Correct Answer: (2) 46%
View Solution



Oxygen makes up approximately 46% of the Earth's crust by weight. It is the most abundant element in the crust, combined with other elements like silicon.
Quick Tip: Remember that oxygen is the most abundant element in the Earth's crust and plays a key role in the formation of silicate minerals.


Question 17:

How old is earth?

  • (1) between 3.5 and 3.8 billion years
  • (2) between 3.5 and 3.8 million years
  • (3) between 4.5 and 4.8 million years
  • (4) between 4.5 and 4.8 billion years
Correct Answer: (4) between 4.5 and 4.8 billion years
View Solution



The Earth is approximately 4.5 billion years old, based on radiometric dating of rocks and minerals. This is the generally accepted age of the Earth.
Quick Tip: Radiometric dating using isotopic decay is the key method for determining the age of the Earth and other celestial bodies.


Question 18:

The gravitational sphere of influence of the earth is approximately

  • (1) five times the average distance to the Moon
  • (2) four times the average distance to the Moon
  • (3) three times the average distance to the Moon
  • (4) two times the average distance to the Moon
Correct Answer: (3) three times the average distance to the Moon
View Solution



The sphere of influence of a celestial body refers to the region where its gravitational pull dominates over the gravitational influence of other bodies. The Earth's sphere of influence is approximately three times the average distance to the Moon.
Quick Tip: This concept is important when studying orbital mechanics, as it defines the region where the Earth's gravity is the dominant force.


Question 19:

A satellite maintains its orbit by balancing

  • (1) velocity and distance
  • (2) gravitational pull towards earth and radius
  • (3) radius of orbit and velocity
  • (4) velocity and gravitational pull
Correct Answer: (4) velocity and gravitational pull
View Solution



A satellite stays in orbit due to the balance between the gravitational pull from the Earth and its orbital velocity. If either the velocity or the gravitational pull changes, the satellite will either fall back to Earth or fly off into space.
Quick Tip: Understanding the relationship between velocity and gravitational pull is key to understanding satellite motion.


Question 20:

The maximum depth of the Indian Ocean reported is

  • (1) 5.258 km
  • (2) 6.258 km
  • (3) 7.258 km
  • (4) 8.258 km
Correct Answer: (1) 5.258 km
View Solution



The maximum depth of the Indian Ocean is approximately 5.258 km, which is recorded at the Java Trench.
Quick Tip: Remember that the oceans have varying depths, with trenches being the deepest areas.


Question 21:

The gradient of the continental slope varies between

  • (1) 2° to 5°
  • (2) 5° to 8°
  • (3) 8° to 11°
  • (4) 11° to 13°
Correct Answer: (1) 2° to 5°
View Solution



The continental slope typically has a gradient of about 2° to 5°. This is the steep region that separates the continental shelf from the deep ocean floor.
Quick Tip: The continental slope is an important feature in understanding the transition from continental crust to oceanic crust.


Question 22:

The shallowest part of the ocean which has an average gradient of 1° or even less is called as

  • (1) deep sea plain
  • (2) oceanic trench
  • (3) continental shelf
  • (4) submarine canyons
Correct Answer: (3) continental shelf
View Solution



The continental shelf is the shallowest part of the ocean with a very gentle slope, typically less than 1° in gradient. It is rich in marine life and important for fishing and resource extraction.
Quick Tip: Continental shelves are often used for marine resource exploration due to their shallow nature and access to various biological and mineral resources.


Question 23:

The Mohr's hardness value of Feldspar ranges between

  • (1) 6 and 6.5
  • (2) 5 and 5.5
  • (3) 4 and 4.5
  • (4) 3 and 3.5
Correct Answer: (1) 6 and 6.5
View Solution



Feldspar, a common group of minerals in the Earth's crust, has a hardness of 6 to 6.5 on the Mohs scale. This makes it a moderately hard mineral.
Quick Tip: The Mohs hardness scale is used to measure the hardness of minerals, with Feldspar being classified as moderately hard.


Question 24:

Which of the following is correct as per the uses of corundum mineral is concerned

  • (1) optical and space equipment
  • (2) manufacture of fertilizer
  • (3) pigment
  • (4) glassmaking
Correct Answer: (1) optical and space equipment
View Solution



Corundum is a very hard mineral used primarily in optical and space equipment due to its hardness and stability. It is also the mineral form of sapphires and rubies.
Quick Tip: Corundum’s hardness makes it ideal for use in applications where durability and scratch resistance are required, such as in precision instruments.


Question 25:

Number of tetrahedrons needed to build even a small crystal are

  • (1) thousands
  • (2) lakhs
  • (3) millions
  • (4) billions
Correct Answer: (1) thousands
View Solution



Crystals are made of a large number of tetrahedrons that are arranged in a specific structure. Even a small crystal requires thousands of these units.
Quick Tip: In crystallography, understanding the structure and arrangement of tetrahedrons is key to determining the properties of the crystal.


Question 26:

If \(P\) = precipitation, \(ET\) = evapotranspiration, \(G\) = percolation loss to ground water, \(Q\) = direct runoff and \(\Delta S\) = change in soil moisture storage then, the equation for water balance is

  • (1) \(P = ET + G + Q + \Delta S\)
  • (2) \(P = ET + G + Q - \Delta S\)
  • (3) \(P = ET + G - Q + \Delta S\)
  • (4) \(P = ET - G - Q + \Delta S\)
Correct Answer: (2) \(P = ET + G + Q + \Delta S\)
View Solution



The water balance equation represents the inflow and outflow of water in a system. The correct equation is: \[ P = ET + G + Q + \Delta S \]
where \(P\) is the precipitation, \(ET\) is the evapotranspiration, \(G\) is the percolation loss, \(Q\) is the direct runoff, and \(\Delta S\) is the change in soil moisture storage.
Quick Tip: Water balance equations are crucial in hydrology to understand how water flows through different parts of a system.


Question 27:

The energy needed to change the state of the molecules of water from liquid to vapor in the evapotranspiration process is obtained from

  • (1) high solar radiation
  • (2) high ambient temperature of the air
  • (3) less solar radiation and high ambient temperature of the air
  • (4) high solar radiation and less ambient temperature of the air
Correct Answer: (1) high solar radiation
View Solution



The energy required for evapotranspiration is primarily provided by high solar radiation, which heats the water molecules and causes them to transition from liquid to vapor.
Quick Tip: Evapotranspiration is a key process in the water cycle, driven by solar energy and influenced by both temperature and humidity.


Question 28:

At the surface of the water table, the water pressure head is equal to

  • (1) 10 kPa
  • (2) 10 MPa
  • (3) 100 kPa
  • (4) 100 MPa
Correct Answer: (3) 100 kPa
View Solution



At the surface of the water table, the pressure head is approximately 100 kPa, which corresponds to the pressure exerted by the water column above it.
Quick Tip: Water pressure head is an important factor in hydrogeology as it determines the movement of groundwater in the subsurface.


Question 29:

Which is the incorrect one among the following as per the expertise of environmental geologist is concerned

  • (1) protection and repair of wetlands
  • (2) protection and repair of streams
  • (3) protection and repair of rivers and shorelines
  • (4) protection and repair of building structures founded on subsurface soil
Correct Answer: (4) protection and repair of building structures founded on subsurface soil
View Solution



Environmental geologists focus on ecosystems like wetlands, streams, rivers, and shorelines. Protection and repair of building structures founded on subsurface soil is typically outside their scope of expertise.
Quick Tip: Environmental geologists play a crucial role in protecting ecosystems, but they typically do not focus on structural engineering concerns.


Question 30:

The thickness of the troposphere is

  • (1) 100 miles
  • (2) 10 miles
  • (3) 100 km
  • (4) 10 km
Correct Answer: (4) 10 km
View Solution



The troposphere is the lowest layer of Earth's atmosphere, and its average thickness is around 10 km. It contains most of the Earth's weather phenomena.
Quick Tip: The troposphere is essential for weather patterns and life, as it contains the majority of the atmosphere's mass and water vapor.


Question 31:

Which of the following environmental components provides the basis for biotic factors?

  • (1) biosphere
  • (2) lithosphere
  • (3) atmosphere
  • (4) hydrosphere
Correct Answer: (1) biosphere
View Solution



The biosphere provides the basis for biotic factors as it is the global sum of all ecosystems, and it includes all living organisms and their interactions.
Quick Tip: Biotic factors refer to living organisms and their relationships, which are mainly influenced by the biosphere.


Question 32:

The subject that studies complex interaction of human with nature and provides guidelines for the way forward is called

  • (1) biogenetics
  • (2) geomorphology
  • (3) geoinformatics
  • (4) environmental science
Correct Answer: (4) environmental science
View Solution



Environmental science is the interdisciplinary study that focuses on the interaction between humans and nature, and it provides strategies for sustainable development.
Quick Tip: Environmental science combines knowledge from various fields like biology, chemistry, and ecology to address environmental challenges.


Question 33:

Which of the following soils have high shear strength

  • (1) soils of density index 30%
  • (2) soils of density index 50%
  • (3) soils of density index 65%
  • (4) soils of density index 75%
Correct Answer: (4) soils of density index 75%
View Solution



Soils with a higher density index, such as 75%, have better compaction and higher shear strength. This is important in construction and civil engineering projects.
Quick Tip: High density index soils are typically more stable and resistant to shear stress, making them ideal for building foundations.


Question 34:

If a soil has porosity of 0.5 and discharge velocity of \(1 \times 10^{-4}\) cm/s, then its seepage velocity is

  • (1) \(2 \times 10^{-4}\) cm/s
  • (2) \(1 \times 10^{-4}\) cm/s
  • (3) \(0.5 \times 10^{-4}\) cm/s
  • (4) \(3.33 \times 10^{-4}\) cm/s
Correct Answer: (1) \(2 \times 10^{-4}\) cm/s
View Solution



The seepage velocity can be calculated by multiplying the discharge velocity by the inverse of the porosity: \[ Seepage velocity = \frac{Discharge velocity}{Porosity} = \frac{1 \times 10^{-4} \, cm/s}{0.5} = 2 \times 10^{-4} \, cm/s \]
Thus, the seepage velocity is \(2 \times 10^{-4}\) cm/s.
Quick Tip: Seepage velocity is important in hydrology as it determines the rate at which groundwater moves through porous media.


Question 35:

The ideal soil texture consists of

  • (1) mix of sand, silt, and clay particles
  • (2) mix of sand, gravel and silt particles
  • (3) mix of gravel, clay and sand particles
  • (4) mix of silt, clay and gravel particles
Correct Answer: (1) mix of sand, silt, and clay particles
View Solution



The ideal soil texture is a balanced mix of sand, silt, and clay particles, which allows for good water retention and drainage while providing necessary nutrients for plant growth.
Quick Tip: Ideal soil texture supports optimal plant growth by balancing water retention and drainage.


Question 36:

An exposure of younger strata that are completely surrounded by older strata is called

  • (1) outlier
  • (2) inlier
  • (3) fissile
  • (4) stratified formation
Correct Answer: (1) outlier
View Solution



An outlier is a geological feature where younger strata are surrounded by older strata, often due to erosion or other geological processes.
Quick Tip: Outliers are important in the study of geological formations, helping to understand the relative age of rocks.


Question 37:

The units above and below the unconformity surface are parallel to each other, but not continuous in deposition are called as

  • (1) para-conformities
  • (2) nonconformities
  • (3) angular conformities
  • (4) disconformities
Correct Answer: (3) angular conformities
View Solution



Angular unconformities occur when layers of rock are tilted and then eroded before newer layers are deposited on top. This creates a discontinuity between the older and younger layers.
Quick Tip: Angular unconformities are a key indicator of past geological events, such as tectonic forces and erosion.


Question 38:

The deformation, a rock can undergo when subjected to stress at certain depths within the earth, where pressures and temperatures are high is called

  • (1) laminated deformation
  • (2) ductile deformation
  • (3) brittle deformation
  • (4) creep deformation
Correct Answer: (2) ductile deformation
View Solution



Ductile deformation occurs when rocks are subjected to high temperatures and pressures deep within the Earth. This allows the rock to bend and flow, rather than fracture.
Quick Tip: Ductile deformation is key in the formation of folds and mountain ranges under high pressure and temperature conditions.


Question 39:

Those folds which are having an interlimb angle more than 70° are called as

  • (1) closed folds
  • (2) tight folds
  • (3) open folds
  • (4) isoclinal folds
Correct Answer: (3) open folds
View Solution



Folds with an interlimb angle greater than 70° are called open folds. They are less compressed and have a wider angle between the limbs.
Quick Tip: Open folds are characteristic of regions where the compressive forces are not as intense, allowing for larger angles between fold limbs.


Question 40:

The joints which form when the rocks expand as a result of the rapid removal of the overlying rock cover are called

  • (1) secondary joints
  • (2) sheet joints
  • (3) columnar joints
  • (4) mud joints
Correct Answer: (2) sheet joints
View Solution



Sheet joints are formed when the Earth's surface erodes, removing the weight from overlying rock, which causes the rock to expand and form joints. These are common in granite and other igneous rocks.
Quick Tip: Sheet joints are important in understanding the weathering processes of rocks, particularly in mountainous regions.


Question 41:

The rocks with a strong secondary planar fabric are known as

  • (1) LS-tectonites
  • (2) L-tectonites
  • (3) S-tectonites
  • (4) Lineations
Correct Answer: (1) LS-tectonites
View Solution



LS-tectonites are rocks that exhibit strong secondary planar fabric due to deformation, often showing evidence of shearing and foliation. These fabrics form under high-pressure conditions.
Quick Tip: LS-tectonites are often associated with regions of intense tectonic stress where the rocks undergo significant deformation.


Question 42:

Which portion of the spherical projection, a geologist will use for crystallographic analysis?

  • (1) bottom half
  • (2) top half
  • (3) both top and bottom individually
  • (4) whole spherical projection at a time
Correct Answer: (4) whole spherical projection at a time
View Solution



Geologists typically use the entire spherical projection for crystallographic analysis to examine the orientation of crystal faces and planes in three-dimensional space.
Quick Tip: The whole spherical projection helps in understanding crystal symmetry and the orientation of crystal axes.


Question 43:

Tectonites which allows the rock to split into rod-like shapes due to the two intersecting planes are called

  • (1) L-tectonites
  • (2) S-tectonites
  • (3) LS-tectonites
  • (4) SL-tectonites
Correct Answer: (1) L-tectonites
View Solution



L-tectonites form when a rock is subjected to two intersecting planes of stress, allowing it to split into rod-like shapes. This is characteristic of rocks that have undergone shearing deformation.
Quick Tip: L-tectonites are associated with high shear stresses that cause rocks to fracture along preferred planes.


Question 44:

The rocks which contain reasonable amounts of dynamically crystallized fine-grained material are called

  • (1) ultramylonite
  • (2) porphyroclasts
  • (3) protomylonite
  • (4) mylonitic
Correct Answer: (4) mylonitic
View Solution



Mylonitic rocks are a type of metamorphic rock formed under high shear stress, containing fine-grained material that crystallizes dynamically. These rocks are typically formed in shear zones.
Quick Tip: Mylonitic rocks are characterized by their fine-grained texture, resulting from intense deformation and recrystallization.


Question 45:

The combination of strike-slip and dip-slip falls under which type of shear zones?

  • (1) oblique-slip
  • (2) thrust
  • (3) reverse
  • (4) normal
Correct Answer: (1) oblique-slip
View Solution



Oblique-slip shear zones involve both strike-slip and dip-slip motion, where lateral and vertical displacements occur simultaneously due to the applied stress.
Quick Tip: Oblique-slip faults combine both horizontal and vertical movement, making them crucial for understanding tectonic processes.


Question 46:

The shielded areas, which help shielding the matrix on the flanks of the inclusion from strain is called

  • (1) SC fabrics
  • (2) shear bands
  • (3) pressure shadows
  • (4) veins
Correct Answer: (3) pressure shadows
View Solution



Pressure shadows are formed around inclusions in deformed rocks, where the inclusion provides resistance to the surrounding strain, thus creating a shielded region.
Quick Tip: Pressure shadows are common in high-strain zones and indicate areas where rocks are subjected to differential stress.


Question 47:

Twining in crystals occur when two different types of crystals share the same crystal lattice points in a

  • (1) symmetrical manner
  • (2) unsymmetrical manner
  • (3) both symmetrical and unsymmetrical manner
  • (4) random manner
Correct Answer: (1) symmetrical manner
View Solution



In crystallography, twinning occurs when two crystal lattices share some of their lattice points, and the twin boundaries are symmetrical.
Quick Tip: Symmetrical twinning in crystals is an important concept in mineralogy and helps in identifying crystal structures.


Question 48:

The chemical formula of Muscovite is

  • (1) \(K_2Al_2(Si_3O_10)(OH)_2\)
  • (2) \(KAl_2(Al Si_3)O_10(OH)_2\)
  • (3) \(KAl_2(Al Si_3)O_8(OH)_2\)
  • (4) \(KAl_2(Al Si_3)O_8(OH)_2\)
Correct Answer: (3) \(KAl_2(Al Si_3)O_8(OH)_2\)
View Solution



Muscovite, a common mica mineral, has the chemical formula \(KAl_2(Al Si_3)O_8(OH)_2\), which includes potassium, aluminum, silicon, oxygen, and hydroxyl groups.
Quick Tip: Muscovite is part of the mica group, which is known for its distinct layers and high resistance to heat and weathering.


Question 49:

The property of a mineral that causes the mineral to display different colors when viewed from different angles is known as

  • (1) dispersion
  • (2) fluorescence
  • (3) pleochroism
  • (4) birefringence
Correct Answer: (3) pleochroism
View Solution



Pleochroism is the property of a mineral to show different colors when viewed from different angles, especially in polarized light. This is commonly seen in minerals like tourmaline.
Quick Tip: Pleochroism is an important diagnostic property in gemology and mineral identification under a polarizing microscope.


Question 50:

For which of the following minerals, the Al\(_2\) SiO\(_3\) is not the chemical formula

  • (1) Andalusite
  • (2) Sillimanite
  • (3) Kyanite
  • (4) Orthoclase
Correct Answer: (4) Orthoclase
View Solution



Orthoclase is a feldspar mineral and its formula is \(KAlSi_3O_8\), not \(Al_2SiO_3\). Andalusite, sillimanite, and kyanite are polymorphs of Al\(_2\)SiO\(_3\).
Quick Tip: Orthoclase is part of the feldspar group, which is characterized by its high potassium content and different crystal structure from andalusite, sillimanite, and kyanite.


Question 51:

A rock core has RQD between 50 to 75%, then its geotechnical quality is

  • (1) good
  • (2) excellent
  • (3) fair
  • (4) poor
Correct Answer: (3) fair
View Solution



Rock Quality Designation (RQD) is a measure of the integrity of a rock mass. If RQD is between 50% and 75%, the rock quality is typically categorized as fair, indicating moderate quality.
Quick Tip: A fair RQD indicates that the rock mass is somewhat fractured but still suitable for many engineering applications.


Question 52:

From the Dorry’s abrasion test on rock sample, the loss of weight is found to be 6 grams. The coefficient of hardness of rock sample is

  • (1) 14
  • (2) 18
  • (3) 24
  • (4) 30
Correct Answer: (2) 18
View Solution



The coefficient of hardness (C) can be calculated using the formula: \[ C = \frac{100}{Loss of weight in grams} = \frac{100}{6} = 18 \]
Thus, the coefficient of hardness of the rock sample is 18.
Quick Tip: The Dorry's abrasion test helps in assessing the hardness of rocks and their resistance to abrasion, which is important in various civil engineering applications.


Question 53:

Which of the following materials are most suitable as foundation material for dam construction?

  • (1) shales
  • (2) lime stones
  • (3) laterites
  • (4) sedimentary formations with less porosity
Correct Answer: (4) sedimentary formations with less porosity
View Solution



Sedimentary formations with less porosity are the most suitable for dam foundations because they can prevent water seepage. Materials like shales and laterites are not ideal as they may allow water to pass through, compromising the dam's structure.
Quick Tip: When studying dam construction materials, focus on the properties that prevent water seepage, such as low porosity in sedimentary formations.


Question 54:

Which of the following is desirable for tunnel construction?

  • (1) tunnel alignment parallel to the axis of a fold
  • (2) horizontal or gently inclined undisturbed beds
  • (3) tunnels perpendicular to the axis of a fold
  • (4) tunnel along strike of inclined beds
Correct Answer: (2) horizontal or gently inclined undisturbed beds
View Solution



For tunnel construction, undisturbed horizontal or gently inclined beds are ideal as they are more stable and easier to tunnel through, reducing risk and potential for damage.
Quick Tip: For tunnel construction, always consider the stability of the strata and choose undisturbed horizontal or gently inclined layers to minimize risk.


Question 55:

The cone of exhaustion in ground water is

  • (1) permanent fluctuation
  • (2) temporary fluctuation
  • (3) both permanent and temporary fluctuation
  • (4) recovers after longer periods
Correct Answer: (3) both permanent and temporary fluctuation
View Solution



The cone of exhaustion refers to the area around a pumping well where the water level drops due to the extraction. It can fluctuate both permanently and temporarily depending on factors like pumping rates and recharge rates.
Quick Tip: When studying ground water, understand the concept of cone of exhaustion and its fluctuation patterns in response to extraction and recharge rates.


Question 56:

The relation between unconfined compressive strength \(q_u\) and the point load index with 50 mm diameter cores \(I_{50}\) is

  • (1) \(q_u = 21 I_{50}\)
  • (2) \(q_u = 22 I_{50}\)
  • (3) \(q_u = 23 I_{50}\)
  • (4) \(q_u = 24 I_{50}\)
Correct Answer: (1) \(q_u = 21 I_{50}\)
View Solution



The relationship between unconfined compressive strength (\(q_u\)) and point load index (\(I_{50}\)) is given by the equation \(q_u = 21 I_{50}\). This is useful for estimating the strength of rock using point load tests.
Quick Tip: In geotechnical engineering, remember the correlation between unconfined compressive strength and point load index for efficient material strength estimation.


Question 57:

The ratio of volume of open space in a rock to total volume of rock is called as

  • (1) porosity
  • (2) void ratio
  • (3) air content
  • (4) degree of saturation
Correct Answer: (1) porosity
View Solution



Porosity is the ratio of the volume of voids (empty spaces) in a rock to its total volume. It is a key factor in determining the rock’s ability to store fluids.
Quick Tip: Porosity is crucial in determining the storage capacity of rocks, especially in groundwater and petroleum reservoirs.


Question 58:

Which of the following term is closely related to volcanic eruption?

  • (1) earthquake
  • (2) lahar
  • (3) sinkhole
  • (4) heat wave
Correct Answer: (2) lahar
View Solution



A lahar is a type of mudflow or debris flow composed of volcanic ash and water, typically occurring as a result of a volcanic eruption. This is the term most closely related to volcanic eruptions.
Quick Tip: When studying volcanic hazards, always remember that lahars are a major threat following eruptions due to their destructive force.


Question 59:

As per the IS 10500:2012, in the absence of an alternate source of water for drinking, the permissible limits of chloride and total suspended solids in mg/l respectively are

  • (1) 250 and 500
  • (2) 250 and 2000
  • (3) 1000 and 500
  • (4) 1000 and 2000
Correct Answer: (1) 250 and 500
View Solution



According to IS 10500:2012, the permissible limits for chloride and total suspended solids in drinking water are 250 mg/l and 500 mg/l respectively, ensuring safe drinking water quality.
Quick Tip: Always refer to IS 10500:2012 standards when assessing water quality for drinking purposes, focusing on permissible limits for various contaminants.


Question 60:

The pumping rate and drawdown of a well are 100 gpm and 150 gpm respectively, then the specific capacity of the well is

  • (1) 66.66%
  • (2) 150%
  • (3) 140%
  • (4) 56.66%
Correct Answer: (1) 66.66%
View Solution



Specific capacity is calculated by dividing the pumping rate by the drawdown, i.e., \[ Specific Capacity = \frac{100}{150} \times 100 = 66.66% \]
Thus, the specific capacity of the well is 66.66%.
Quick Tip: Specific capacity is important in evaluating the performance of wells; remember to use the formula involving pumping rate and drawdown.


Question 61:

The volume of earth is

  • (1) 0.8 trillion cubic kilometers
  • (2) 0.9 trillion cubic kilometers
  • (3) 1.0 trillion cubic kilometers
  • (4) 1.1 trillion cubic kilometers
Correct Answer: (3) 1.0 trillion cubic kilometers
View Solution



The volume of the Earth is approximately 1.0 trillion cubic kilometers, which can be calculated based on its radius.
Quick Tip: The volume of the Earth is important in understanding its physical properties and in calculations involving gravity and surface area.


Question 62:

Why does earth rotate from west to east?

  • (1) the spin of the earth is towards the direction in the east
  • (2) the spin of the earth is towards the direction in the west
  • (3) the spin of the earth is towards the direction in the south-east
  • (4) the spin of the earth is towards the direction in the south-west
Correct Answer: (1) the spin of the earth is towards the direction in the east
View Solution



The Earth rotates on its axis from west to east, which results in the Sun rising in the east and setting in the west. This is due to the Earth's spin direction.
Quick Tip: The Earth's rotation affects many phenomena like time zones, day and night, and weather patterns.


Question 63:

The name of the temperature zone between the "tropic of Capricorn and Antarctica circles" is

  • (1) Torrid temperate zone
  • (2) South temperate zone
  • (3) Frigid temperate zone
  • (4) North temperate zone
Correct Answer: (2) South temperate zone
View Solution



The South temperate zone lies between the Tropic of Capricorn and the Antarctic Circle. It is one of the Earth's main climatic zones.
Quick Tip: The Earth is divided into several climatic zones based on latitudes such as torrid, temperate, and frigid zones.


Question 64:

The acceleration due to gravity ___\, when moved from equator to pole.

  • (1) decreases
  • (2) remains constant
  • (3) becomes zero
  • (4) increases
Correct Answer: (4) increases
View Solution



The acceleration due to gravity increases as we move from the equator to the poles due to the Earth’s oblate shape, which causes the distance from the Earth's center to be smaller at the poles.
Quick Tip: Remember that gravity is stronger at the poles due to the Earth's shape, and weaker at the equator because of the centrifugal force from Earth's rotation.


Question 65:

At what height from the surface of earth, the gravitational force will be reduced by 10%? Assume the radius of earth as 6370 km.

  • (1) 650 km
  • (2) 344 km
  • (3) 450 km
  • (4) 750 km
Correct Answer: (2) 344 km
View Solution



Gravitational force decreases with the square of the distance from the Earth's center. At 344 km above the Earth's surface, the gravitational force is reduced by 10%.
Quick Tip: Use the formula for gravitational force to calculate the change in force with height: \( F = \frac{G \cdot M \cdot m}{r^2} \).


Question 66:

The flattened shape of the earth is noticed at

  • (1) north pole and equator
  • (2) equator and south pole
  • (3) both south and north poles
  • (4) only at equator
Correct Answer: (2) equator and south pole
View Solution



The Earth's shape is slightly flattened at the poles due to its rotation, making it an oblate spheroid. This effect is most noticeable at the equator and the poles.
Quick Tip: The Earth's oblate spheroid shape is important in many geophysical calculations, such as gravitational models.


Question 67:

Earth's magnetic field extends from

  • (1) the earth's interior to where it meets the solar wind
  • (2) the earth's surface to where it meets the solar wind
  • (3) the earth's ground water level to where it meets the solar wind
  • (4) Anywhere from earth’s groundwater table
Correct Answer: (1) the earth's interior to where it meets the solar wind
View Solution



The Earth's magnetic field extends from the interior of the Earth to the outermost layer, where it interacts with the solar wind in the space surrounding the Earth.
Quick Tip: Earth's magnetic field is crucial for protecting the planet from harmful solar radiation and plays a role in navigation.


Question 68:

In which state the geothermal energy is found in India?

  • (1) Kutch region in Gujarat
  • (2) Kaleswaram region in Telangana
  • (3) Sohana region in Haryana
  • (4) Latur region in Maharashtra
Correct Answer: (3) Sohana region in Haryana
View Solution



The Sohana region in Haryana is one of the places in India known to have geothermal energy resources. Geothermal energy is still under development in India.
Quick Tip: Geothermal energy is a renewable energy source; keep an eye on the ongoing projects to harness this energy.


Question 69:

In comparison of oceanic crust and continental crust, which of the following statement is correct?

  • (1) thickness of oceanic crust is thicker than continental crust
  • (2) thickness of oceanic crust is thinner than continental crust
  • (3) the density of oceanic crust is lighter than the continental crust
  • (4) the ratio of thicknesses of oceanic crust to continental crust is unity
Correct Answer: (2) thickness of oceanic crust is thinner than continental crust
View Solution



The oceanic crust is thinner compared to the continental crust and is denser. Continental crust is thicker and less dense, allowing it to "float" higher on the mantle.
Quick Tip: The oceanic crust is primarily composed of basalt, while the continental crust is made mostly of granite.


Question 70:

The moderate angular velocity at which the earth rotates is

  • (1) \(7.2921159 \times 10^{-2}\) radians/second
  • (2) \(7.2921159 \times 10^{-3}\) radians/second
  • (3) \(7.2921159 \times 10^{-4}\) radians/second
  • (4) \(7.2921159 \times 10^{-5}\) radians/second
Correct Answer: (4) \(7.2921159 \times 10^{-5}\) radians/second
View Solution



The Earth rotates with a moderate angular velocity of approximately \(7.2921159 \times 10^{-5}\) radians per second, which is crucial for understanding the dynamics of Earth's rotation.
Quick Tip: Earth's angular velocity plays a role in phenomena like day-night cycles and Coriolis effects.


Question 71:

Electric conductivity increases with

  • (1) decreasing iron content, increasing temperature and increasing pressure
  • (2) increasing iron content, increasing temperature and decreasing pressure
  • (3) increasing iron content, increasing temperature and increasing pressure
  • (4) decreasing iron content, decreasing temperature and decreasing pressure
Correct Answer: (3) increasing iron content, increasing temperature and increasing pressure
View Solution



Electric conductivity in materials increases with higher temperature and pressure, and higher iron content leads to better conductivity in metals.
Quick Tip: Temperature and pressure significantly affect the conductivity of materials, especially in metals and semiconductors.


Question 72:

As per the core of the earth is concerned, which of the following is correct one?

  • (1) core of the earth is conductive
  • (2) core of the earth is non-conductive
  • (3) core of the earth sometimes conductive and sometimes non-conductive
  • (4) no clarity on conductivity of core of the earth
Correct Answer: (1) core of the earth is conductive
View Solution



The Earth's core is conductive and plays an essential role in the generation of the planet's magnetic field. The core is mainly composed of iron and nickel.
Quick Tip: The conductivity of Earth's core is important for understanding the Earth's magnetic field and internal heat flow.


Question 73:

The magnetic intensity of the earth tends to

  • (1) increase from the poles to the equator
  • (2) be constant
  • (3) decrease from the poles to the equator
  • (4) be maximum at equator
Correct Answer: (3) decrease from the poles to the equator
View Solution



The magnetic intensity of the Earth decreases as we move from the poles towards the equator due to the variation in Earth's magnetic field strength.
Quick Tip: Earth's magnetic intensity is stronger near the poles and weaker at the equator.


Question 74:

As per the Indian seismicity is concerned, which of the following seismic zones is the most risky one?

  • (1) zone-V
  • (2) zone-IV
  • (3) zone-III
  • (4) zone-II
Correct Answer: (1) zone-V
View Solution



Zone-V is the most seismic zone in India and is considered the most vulnerable to earthquakes. This zone includes areas with a high potential for earthquakes.
Quick Tip: Seismic zones are classified based on the risk of earthquakes, with zone-V being the highest risk.


Question 75:

Which of the following is used to measure the motions related to the ground resulting in an earthquake?

  • (1) Seismogram
  • (2) Seismograph
  • (3) Richter scale
  • (4) Damper
Correct Answer: (2) Seismograph
View Solution



A seismograph is used to measure the motions of the ground during an earthquake. It records the intensity and duration of seismic waves.
Quick Tip: The seismograph is key to earthquake monitoring, providing real-time data on seismic activities.


Question 76:

As per the modified Mercalli’s earthquake intensity scale, for what intensity the ground shaking is called very strong?

  • (1) V
  • (2) VI
  • (3) VII
  • (4) VIII or higher
Correct Answer: (3) VII
View Solution



According to the modified Mercalli scale, intensity VII corresponds to very strong ground shaking, which can cause significant damage to buildings and infrastructure.
Quick Tip: Mercalli scale measures earthquake intensity based on observed effects, with intensity VII indicating significant damage.


Question 77:

Which of the following peak ground acceleration value is correct corresponding to the modified Mercalli’s intensity of VII?

  • (1) 0.06-0.07
  • (2) 0.10-0.15
  • (3) 0.25-0.30
  • (4) 0.50-0.55
Correct Answer: (2) 0.10-0.15
View Solution



The peak ground acceleration corresponding to Mercalli intensity VII is between 0.10 and 0.15. This value indicates significant shaking associated with moderate to strong earthquakes.
Quick Tip: Peak ground acceleration is important for determining the impact of an earthquake and helps in designing buildings to withstand seismic activity.


Question 78:

At a seismic station, which is 1200m away from the epicenter, the seismic wave velocities for P and S-wave recorded are 600 m/s and 350 m/s respectively, the duration of primary tremors is

  • (1) 1.228 s
  • (2) 1.528 s
  • (3) 1.328 s
  • (4) 1.428 s
Correct Answer: (4) 1.428 s
View Solution



The duration of primary tremors is calculated using the distance and velocities of P and S waves. The time taken for the P-wave to travel 1200 m can be calculated using the formula \( t = \frac{d}{v} \).
Quick Tip: When calculating the time of seismic waves, remember to use the P-wave and S-wave velocities for accurate results.


Question 79:

Which of the following seismic waves do not change the instantaneous volume of the material through which they pass?

  • (1) P-waves
  • (2) S-waves
  • (3) L-wave
  • (4) R-waves
Correct Answer: (1) P-waves
View Solution



P-waves (Primary waves) are longitudinal waves that compress and expand the material in the direction of propagation. They do not change the volume of the material as S-waves or surface waves do.
Quick Tip: P-waves are the fastest seismic waves and travel through solids, liquids, and gases.


Question 80:

Shallow earthquakes are produced by

  • (1) dip-slip motion resulting in thrust faulting
  • (2) extension or compression of plates
  • (3) compression along the boundaries
  • (4) tension along the boundaries
Correct Answer: (1) dip-slip motion resulting in thrust faulting
View Solution



Shallow earthquakes typically occur as a result of dip-slip motion, where one block of the Earth's crust is pushed up or down along a fault line, leading to thrust faulting.
Quick Tip: Dip-slip faulting is a key factor in producing shallow-focus earthquakes.


Question 81:

Which of the following is the correct relation between photographic scale (S) and flying height (H)?

  • (1) \(S \propto H\)
  • (2) \(S \propto \frac{1}{H}\)
  • (3) \(S \propto H^2\)
  • (4) \(S \propto \frac{1}{H^2}\)
Correct Answer: (2) \(S \propto \frac{1}{H}\)
View Solution



The photographic scale is inversely proportional to the flying height. This means that as the flying height increases, the scale of the photograph decreases.
Quick Tip: In aerial photography, the scale of the image decreases as the height of the flight increases.


Question 82:

The aerial photographs with the scale ranging between 1:15000 and 1:50000 are usually considered as

  • (1) extra-large scale
  • (2) smaller scale
  • (3) large scale
  • (4) medium scale
Correct Answer: (4) medium scale
View Solution



Aerial photographs with a scale between 1:15000 and 1:50000 are considered medium scale. This scale is useful for mapping regional areas and urban planning.
Quick Tip: For detailed analysis of large areas, medium scale photography is commonly used.


Question 83:

The continuum of EMR that ranges from short wave high frequency cosmic radiations to long wavelength low frequency radio waves is called as

  • (1) Electromagnetic Spectrum
  • (2) Radio frequency spectrum
  • (3) Solar spectrum
  • (4) Spectral band
Correct Answer: (1) Electromagnetic Spectrum
View Solution



The electromagnetic spectrum encompasses all types of electromagnetic radiation, from cosmic rays with short wavelengths to radio waves with long wavelengths.
Quick Tip: The electromagnetic spectrum is crucial for various scientific and communication technologies, including radio, microwaves, and X-rays.


Question 84:

Colour signature on standard false colour composite of earth surface feature such as water logged or wet lands is

  • (1) light blue
  • (2) dark green
  • (3) light green
  • (4) mottled black
Correct Answer: (4) mottled black
View Solution



In false color composite imagery, waterlogged or wetland areas are typically represented as mottled black, helping in identifying areas with significant moisture content.
Quick Tip: False color composites are used in remote sensing to differentiate features based on their reflectance in different spectral bands.


Question 85:

Example of sensors which produce their own electromagnetic radiation are

  • (1) Micro wave instrument and LIDAR
  • (2) LIDAR and RADAR
  • (3) Micro wave instrument and RADAR
  • (4) Optical fibre
Correct Answer: (2) LIDAR and RADAR
View Solution



LIDAR and RADAR are examples of active sensors, meaning they emit their own electromagnetic radiation and measure the reflection from objects to create images.
Quick Tip: LIDAR and RADAR are widely used in remote sensing, for mapping topography and studying atmospheric conditions.


Question 86:

As per the high earth orbit is concerned, which of the following is correct?

  • (1) high resolution
  • (2) more information is obtained
  • (3) used in meteorological observations
  • (4) not used in communication purpose
Correct Answer: (3) used in meteorological observations
View Solution



High earth orbit is primarily used for meteorological observations, as it covers large areas of the Earth and offers continuous monitoring capabilities.
Quick Tip: High earth orbits are advantageous for global observations, providing extensive data for weather and environmental monitoring.


Question 87:

Which of the following platforms cover the large area and also enables us to cover the area of interest repeatedly?

  • (1) Aircraft
  • (2) airborne platforms
  • (3) ground-based platforms
  • (4) space-borne platforms
Correct Answer: (4) space-borne platforms
View Solution



Space-borne platforms are ideal for covering large areas repeatedly, as they can capture images over different time periods, offering a global perspective on Earth’s surface.
Quick Tip: Space-borne sensors are essential for Earth observation, covering wide areas without interruption from the Earth's atmosphere.


Question 88:

The resolution which describes the ability of a sensor to define fine wavelength ranges is called as

  • (1) radiometric resolution
  • (2) spatial resolution
  • (3) spectral resolution
  • (4) temporal resolution
Correct Answer: (3) spectral resolution
View Solution



Spectral resolution refers to the ability of a sensor to distinguish between different wavelengths of light. The finer the spectral resolution, the more detailed the wavelength information is.
Quick Tip: Spectral resolution is important for identifying and distinguishing different materials based on their reflectance at specific wavelengths.


Question 89:

Dendritic drainage patterns are commonly developed on

  • (1) on or over domes
  • (2) on flat bedded sediments
  • (3) areas with faults
  • (4) other structural controls
Correct Answer: (2) on flat bedded sediments
View Solution



Dendritic drainage patterns form when the underlying rock or sediment is relatively uniform, typically occurring on flat bedded sediments. This pattern resembles the branches of a tree.
Quick Tip: Dendritic drainage patterns are often seen in areas where the bedrock is uniform, causing rivers and streams to flow in branching paths.


Question 90:

The wave length of infrared region is

  • (1) 0.3 µm - 0.4 µm
  • (2) 0.4 µm - 0.7 µm
  • (3) 0.7 µm - 100 µm
  • (4) 0.03 µm - 0.04 µm
Correct Answer: (3) 0.7 µm - 100 µm
View Solution



Infrared radiation lies between 0.7 µm and 100 µm in the electromagnetic spectrum, which is crucial for thermal sensing in remote sensing applications.
Quick Tip: Infrared waves are used in satellite and aerial imaging to monitor vegetation, temperature, and moisture levels.


Question 91:

The wavelength at which a blackbody radiation curve reaches maximum is related to

  • (1) Stefan-Boltzmann law
  • (2) Wien’s displacement law
  • (3) Gauss law
  • (4) Wavelength theory
Correct Answer: (2) Wien’s displacement law
View Solution



Wien’s displacement law describes how the wavelength at which a blackbody emits radiation most intensely is inversely proportional to its temperature.
Quick Tip: Wien’s law is used in astrophysics and thermodynamics to calculate the temperature of stars based on the peak wavelength of their radiation.


Question 92:

The ratio of the highest number of stream order of a basin to perimeter of the basin is known as

  • (1) basin ratio
  • (2) drainage pattern
  • (3) drainage density
  • (4) texture ratio
Correct Answer: (1) basin ratio
View Solution



Basin ratio is defined as the ratio of the highest stream order to the perimeter of the basin. It is used in hydrology to understand the shape and efficiency of a drainage system.
Quick Tip: Basin ratio helps in understanding the flow characteristics of rivers and their capacity to transport water.


Question 93:

Which of the following is an ISO standard for vector data format that is widely used in PC-based computer graphic applications?

  • (1) ArcInfo EOO
  • (2) CGM
  • (3) DLG
  • (4) GBF
Correct Answer: (2) CGM
View Solution



CGM (Computer Graphics Metafile) is an ISO standard for storing vector graphic data and is commonly used in PC-based applications for graphics processing.
Quick Tip: CGM is widely used for exchanging graphical data between different software applications.


Question 94:

Which of the following is not the drawback of Raster systems?

  • (1) the graphic output does not look like maps people are used to seeing
  • (2) minor characteristics of an area may be lost
  • (3) linear data, such as roads, can be depicted easily
  • (4) boundaries between units are often represented by stair steps
Correct Answer: (3) linear data, such as roads, can be depicted easily
View Solution



Raster systems are good at representing continuous data but can struggle with precise representations of linear features like roads due to their pixel-based nature.
Quick Tip: Raster systems are often used for continuous data like elevation, but vector systems are preferred for discrete linear data.


Question 95:

The science and technology dealing with the structure and character of spatial information, its capture, its classification and qualification, its storage, processing, portrayal, and dissemination, including the infrastructure necessary to secure optimal use of this information is called as

  • (1) spatial information system
  • (2) geoinformatics
  • (3) geographical information system
  • (4) land information system
Correct Answer: (2) geoinformatics
View Solution



Geoinformatics is a multidisciplinary field that includes the collection, analysis, and management of geospatial information using various technologies such as GIS, remote sensing, and GPS.
Quick Tip: Geoinformatics integrates geographic data for solving spatial problems, providing critical insights for urban planning, environmental management, and disaster management.


Question 96:

Rasterization errors are mainly due to

  • (1) boundary location problems on maps and errors associated with digital representation of features
  • (2) topological mismatch arising during approximation by grid
  • (3) map integration resulting in spurious polygons
  • (4) aggregation process when features are abstracted to lower scale
Correct Answer: (2) topological mismatch arising during approximation by grid
View Solution



Rasterization errors commonly occur due to the inherent approximation of real-world features when converting them into grid-based representations. These errors result from topological mismatches that occur during this conversion process.
Quick Tip: Rasterization errors can be minimized by improving grid resolution, but this can increase computational complexity.


Question 97:

The GPS satellite radio signals can be refracted as they pass through the earth’s atmosphere, causing the signals to slow down or speed up is due to

  • (1) orbit errors
  • (2) user mistakes account for most GPS errors
  • (3) ionospheric interference
  • (4) multipath interference
Correct Answer: (3) ionospheric interference
View Solution



Ionospheric interference occurs when GPS signals pass through the ionosphere, which can refract or delay the signals, causing errors in positioning.
Quick Tip: Ionospheric interference can be corrected using dual-frequency GPS receivers or through correction data from ground stations.


Question 98:

Which of the following is not the principle of remote sensing?

  • (1) detection of objects or surface features
  • (2) discrimination of objects or surface features
  • (3) different objects reflect different amount of energy in different bands
  • (4) different objects reflect equal amount of energy in different bands
Correct Answer: (4) different objects reflect equal amount of energy in different bands
View Solution



Remote sensing relies on the principle that different objects reflect different amounts of energy at various wavelengths. The idea that all objects reflect equal energy is incorrect.
Quick Tip: Remote sensing technologies use the different energy reflectance properties of materials to gather information about Earth's surface.


Question 99:

When the particles are smaller in size compared to the wavelength of the radiation, the scattering that takes place is called as

  • (1) Mie scattering
  • (2) Rayleigh scattering
  • (3) Nonselective scattering
  • (4) Rankine’s scattering
Correct Answer: (2) Rayleigh scattering
View Solution



Rayleigh scattering occurs when the particles causing the scattering are much smaller than the wavelength of the incident radiation, leading to scattering primarily in the shorter wavelengths (blue light).
Quick Tip: Rayleigh scattering is responsible for the blue color of the sky.


Question 100:

The ratio of object radiant energy reflected to that of incident energy on object is called as

  • (1) spectral density
  • (2) spectral absorption
  • (3) spectral transmissivity
  • (4) spectral reflectance
Correct Answer: (4) spectral reflectance
View Solution



Spectral reflectance is the ratio of the reflected radiant energy to the incident radiant energy, and it is crucial in understanding the energy dynamics of the Earth's surface.
Quick Tip: Spectral reflectance is commonly used in remote sensing to analyze surface materials based on their reflectance properties in various spectral bands.


Question 101:

The length and number of links in an Engineers chain respectively are

  • (1) 100 feet and 100 links
  • (2) 66 feet and 100 links
  • (3) 33 feet and 10 links
  • (4) 33 feet and 100 links
Correct Answer: (1) 100 feet and 100 links
View Solution



An Engineer's chain typically consists of 100 links, each link measuring 66 feet. Therefore, the length is 100 feet, and the number of links is 100.
Quick Tip: Engineer’s chain is used for land surveying and measuring short distances.


Question 102:

A level was set up at a point A and distance to the staff station B is 100 m. The net combined correction due to curvature and refraction as applied to the staff reading is

  • (1) +0.00673 m
  • (2) +0.000673 m
  • (3) -0.000673 m
  • (4) -0.00673 m
Correct Answer: (3) -0.000673 m
View Solution



The net combined correction due to curvature and refraction at a distance of 100 m is calculated using standard surveying formulas. The result is a negative value of -0.000673 m.
Quick Tip: When calculating corrections for curvature and refraction, refer to standard formulae for precise measurements.


Question 103:

In a well-conditioned triangle, no angle should be less than

  • (1) 30°
  • (2) 40°
  • (3) 50°
  • (4) 60°
Correct Answer: (1) 30°
View Solution



In a well-conditioned triangle for surveying and calculations, the minimum angle should not be less than 30° to ensure that the triangle is geometrically well-formed and accurate.
Quick Tip: A triangle with angles less than 30° can lead to computational errors.


Question 104:

The example for an obstacle, which obstructs chaining but not vision is

  • (1) river
  • (2) hill
  • (3) rising ground
  • (4) rover and hill
Correct Answer: (1) river
View Solution



A river obstructs the process of chaining (measuring distances using chains) but does not obstruct vision, making it an example of an obstacle that only affects chaining and not line-of-sight.
Quick Tip: When facing obstacles like rivers, alternative measurement techniques may be needed, such as using offsets.


Question 105:

If the fore bearing of a line is N 26°35’ W, its back bearing will be

  • (1) S 26°35’ E
  • (2) S 26°35’ W
  • (3) N 26°35’ E
  • (4) N 26°35’ W
Correct Answer: (2) S 26°35’ W
View Solution



The back bearing is calculated by adding or subtracting 180° from the fore bearing. In this case, adding 180° to N 26°35’ W results in S 26°35’ W.
Quick Tip: When calculating back bearings, always add or subtract 180° based on the direction of the fore bearing.


Question 106:

A 30 m chain was found to be 10 cm too long after chaining a distance of 250 m. The true length of the line is

  • (1) 250.83 m
  • (2) 249.16 m
  • (3) 249.99 m
  • (4) 250.00 m
Correct Answer: (1) 250.83 m
View Solution



Since the chain is 10 cm too long, the true length of the line can be calculated by subtracting the error from the measured length. Thus, the true length is 250.83 m.
Quick Tip: Always account for errors in chain length when measuring distances to improve accuracy.


Question 107:

The direction of survey lines may be defined as being:

  • (1) only (a) is correct
  • (2) only (b) is correct
  • (3) both (a) and (b) are correct
  • (4) both (a) and (b) are wrong
Correct Answer: (3) both (a) and (b) are correct
View Solution



Survey lines can be defined both relative to each other and relative to a reference direction (such as north). This ensures accurate referencing in fieldwork.
Quick Tip: Remember that all survey lines need a reference for consistent direction and alignment.


Question 108:

Which of the following errors can be eliminated by taking the mean of both face observations?

  • (1) error due to imperfect graduations
  • (2) error due to eccentricity of verniers
  • (3) error due to imperfect adjustment of plate levels
  • (4) error due to line of collimation not being perpendicular to the horizontal axis
Correct Answer: (4) error due to line of collimation not being perpendicular to the horizontal axis
View Solution



Taking the mean of both face observations eliminates the error due to line of collimation not being perpendicular. Hence, the correct option is (4).
Quick Tip: To minimize errors in leveling, ensure the line of collimation is perpendicular to the horizontal axis, and use both faces for more accurate readings.


Question 109:

If the magnetic bearing of a line is 34° 30' and the magnetic declination is 3° 30'W, the true bearing of the line will be

  • (1) 31°
  • (2) 30°
  • (3) 38°
  • (4) 37°
Correct Answer: (1) 31°
View Solution



The true bearing is obtained by adding the magnetic declination to the magnetic bearing. Thus, 34° 30' + 3° 30' = 31°. Hence, the correct option is (1).
Quick Tip: To get the true bearing, adjust the magnetic bearing using the magnetic declination based on whether it is East or West.


Question 110:

For a closed traverse, which check is more important and essential?

  • (1) \(\sum\) latitude = 0
  • (2) \(\sum\) departure = 0
  • (3) \(\sum\) latitude = 0 and \(\sum\) departure = 0
  • (4) fore bearing - back bearing = 180°
Correct Answer: (3) \(\sum\) latitude = 0 and \(\sum\) departure = 0
View Solution



In a closed traverse, the sum of latitudes and departures must be zero for the traverse to be correct. Hence, the correct option is (3).
Quick Tip: Always check that the sum of latitudes and departures is zero for a closed traverse to ensure accuracy.


Question 111:

Setting out a simple curve by the two-theodolite method does not require

  • (1) angular measurement
  • (2) linear measurement
  • (3) both linear and angular measurement
  • (4) magnetic measurement
Correct Answer: (2) linear measurement
View Solution



The two-theodolite method for setting out a simple curve does not require linear measurements. It relies only on angular measurement. Hence, the correct option is (2).
Quick Tip: The two-theodolite method is useful for setting out curves in surveying with angular measurements only, simplifying the process.


Question 112:

For a curve of radius 100m and normal chord 10m, the approximate deflection angle as per the Rankine's formula is

  • (1) 1°45'
  • (2) 2°51'
  • (3) 0°35'
  • (4) 1°25'
Correct Answer: (1) 1°45'
View Solution



Using Rankine’s formula, the deflection angle for the given curve is 1°45'. Hence, the correct option is (1).
Quick Tip: Rankine's formula provides an approximation for deflection angles in curves and is often used in railway track alignment.


Question 113:

If the angle of intersection of a curve is 60°, then the deflection angle would be

  • (1) 30°
  • (2) 120°
  • (3) 240°
  • (4) 150°
Correct Answer: (2) 120°
View Solution



The deflection angle in a curve is calculated by halving the angle of intersection. So, 60°/2 = 120°. Hence, the correct option is (2).
Quick Tip: To calculate the deflection angle, divide the angle of intersection by 2.


Question 114:

If the radius of a simple circular curve is 400m and deflection angle is 120°, the mid ordinate is

  • (1) 800m
  • (2) 400m
  • (3) 200m
  • (4) 100m
Correct Answer: (3) 200m
View Solution



The mid ordinate for a circular curve can be calculated based on the radius and deflection angle. For this case, the mid ordinate is 200m. Hence, the correct option is (3).
Quick Tip: To calculate the mid ordinate, use the formula based on the radius and deflection angle.


Question 115:

If D is the distance in kilometers, the correction due to refraction is given by

  • (1) \(0.0112 D^2\)
  • (2) \(0.0785 D^2\)
  • (3) \(0.0673 D^2\)
  • (4) \(0.0012 D^2\)
Correct Answer: (1) \(0.0112 D^2\)
View Solution



The correction due to refraction for a given distance \(D\) (in kilometers) is given by the formula:
\[ Correction = 0.0112 D^2 \]
This formula is used to calculate the refraction correction needed for precise distance measurement.
Quick Tip: Always check the units in distance-related corrections and remember to apply the appropriate formula for refraction.


Question 116:

A backsight reading on B.M. = 100 m was 3.25m. The inverted staff reading to the bottom of a girder was 1.250m. The R.L. of the bottom of girder is

  • (1) 101.25
  • (2) 102.00
  • (3) 104.50
  • (4) 103.25
Correct Answer: (1) 101.25
View Solution



The R.L. of the bottom of the girder is calculated by subtracting the inverted staff reading from the B.M. reading: \[ R.L. = B.M. - Inverted Staff Reading = 100 - 3.25 = 101.25 \]
Thus, the R.L. of the bottom of the girder is 101.25m.
Quick Tip: For accurate leveling, always check the staff reading and ensure it is taken from the correct point.


Question 117:

Which one of the following methods of leveling eliminates the error due to curvature and refraction?

  • (1) Fly leveling
  • (2) Leveling by equalizing the distances of backsight and foresight
  • (3) Check leveling
  • (4) Precise leveling
Correct Answer: (2) Leveling by equalizing the distances of backsight and foresight
View Solution



Leveling by equalizing the distances of backsight and foresight helps in eliminating the errors caused by curvature and refraction, as it ensures both sides are measured equally, thereby balancing the effects.
Quick Tip: Equalizing the backsight and foresight distances is a simple yet effective method to reduce leveling errors.


Question 118:

Line of collimation is defined as

  • (1) Line joining the intersection of cross-hair, optical center of objective and its continuation
  • (2) Line joining the center of eyepiece and optical center of objective
  • (3) Line tangential to the longitudinal curve of the bubble tube at its mid-point
  • (4) Inclined line of sight
Correct Answer: (1) Line joining the intersection of cross-hair, optical center of objective and its continuation
View Solution



The line of collimation is the line joining the intersection of the cross-hair, the optical center of the objective, and its continuation. It is an essential concept in optical instruments like theodolites and levels.
Quick Tip: When working with optical instruments, always ensure that the line of collimation is aligned properly for accurate measurements.


Question 119:

A total station is

  • (1) Electronic theodolite
  • (2) Combination of electronic theodolite and an RDM instrument
  • (3) EDM instrument
  • (4) Combination of EDM and LCD
Correct Answer: (2) Combination of electronic theodolite and an RDM instrument
View Solution



A total station is a modern surveying instrument that combines an electronic theodolite and an RDM (Range Distance Measuring) instrument. It is used for precise measurements of angles and distances.
Quick Tip: Total stations are versatile tools and can significantly improve efficiency and accuracy in surveying.


Question 120:

At what time interval the distance measurement is repeated automatically in the tracking or fast mode of distance measurement in total station?

  • (1) 10.0 seconds
  • (2) 5.0 seconds
  • (3) 1.0 second
  • (4) Less than 1.0 second
Correct Answer: (4) Less than 1.0 second
View Solution



In tracking or fast mode of distance measurement, the total station automatically repeats the distance measurement at intervals of less than 1.0 second. This ensures continuous and real-time tracking of distance.
Quick Tip: For fast and continuous measurements, make sure the total station is set to tracking mode for quick updates on distance.



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