TS PGECET 2023 Nano Technology Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

Question 1:

Two bars having different materials but of same area and length are subjected to same tensile force. If the bars have their axial elongation in the ratio of 4:6, then the two material’s ratio of Modulus of Elasticity is _________.

• (1) 6 : 4
• (2) 4 : 6
• (3) 2 : \(\sqrt{6}\)
• (4) \(\sqrt{6}\) : 2

A metal bar of 10 mm diameter when subjected to a pull of 23.5 kN gave an elongation of 0.3mm on a gauge length of 200 mm. The metal’s Young’s modulus of elasticity is _________.

• (1) 500 kN/mm\(^2\)
• (2) 300 kN/mm\(^2\)
• (3) 360 kN/mm\(^2\)
• (4) 200 kN/mm\(^2\)

If in a crystal there exists a point defect of the interstitial atom and if solute atom is smaller than the solvent atom, then select the true statement for the edge dislocation.

• (1) Dislocation will always attract to interstitial atom
• (2) Compression side of edge dislocation will repeal and will be attracted to the tension side
• (3) Compression side of edge dislocation will attract and will be repealed to the tension side
• (4) Dislocation will always repeal to interstitial atom

Which one of the following is the metallic tiny whisker?

• (1) Bulk metallic glass
• (2) Single crystal with high dislocation
• (3) Metal foam
• (4) Tiny projection of the metals with zero dislocation

Select the following false statement for strain-relief crystallization.

• (1) Interaction of like signed dislocation
• (2) Decrease in the electric resistance
• (3) Increase in density
• (4) Dislocation climb

When a material is plastically deformed at low temperature (around 25 degrees) relative to the melting temperature, the following change is not observed in ¨___________________.

• (1) Change in grain shape
• (2) Strain hardening
• (3) Increase in dislocation density
• (4) Decrease in dislocation density

Classification of Composites can be based on __________________.

• (1) Matrix type
• (2) Matrix type & Reinforcement constituent
• (3) Reinforcement constituent
• (4) Neither on matrix type nor on reinforcement constituent type

Which of the following is an example for Carbon fiber?

• (1) Reinforcement
• (2) Filler
• (3) Stabilizer
• (4) Flame retardant

Which of the following polymer additive is used to remove parts from molds?

• (1) Plasticizers
• (2) Stabilizers
• (3) Lubricants
• (4) Reinforcements

________________ is not a characteristic trait of polymer materials.

• (1) Low density
• (2) Resistant to chemical attack
• (3) High strength
• (4) Low cost

The smallest portion of the crystal lattice is _________________.

• (1) Unit cell
• (2) Miller indices
• (3) Lattice point
• (4) Crystal

Which one of the following is Packing fraction of a simple cubic structure?

• (1) 0.681
• (2) 0.745
• (3) 0.813
• (4) 0.524

Burgers vector of edge dislocation is ------- to the dislocation line.

• (1) \(30^\circ\)
• (2) \(90^\circ\)
• (3) \(55^\circ\)
• (4) \(70^\circ\)

The ratio of lateral strain to linear strain is__________________.

• (1) Bulk Modulus
• (2) Modulus of Elasticity
• (3) Modulus of Rigidity
• (4) Poisson’s Ratio

The Capacity of a material to absorb energy prior to failure is _________________.

• (1) Hardness
• (2) Stiffness
• (3) Toughness
• (4) Strength

________________ structure has amorphous solids.

• (1) Regular
• (2) Irregular
• (3) Linear
• (4) Dendritic

Each point (position of particle) in a crystal lattice is termed as __________________.

• (1) Lattice point
• (2) Lattice lines
• (3) Lattice index
• (4) Lattice spot

If a metal forms a FCC lattice with unit edge length of 500 pm and atomic mass of 110, calculate the density of the metal.

• (1) 5846 kg/m\(^3\)
• (2) 2923 kg/m\(^3\)
• (3) 8768 kg/m\(^3\)
• (4) 1750 kg/m\(^3\)

Which of the following is the advantage of using conducting polymers in place of metals?

• (1) Cost
• (2) Thermal conductivity
• (3) Light-weight
• (4) Solubility

What is the average maximum temperature used for engineering ceramics?

• (1) 2860\(^\circ\)C
• (2) 6815\(^\circ\)C
• (3) 2760\(^\circ\)C
• (4) 3400\(^\circ\)C

Example for a thermoplastic is __________.

• (1) Melamine
• (2) Acetal
• (3) Epoxide
• (4) Urethane

QD lasers have a very low threshold current densities ranging from ______.

• (1) 0.5 to 5 A cm\(^{-2}\)
• (2) 2 to 10 A cm\(^{-2}\)
• (3) 10 to 30 A cm\(^{-2}\)
• (4) 6 to 20 A cm\(^{-2}\)

Buried hetero-junction (BH) device is a type of __________, where the active volume is buried in a material of wider band-gap and lower refractive index.

• (1) Gas lasers
• (2) Strong index guiding lasers
• (3) Gain guided lasers
• (4) Tunable lasers

Which of the following have anisotropic nature within their structure?

• (1) Snowflakes
• (2) Hair wax
• (3) Polythene
• (4) Crystal glass

_________ is a phenomenon, where the magnetic lines of force cannot penetrate the body of a superconductor.

• (1) Isotopic effect
• (2) BCS theory
• (3) London theory
• (4) Meissner effect

In the periodic table, number of metallic elements is ________.

• (1) 95
• (2) 118
• (3) 125
• (4) 145

Which property of metal is used for making strings of musical instruments like Sitar and Violin.

• (1) Malleability
• (2) Ductility
• (3) Sonorousness
• (4) Conductivity

______ metal is used for nuclear energy.

• (1) Zirconium
• (2) Lanthanum
• (3) Uranium
• (4) Tungsten

From the following, forbidden energy gap of dielectrics is ________.

• (1) Equal to 1.2 eV
• (2) Greater than or equal to 3 eV
• (3) Less than 1.2 eV
• (4) Equal to 2 eV

The torque induced on a dipole when placed in an electric field \(E\) is ________.

• (1) \(E \sin \theta\)
• (2) \(E \cos \theta\)
• (3) \(pE \cos \theta\)
• (4) \(pE \sin \theta\)

The value of 1 Debye in cm is ________.

• (1) \(3.33 \times 10^{-30}\) cm
• (2) \(3.33 \times 10^{-28}\) cm
• (3) \(3.33 \times 10^{-32}\) cm
• (4) \(3.33 \times 10^{-34}\) cm

In a water drop of radius 1 mm all the molecular dipole points are in the same direction. If the dipole moment of a water molecule is \(6 \times 10^{-30}\) m, what is the polarization in the water drop?

• (1) \(6.4 \times 10^{-13}\) m\(^{-2}\)
• (2) \(7.4 \times 10^{-13}\) m\(^{-2}\)
• (3) \(9.4 \times 10^{-13}\) m\(^{-2}\)
• (4) \(8.4 \times 10^{-13}\) m\(^{-2}\)

In the formula, \(P = \chi_e E\), \(\chi_e\) is called as ___________________.

• (1) Electric constant
• (2) Polarizing constant
• (3) \textbf{Electric susceptibility}
• (4) Polarizing susceptibility

In Ferroelectric materials, Polarization is___________________.

• (1) Reversible
• (2) Permanent
• (3) Spiked
• (4) Linear

The temperature characteristic of ferroelectric crystal is called __________________.

• (1) Crystal Temperature
• (2) Transition Temperature
• (3) Ferro Temperature
• (4) Weiss Temperature

___\ Part of the curve shows Spontaneous Polarization.

• (1) B
• (2) C
• (3) D
• (4) \textbf{A}

___________ is the symmetry of BaTiO\textsubscript{3 in ferroelectric form.

• (1) Tetragonal
• (2) Cubic
• (3) Trigonal Bi-pyramidal
• (4) Octahedron

The minimum amount of current passed through the body of superconductor in order to destroy the superconductivity is called ______.

• (1) Critical current
• (2) Induced current
• (3) Eddy current
• (4) Hall current

Solid that offers no _______ for the passage of electricity is called superconductors.

• (1) Conductance
• (2) Inductance
• (3) Impedance
• (4) Resistance

The shifting of electrons in superconductors is prevented by _______.

• (1) Threshold energy level
• (2) Energy barrier
• (3) Orbitals
• (4) Quantum effect

An ideal superconductor exhibit _________.

• (1) Mesmeric effect
• (2) Mesomeric effect
• (3) Meissner effect
• (4) Monomeric effect

The Preparation of superconductors by ceramic method with homogeneous mixture of the oxides in their molar ratios _______.

• (1) Y\(_2\)O\(_3\), BaCO\(_3\), Cu\(_2\)O
• (2) Y\(_2\)O\(_3\), BaCO\(_3\), CuO
• (3) Y\(_2\)O\(_4\), BaCO\(_3\), CuO
• (4) Y\(_2\)O\(_3\), BaCO\(_3\), Cu\(_2\)O

Which of the following is relation between transition temperature (T\(_c\)) and isotopic mass (M)?

• (1) T\(_c\) \(\propto\) M\(^{1/2}\)
• (2) T\(_c\) \(\propto\) M\(^{-1}\)
• (3) T\(_c\) \(\propto\) M
• (4) T\(_c\) \(\propto\) M\(^{-1/2}\)

The sequence of the colour change during the polymerisation of polyaniline, is _________.

• (1) Light blue >> blue green >> copper tint >> green
• (2) Green >> copper tint >> blue green >> light blue
• (3) Copper tint >> blue green >> green >> light blue
• (4) Blue green >> green >> light blue >> copper tint

Conductivity of a material is defined as ________.

• (1) \(\dfrac{R A}{l}\)
• (2) \(\dfrac{E}{J}\)
• (3) \(\dfrac{1}{R}\)
• (4) \(\dfrac{l}{R A}\)

The material's insulating capacity against high voltages is called as ________.

• (1) Thermoelectricity
• (2) Electromechanical effect
• (3) Electrochemical effect
• (4) Dielectric strength

The nature of the coefficient of resistance of an insulator is ________.

• (1) Positive
• (2) Infinite
• (3) Negative
• (4) Zero

Which one is the most commonly used for making magnetic recording tape?

• (1) Silver nitrate
• (2) Small particles of iron
• (3) Silicon-iron
• (4) Ferric oxide

Example of piezoelectric material is ________.

• (1) Quartz
• (2) Glass
• (3) Corundum
• (4) Neoprene

Which one of the following is the correct classification of the conducting materials?

• (1) low resistivity, low conductivity
• (2) high resistivity, high conductivity
• (3) medium resistivity, medium conductivity
• (4) low resistivity, high conductivity

With increase in temperature, the electrical conductivity of intrinsic semiconductor _______.

• (1) Decreases
• (2) Increases
• (3) Remains same
• (4) First increases then decrease

What is the net charge on n-type material?

• (1) Positive
• (2) Neutral
• (3) Negative
• (4) Both positive and negative

The ________ statement is true for a dielectric.

• (1) Dielectrics are superconductors at high temperature
• (2) They cannot become superconductors
• (3) They have very less breakdown voltage
• (4) Dielectrics are superconductors at low temperature

A material with one dimension in Nano range and the other two dimensions are large is known as

• (1) Micro-material
• (2) Quantum wire
• (3) Quantum dot
• (4) Quantum well

Product design belongs to ________.

• (1) Bottom-up approach
• (2) Top-down approach
• (3) Top-down followed by Bottom-up
• (4) Bottom-up approach followed by Top-down

A special case of non-inverting amplifier in which all of the output voltage is feedback to the inverting input of the op-amp is known as ______.

• (1) Differentiator
• (2) Integrator
• (3) Voltage Follower
• (4) Logarithmic Amplifier

______ effects are exhibited by Schmitt trigger.

• (1) Hall
• (2) Hysteresis
• (3) Accelerator
• (4) Illumination

Frequency response improves with __________ in an RC coupled amplifier.

• (1) Lower \(R_1\)
• (2) Less Gain
• (3) More Diodes
• (4) Higher \(C_c\)

_________ transistor array is essential in construction of a mirror circuit where the formation of diode takes place by an adjacent transistor.

• (1) CA3081
• (2) CA3046
• (3) CA3083
• (4) CA3086

An increase in operating frequency also increases _____ between input and output and decreases _____ for a compensating network of an amplifier.

• (1) Phase shift \& break frequency
• (2) Magnitude (gain) \& Phase shift
• (3) Break frequency \& Phase shift
• (4) Phase shift \& magnitude (gain)

______ transistor is connected in parallel with feedback capacitor for termination of each ramp at a prescribed level in a Voltage Controlled Sawtooth Oscillator (VCO).

• (1) BJT
• (2) PUT
• (3) FET
• (4) MOSFET

The below stated condition applicable for Non-inverting amplifier is ______.

• (1) Output voltage is greater than input voltage
• (2) Output voltage is lesser than input voltage
• (3) Output voltage is in phase with an input signal
• (4) Output voltage is out of phase w.r.t. input by 180\(^\circ\)

Choose a correct order from the following steps to be done in one of the algorithm of divide and conquer method:

i) Store the signal column wise

ii) Compute the M-point DFT of each row

iii) Multiply the resulting array by the phase factors \(W_N^{kn}\)

iv) Compute the L-point DFT of each column

v) Read the result array row wise

• (1) i – ii – iv – iii – v
• (2) i – iii – ii – iv – v
• (3) i – iii – iv – v
• (4) i – iv – iii – ii – v

The photoresist layer is exposed to _______ in CMOS fabrication

• (1) Ultra Violet Light
• (2) Visible Light
• (3) Infrared Light
• (4) Fluorescent

Which of the following is sputtered on the whole wafer?

• (1) Silicon
• (2) Aluminium
• (3) Silica
• (4) Potassium

The Boolean equation \(Y = \overline{A}BC + \overline{A}B\overline{C} + AB\overline{C} + ABC\) is to be implemented using only two-input NAND gates. The minimum number of gates required is

• (1) 3
• (2) 6
• (3) 5
• (4) 4

A thermoelectric refrigerator works on the principle of

• (1) Jules Effect
• (2) Seebeck Effect
• (3) Vernier Effect
• (4) Peltier Effect

In a bipolar junction transistor, the current gain \(\beta\) ________

• (1) increases with the increase in temperature
• (2) increases exponentially with the increase in temperature
• (3) decreases with the increase in temperature
• (4) does not change with the change in temperature

The number of depletion layers in a transistor is ________.

• (1) One
• (2) Three
• (3) Four
• (4) Two

The following are the functions of a transistor ___________.

• (1) Rectifier and a fixed resistor
• (2) Variable resistor and switching device
• (3) Switching device and a fixed resistor
• (4) Tuning device and rectifier

A BJT with \(\beta = 50\) has a base to collector leakage current \(I_{CBO}\) of \(2.5\ \mu A\). If the transistor is connected in CE configuration, the collector current for \(I_B = 0\) is

• (1) 0.05 \(\mu\)A
• (2) 0.157 mA
• (3) 0.1275 mA
• (4) 0.516 mA

What is true with regard to the cut-off region of npn BJT?

• (1) \(V_B < V_E\)
• (2) \(V_B > V_E\)
• (3) \(V_B = V_E\)
• (4) \(V_B > V_C\)

Binary ladder network is better than resistive divider for D/A conversion, because __________.

• (1) It requires resistor having two values only
• (2) It requires lesser number of resistors
• (3) It is cheaper
• (4) It gives better accuracy

In a binary ladder (R-2R), D/A converter, the input resistance for each input is

• (1) 4R
• (2) 3R
• (3) 2R
• (4) R

A/D converter which does not use D/A converter is

• (1) Continuous null balance A/D converter
• (2) Dual slope integrator A/D converter
• (3) Staircase ramp A/D converter
• (4) Successive approximation A/D converter

__________ is the main disadvantage of a dual slope integrator A/D converter

• (1) High cost
• (2) Low sensitivity
• (3) Temperature immunity
• (4) Slow conversion time

The gate voltage in a JFET at which drain current becomes zero is called ________.

• (1) Saturation voltage
• (2) Active voltage
• (3) Pinch-off voltage
• (4) Cut-off voltage

JFET is a ________ device.

• (1) Tripolar
• (2) Antipolar
• (3) Bipolar
• (4) Unipolar

Junction Field Effect Transistor is a __________ controlled device.

• (1) Voltage
• (2) Current
• (3) Resistance
• (4) Conductance

In FET, the np region exists between source and gate and is __________.

• (1) forward biased
• (2) forward or reverse biased
• (3) reverse biased
• (4) unbiased

The wave-particle duality of light is defined as __________.

• (1) a wave only
• (2) a particle only
• (3) both a wave and a particle
• (4) neither a wave nor a particle

Uncertainty principle is easily understood with the help of __________.

• (1) Dalton’s effect
• (2) Electron effect
• (3) Rhombic effect
• (4) Compton’s effect

Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle is significant only for __________.

• (1) macroscopic objects
• (2) microscopic objects
• (3) both microscopic and macroscopic objects
• (4) very large bodies

The uncertainty principle is applicable to __________.

• (1) electrons
• (2) protons
• (3) photons
• (4) all microscopic particles

Which one of the following can be explained by the wave nature of particles?

• (1) Stability of atom
• (2) Quantization of energy
• (3) Photoelectric effect
• (4) Diffraction

The central force motion is based on __________.

• (1) the force is always directed towards fixed point
• (2) the force is not directed towards centre
• (3) the force on particle does not depend on distance from centre
• (4) the force is tangential to path always

Two particles A and B, initially at rest, move towards each other under mutual force of attraction. At the instant when the speed of A is \(v\) and the speed of B is \(2v\), the speed of mass of the system is __________.

• (1) \(v\)
• (2) \(1.5v\)
• (3) \(3v\)
• (4) Zero

________ Laws governs mechanical waves.

• (1) Faraday’s
• (2) Newton’s
• (3) Hertz’
• (4) Planck’s

The wave function of the particle lies in ________ region.

• (1) \(X > 0\)
• (2) \(X < 0\)
• (3) \(X > L\)
• (4) \(0 < X < L\)

The energy of the particle is proportional to ________.

• (1) \(n\)
• (2) \(n^{-1}\)
• (3) \(n^2\)
• (4) \(n^{-2}\)

The line of action of concurrent forces joins at ________.

• (1) a single point
• (2) a plane
• (3) perpendicular planes
• (4) two points

Forces meeting at one point but having lines of action, not in one plane are known as ________.

• (1) Coplanar concurrent forces
• (2) Coplanar non-concurrent forces
• (3) Non-coplanar concurrent forces
• (4) Non-coplanar non-concurrent forces

A spring, when compressed by 4 cm, has 2 J of energy stored in it. The force required to extend it by 8 cm is:

• (1) 2 N
• (2) 200 N
• (3) 20 N
• (4) 2000 N

Which of the following equation of motion represents simple harmonic motion? Where \( k, k_0, k_1 \) and \( a \) are all positive.

• (1) acceleration = - k(x + a)
• (2) acceleration = k(x + a)
• (3) acceleration = kx
• (4) acceleration = - k_0x + k_1x^2

Which one of the following principles states that the inertia forces, couples, external forces and torques on a body together give statical equilibrium?

• (1) Paul Ehrlich principle
• (2) David Hilbert principle
• (3) Edward Jenner principle
• (4) D' Alembert principle

A wedge of mass 104 N is sliding on a smooth inclined plane of an elevator which is moving down with a constant acceleration of \( 2 \, m/s^2 \) as shown in the figure below. What will be the net normal reaction force acting on the wedge exerted by the inclined plane of an elevator? Take \( g = 10 \, m/s^2 \). Inclination angle of the lift plane is \( 30^\circ \).

{

• (1) 68 N
• (2) 72 N
• (3) 108 N
• (4) 90 N

If a rigid body rotates with an angular momentum \( L \) and its kinetic energy is halved, then the angular momentum is

• (1) \( L \)
• (2) \( L/2 \)
• (3) \( 2L \)
• (4) \( L^2 \)

A particle moves in a circular motion that is consistent. The particle’s angular momentum will be conserved at __________.

• (1) the point on the circumference of the circle
• (2) any point inside the circle
• (3) any point outside the circle
• (4) the centre point of the circle

The relationship between the load lifted (W) and the effort required (P) to lift the load often is called as the law of the machine is ________.

• (1) \( P = \frac{aW}{b} \)
• (2) \( P = \frac{aW}{2b} \)
• (3) \( P = aW \)
• (4) \( P = \frac{aW}{b} \)

A certain weight lifting machine of velocity ratio 30 can lift a load of 1500 N with the help of 125 N effort. What is the efficiency of the machine?

• (1) 40 percent
• (2) 50 percent
• (3) 60 percent
• (4) 70 percent

Radiation heat transfer is depicted by __________.

• (1) Due to bulk fluid motion, there is a transport of energy
• (2) There is the circulation of fluid by buoyancy effects
• (3) Movement of discrete packets of energy as electromagnetic waves
• (4) Thermal energy transfer as vibrational energy in the lattice structure of the material

The literature of heat transfer generally recognizes distinct modes of heat transfer.
The number of modes are ______.

• (1) One
• (2) Two
• (3) Three
• (4) Four

Consider system A at uniform temperature t and system B at another uniform temperature T (t > T) as shown in figure. Let the two systems be brought into contact and be thermally insulated from their surroundings but not from each other. Energy will flow from system A to system B due to ___\ .

{

• (1) Energy difference
• (2) Temperature difference
• (3) Mass difference
• (4) Volumetric difference

An oil cooler in a high performance engine has an outside surface area 0.12 m and surface temperature of 65°C. At any intermediate time, air moves over the surface of the cooler at a temperature of 30°C, gives rise to a surface coefficient equal to 45.4 W/m²K. The heat transfer rate is ______.

• (1) 190.68 W
• (2) 238.43 W
• (3) 543.67 W
• (4) 675.98 W

Convective heat transfer coefficient doesn't depend on _
___\.

• (1) Space
• (2) Time
• (3) Surface area
• (4) Orientation of solid surface

Thermal conductivity is maximum for the following substance __________.

• (1) Silver
• (2) Ice
• (3) Aluminum
• (4) Diamond

A designer chooses the values of fluid flow rates and specific heats in such a manner that the heat capacities of the two fluids are equal. A hot fluid enters the counter flow heat exchanger at 100°C and leaves at 60°C. A cold fluid enters the heat exchanger at 40°C. What is the mean temperature difference between the two fluids?

• (1) 20°C
• (2) 30°C
• (3) 40°C
• (4) 50°C

The unit of overall coefficient of heat transfer is __________.

• (1) W/m²
• (2) W/mK
• (3) W/m
• (4) W/m²K

LMTD in case of counter flow heat exchanger as compared to parallel flow heat exchanger will be __________.

• (1) Lower
• (2) Higher
• (3) Same
• (4) Depends on the area of heat exchanger

When heat is transferred by molecular collision, then heat transfer is referred as __________.

• (1) Conduction
• (2) Convection
• (3) Radiation
• (4) Scattering

What is the latent heat of steam at atmospheric pressure?

• (1) 1535 kJ/kg
• (2) 1875 kJ/kg
• (3) 2257 kJ/kg
• (4) 2685 kJ/kg

Carnot cycle comprises of ______

• (1) Two isothermal and two reversible adiabatic processes
• (2) Two constant volume and two reversible adiabatic processes
• (3) Two constant pressure and two reversible adiabatic processes
• (4) One isothermal, one constant volume, one constant pressure and two reversible adiabatic processes

A refrigerator has a performance coefficient of 5. What is the ambient heat discharged if the temperature inside the freezer is -20°C?

• (1) 11°C
• (2) 21°C
• (3) 31°C
• (4) 41°C

If 10 g of ice at 0°C is converted to water at the same temperature, What will be the change in entropy? (Latent heat 80 cal/g)

• (1) 2.93 cal/K
• (2) 3.29 cal/K
• (3) 32.9 cal/K
• (4) 29.3 cal/K

Gibbs phase rule defines the relationship between degrees of freedom (F) of a system, number of phases (P) and the number of components (c). The equation is _________.

• (1) F + P = C
• (2) F + P = C + 1
• (3) F - P = C
• (4) F + P = C + 2

Which one of the following is correct statement?
[A = Helmholtz function (Helmholtz Free Energy), G = Gibbs function (Gibbs free energy),
U = Internal energy, H = Enthalpy, T = Absolute temperature, S = Entropy]

• (1) A = H - TS ; G = H + TS
• (2) A = U - TS ; G = H - TS
• (3) A = U + TS ; G = H - TS
• (4) A = U + TS ; G = H + TS

The standard heat of combustion of ethanol (C\textsubscript{2H\textsubscript{5OH) is 1372 kJ/mol. By completely burning a 20g sample, how much heat (in kJ) will be liberated?

• (1) 469 kJ
• (2) 597 kJ
• (3) 686 kJ
• (4) 786 kJ

A system suffers an increase in internal energy of 80 J and at the same time has 50 J of work done on it. The heat change of the system is _______.

• (1) -30 J
• (2) +30 J
• (3) +130 J
• (4) -130 J

If 30 J of energy is added to water in the form of heat at 27\degree C, the change in entropy of water is _____

• (1) 2.5 J/K
• (2) 9.5 J/K
• (3) 45 J/K
• (4) 100 J/K

Which one of the following thermodynamic quantities is not a state function?

• (1) Gibbs free energy
• (2) Enthalpy
• (3) Entropy
• (4) Work