TS PGECET 2024 Chemical Engineering Question Paper

Question 1:

If the characteristic polynomial of the matrix \( A_{3\times3} \) is given by \( f(\lambda) = \lambda^3 - 10\lambda^2 + 27\lambda - 18 \), then trace of A and determinant of A respectively are

• (1) 10 and 18
• (2) 10 and -18
• (3) -10 and 18
• (4) -10 and -18

Evaluate \( \log_{e^{2000}} e^{2021} \cdot \log_{e^{2021}} e^{2022} \cdot \log_{e^{2022}} e^{2023} \cdot \log_{e^{2023}} e^{2024} \)

• (1) 2020
• (2) 0
• (3) 2024
• (4) 1

The value of \( \int_0^1 \int_y^{\sqrt{y}} yx \, dxdy \) is

• (1) \( \frac{1}{6} \)
• (2) \( \frac{3}{5} \)
• (3) \( \frac{2}{7} \)
• (4) \( \frac{7}{6} \)

The divergence of the vector field \( \vec{F} = yz\,\hat{i} - zx\,\hat{k} \) at \( (-2, 0, 1) \) is

• (1) -3
• (2) 4
• (3) -4
• (4) 3

The particular integral of \( \frac{d^2y}{dx^2} + y = \cos(2x - 1) \) is

• (1) \( \frac{1}{65} (\cos(2x - 8\sin 2x)) \)
• (2) *
• (3) \( \frac{1}{65} (\cos(2x + 8\sin 2x)) \)
• (4) \( \frac{1}{65} (\cos(2x - 1) - 8\sin(2x - 1)) \)

The Laplace transform \( \mathcal{L}\{t^2 \sin 2t\} \) is

• (1) \( \frac{4(s - 3)}{(s^2 - 6s + 13)^3} \)
• (2) \( \frac{s - 3}{s^2 - 6s + 13} \)
• (3) \( \frac{s + 3}{(s^2 - 6s + 13)^2} \)
• (4) \( \frac{4(s + 3)}{(s^2 - 6s + 13)^3} \)

The equation \( x^3 - 6x - 4 = 0 \) has one real root between 2 and 3. The 2^nd approximation to the root of the equation by bisection method will be

• (1) 2.25
• (2) 2.53
• (3) 2.75
• (4) 2.57

The approximate solution of the initial value problem \( \frac{dy}{dx} = 1 + xy \), \( y(0) = 1 \) by Picard’s method will be

• (1) \( y = 1 + x + \frac{x^2}{2!} + \frac{x^3}{3!} + \dots \)
• (2) \( y = 1 + x + \frac{x^2}{2} + \frac{x^3}{8} + \dots \)
• (3) \( y = 1 - x + \frac{x^2}{2!} - \frac{x^3}{3!} + \dots \)
• (4) \( y = 1 + \frac{x^2}{2} - \frac{x^4}{8} \dots \)

A continuous random variable \(X\) has a probability density function \( f(x) = 3x^2, \ 0 \leq x \leq 1 \). If \( P(X \leq a) = P(X > a) \), then the value of 'a' is

• (1) \( \left( \frac{1}{2} \right)^{1/3} \)
• (2) \( \left( \frac{1}{3} \right)^{1/3} \)
• (3) \( \left( \frac{1}{4} \right)^{1/3} \)
• (4) \( \left( \frac{1}{5} \right)^{1/3} \)

If the random variable \( X \) takes the values 1, 2, 3, and 4 such that \( 2P(X=1) = 3P(X=2) = P(X=3) = 5P(X=4) \), then the mean of \( X \) is

• (1) \( \frac{30}{61} \)
• (2) \( \frac{90}{61} \)
• (3) \( \frac{139}{61} \)
• (4) \( \frac{149}{61} \)

The degrees of freedom for a system consisting a gaseous mixture of \( N_2 \), \( H_2 \), and \( NH_3 \) is

• (1) 1
• (2) 2
• (3) 3
• (4) 4

A bypass stream in a chemical process is useful, because it

• (1) Facilitates better control of the process
• (2) Improves the conversion
• (3) Increases the yield of products
• (4) Decreases the composition of inerts in the products

Sometimes in chemical processes, a part of the outlet stream is rejected as waste in order to keep the impurity level in the system within limits. This phenomenon is termed as

• (1) Recycling
• (2) Purging
• (3) Bypassing
• (4) Recirculation

In a chemical reaction the material balance calculation is based on

• (1) Limiting reactant
• (2) Excess reactant
• (3) Inert
• (4) Catalyst

The substance that appears in one incoming stream and outgoing stream which serves as reference for computations is called as a

• (1) Catalyst
• (2) Tie substance
• (3) Promoter
• (4) Reactant

The equation \( PV = nRT \) is best obeyed by gases at

• (1) Low pressure and high temperature
• (2) High pressure and low temperature
• (3) Low pressure and low temperature
• (4) High pressure and high temperature

In an adiabatic process

• (1) Temperature change is zero
• (2) Work done is zero
• (3) Enthalpy remains constant
• (4) Heat transfer is zero

Fundamental principle of refrigeration is based on ------------ law of thermodynamics

• (1) Zeroth
• (2) First
• (3) Second
• (4) Third

Gibbs free energy at constant pressure and temperature under equilibrium conditions is

• (1) Infinity
• (2) Zero
• (3) Maximum
• (4) Minimum

The criteria for phase equilibria is

• (1) The chemical potential of each species is same in all phases at the same T and P
• (2) The chemical potential of each species is same in all phases at the same P
• (3) The concentration of each species is same in all phases
• (4) The entropy of each species is same in all phases at the same T and P

The mixing process is

• (1) Inherently irreversible process
• (2) Inherently reversible process
• (3) Always exothermic process
• (4) Endothermic process

Henry’s law is closely obeyed by a gas when component

• (1) Pressure is extremely high
• (2) Concentration is extremely high
• (3) Temperature is extremely high
• (4) Concentration is extremely low

For an ideal gas, the activity co-efficient is

• (1) Directly proportional to pressure
• (2) Inversely proportional to pressure
• (3) Unity at all pressures
• (4) Zero at all pressures

Modified Raoult’s law is written as (where \( \gamma \) is the activity coefficient)

• (1) \( y_1 P = \gamma_1 P_1^{sat} x_1 \)
• (2) \( y_1 P^{sat}/\gamma_1 = Px_1 \)
• (3) \( y_1 P = P_1^{sat} x_1 \)
• (4) \( P = P_1^{sat} x_1 \gamma_1 \)

NRTL equation is a ....parameter model

• (1) Four
• (2) Two
• (3) One
• (4) Three

Potential flow is the flow of

• (1) Compressible fluids with shear
• (2) Compressible fluids with no shear
• (3) Incompressible fluids with shear
• (4) Incompressible fluids with no shear

Newton’s law of viscosity relates

• (1) Shear stress and viscosity
• (2) Velocity gradient and pressure intensity
• (3) Shear stress and rate of angular deformation in a fluid
• (4) Pressure gradient and rate of angular deformation

Dimensions of kinematic viscosity is

• (1) \( MLT^{-1} \)
• (2) \( L^2T^{-1} \)
• (3) \( L^2T \)
• (4) \( L^2T^2 \)

The loss due to sudden contraction is proportional to

• (1) Velocity
• (2) Velocity head
• (3) Turbulence
• (4) Pressure

For Non-Newtonian fluids, power law model consists parameter \( K \) known as

• (1) Flow behaviour index
• (2) Flow consistency index
• (3) Viscosity
• (4) Kinematic viscosity

Empirical equation that is applicable for flow through beds at \( Re = 1.0 \) is

• (1) Haigen-Poiseuille equation
• (2) Burke-Plummer equation
• (3) Ergun equation
• (4) Kozeny-Carman equation

Once the bed is fluidized, with increasing the flow, the pressure drop across the bed

• (1) Increases
• (2) Decreases
• (3) Remains constant
• (4) Varies linearly

If the suction pressure is only slightly greater than the vapour pressure, some liquid may flash to vapour inside the pump is

• (1) Cavitation
• (2) Suction head
• (3) Suction
• (4) NPSH

The heart of the centrifugal pump is

• (1) Baffle
• (2) Impeller
• (3) Flange
• (4) Joint

Device in which the pressure drop is constant and the area through which the fluid varies with flow rate is

• (1) Area meters
• (2) Turbine meters
• (3) Orifice meters
• (4) Nozzle meters

For sizing of fine materials, the most suitable equipment is a

• (1) Trommel
• (2) Grizzly
• (3) Vibrating screen
• (4) Shaking screen

Filter aid is used

• (1) To increase the rate of filtration
• (2) To increase the porosity of the cake
• (3) To increase the pressure drop
• (4) As a support base for the septum

Maximum size reduction in a fluid energy mill is achieved by

• (1) Inter particle attrition
• (2) Compression
• (3) Cutting
• (4) Impact

Which of the following equipment is used for size reduction of coarse solids?

• (1) Grinder
• (2) Ball mill
• (3) Fluid energy mill
• (4) Jaw crusher

The conveyor suitable for transportation of sticky material is

• (1) Apron conveyor
• (2) Belt conveyor
• (3) Screw conveyor
• (4) Pneumatic conveyor

If \( d_p \) is the equivalent diameter of a non-spherical particle, \( V_p \) its volume and \( S_p \) its surface area, then its sphericity \( \Phi_s \) is defined by

• (1) \( \Phi_s = \frac{6 V_p}{d_p S_p} \)
• (2) \( \Phi_s = \frac{V_p}{d_p S_p} \)
• (3) \( \Phi_s = 6 d_p S_p \)
• (4) \( \Phi_s = \frac{d_p S_p}{V_p} \)

Two particles are called to be equal settling, if they are having the same

• (1) Size
• (2) Specific gravity
• (3) Terminal velocities in the same fluid \& in the same field of force
• (4) Solubility

Gravity settling process is not involved in the working of a

• (1) Classifier
• (2) Dorr-thickener
• (3) Sedimentation tank
• (4) Hydro cyclone

Highly viscous liquids and pastes are agitated by

• (1) Multiple blade paddles
• (2) Turbine agitators
• (3) Propellers
• (4) Single blade paddles

The main size reduction operation in ultrafine grinders is

• (1) Cutting
• (2) Attrition
• (3) Compression
• (4) Impact

Heat transfer by conduction is described by

• (1) Fourier’s law
• (2) Fick’s law
• (3) Newton’s law of cooling
• (4) Stefan-Boltzmann law

The thermal conductivity of a solid

• (1) Decreases with increasing temperature
• (2) Increases with increasing temperature
• (3) Independent of temperature
• (4) Independent of pressure

The Prandtl number (\(N_{Pr}\)) is the ratio of

• (1) Thermal diffusivity to momentum diffusivity
• (2) Momentum diffusivity to mass diffusivity
• (3) Momentum diffusivity to thermal diffusivity
• (4) Mass diffusivity to thermal diffusivity

The Fourier number (\(N_{Fo}\)) is defined as (α is thermal diffusivity, L is characteristic length and t is time)

• (1) \( \frac{h k}{L} \)
• (2) \( \frac{h L}{k} \)
• (3) \( \frac{t L^2}{\alpha} \)
• (4) \( \frac{\alpha t}{L^2} \)

Which of the substance will have higher thermal conductivity

• (1) Stainless steel
• (2) Sand
• (3) Water
• (4) Air

Rate of heat transfer in case of forced convection when compared with natural convection is

• (1) Almost equal
• (2) Lower
• (3) Higher
• (4) Depends on the conditions \& situation

Heat sensitive material like orange juice is concentrated in a ____

• (1) Long tube evaporator
• (2) Basket evaporator
• (3) Agitated film evaporator
• (4) Falling film evaporator

Substances can emit or absorb radiant energy to varying extent provided their temperature is above ____

• (1) 273\(^\circ\)K
• (2) 298\(^\circ\)K
• (3) 0\(^\circ\)K
• (4) 1000\(^\circ\)K

When vaporisation takes place directly at the heating surface, it is called ____

• (1) Film boiling
• (2) Nucleate boiling
• (3) Vapour binding
• (4) Pool boiling

The average heat transfer co-efficient for laminar film condensation on vertical surface is inversely proportional to (where, \( \Delta T \) = temperature drop across condensate film)

• (1) \( (\Delta T)^2 \)
• (2) \( \Delta T \)
• (3) \( (\Delta T)^{1/2} \)
• (4) \( (\Delta T)^{1/4} \)

Rayleigh's equation applies to ____ distillation

• (1) Continuous
• (2) Differential
• (3) Steam
• (4) Flash

Which of the following is an undesirable characteristic for the solvent used in gas absorption?

• (1) Low pressure
• (2) Low viscosity
• (3) Low gas solubility
• (4) Low density

The relative volatility for separation of a binary mixture by distillation should be

• (1) 0
• (2) 1
• (3) \( <1 \)
• (4) \( >1 \)

Minimum number of trays required for achieving a given separation in distillation column with ____

• (1) Total reflux
• (2) No reflux
• (3) Zero reflux ratio
• (4) Minimum reflux ratio

If \( q \) is interpreted to be the fraction of the feed stream that is liquid, then for saturated vapour feed to a distillation column, \( q = \_\_\_\_ \)

• (1) \( q = 1 \)
• (2) \( q = 0 \)
• (3) \( q > 1 \)
• (4) \( q < 0 \)

In the adsorption operation, mass transfer is from ____

• (1) Liquid phase to gas phase
• (2) Solid phase to gas or liquid phase
• (3) Gas or liquid phase to solid phase
• (4) Gas to liquid phase

If moisture content of solid on dry basis is \( X \), then the same on wet basis is ____

• (1) \( \frac{X}{(X+1)} \)
• (2) \( \frac{X}{1-X} \)
• (3) \( \frac{(1+X)}{X} \)
• (4) \( \frac{(1-X)}{X} \)

Rate of leaching increases with increasing ____

• (1) Size of the solid
• (2) Viscosity of solvent
• (3) Pressure
• (4) Temperature

Separation is based on freezing point difference in ____

• (1) Extraction
• (2) Crystallization
• (3) Adsorption
• (4) Absorption

Mass transfer co-efficient and diffusivity are related according to film theory as \( K \propto \_\_\_\_ \)

• (1) \( D^2 \)
• (2) \( D^{0.75} \)
• (3) \( D^{1.5} \)
• (4) \( D \)

The equipment frequently used for adiabatic humidification-cooling operation with recirculating liquid is ____

• (1) Spray chamber
• (2) Induced draft cooling tower
• (3) Tray chamber
• (4) Natural draft cooling tower

An example for two pair partially soluble and one pair completely soluble is ____

• (1) Chloroform – water – acetone
• (2) Benzene – water – acetic acid
• (3) Chloro-benzene – water – methyl ethyl ketone
• (4) Naphthalene – aniline – isooctane

The increase in weight of dried porcelain crucible in humid atmosphere is because of ____

• (1) Absorption of moisture
• (2) Adsorption of moisture
• (3) Absorption of gas
• (4) Adsorption of gas

The diffusivity (D) in a binary gas mixture is related to the temperature (T) as ____

• (1) \( D \propto T \)
• (2) \( D \propto T^{0.5} \)
• (3) \( D \propto T^{1.5} \)
• (4) \( D \propto T^2 \)

Which of the following common trays offers the lowest pressure drop ____

• (1) Bubble-cap tray
• (2) Sieve tray
• (3) Valve tray
• (4) Bubble caped valve tray

Rate determining step in a reaction consisting of a number of steps in series is the

• (1) Fastest step
• (2) Slowest step
• (3) Intermediate step
• (4) Data insufficient; can’t be predicted

Molecularity of reaction

• (1) Always equal to the overall order of the reaction
• (2) Always greater than the overall order of the reaction
• (3) Always smaller than the overall order of the reaction
• (4) Cannot have a fractional value

In a first order reaction, the time required to reduce the concentration of reactant from 1 mol/lit. to 0.5 mol/lit. will be ____ that required to reduce it from 10 mol/lit. to 5 mol/lit. in the same volume

• (1) More than
• (2) Less than
• (3) Same as
• (4) Data insufficient and cannot be determined

The rate equation in which rate equation corresponds to a stoichiometric equation is called

• (1) Elementary reaction
• (2) Non-elementary reaction
• (3) Parallel reaction
• (4) Auto catalytic reaction

Arrhenius equation shows the variation of ____ with temperature

• (1) Reaction rate
• (2) Rate constant
• (3) Activation energy
• (4) Frequency factor

A plug flow reactor is characterized by

• (1) High capacity
• (2) Presence of axial mixing
• (3) Presence of lateral mixing
• (4) Constant composition and temperature of reaction mixtures

Pick out the wrong statement

• (1) A catalyst does not alter the final position of equilibrium in a reversible reaction
• (2) A catalyst initiates a reaction
• (3) A catalyst is specific in reaction
• (4) A catalyst remains unchanged in changing composition at the end of the reaction

The dimensions of the rate constant for \( n^{th} \) order homogeneous reaction are

• (1) (time)\(^n\)
• (2) (time)\(^{-n}\)(concentration)\(^{n-1}\)
• (3) (time)\(^{-1}\)(concentration)\(^{1-n}\)
• (4) (time)(concentration)\(^{-1}\)

For a zero order reaction, the fractional conversion of the reactant is

• (1) Directly proportional to the initial concentration
• (2) Independent of the initial concentration
• (3) Inversely proportional to the initial concentration
• (4) Directly proportional to the square root of the initial concentration

For an ideal plug flow reactor the value of the Peclet number is

• (1) Zero
• (2) Infinity
• (3) 1
• (4) 10

In autocatalytic reactions

• (1) One of the reactant acts as catalyst
• (2) One of the product acts as catalyst
• (3) Catalysts have very high selectivity
• (4) Both reactant \& product act as catalyst

The dispersion model accounts for

• (1) Deviation from ideal PFR
• (2) Ideal CSTR
• (3) Combining batch and CSTR
• (4) CSTRs connected in parallel

According to tanks in series model, the spread of the tracer curve is proportional to

• (1) Square of distance from the tracer origin
• (2) Square root of distance from the tracer origin
• (3) Cube of distance from the tracer origin
• (4) Inverse square of distance from the tracer origin

The reaction in which the rate of reaction is a function of rate constant alone is

• (1) First order reaction
• (2) Second order reaction
• (3) Zero order reaction
• (4) Third order reaction

Rate of solid-state diffusion does not depend on which of the following?

• (1) Temperature
• (2) Diffusing species
• (3) Host solid
• (4) Gravity

Which of the following is a desirable characteristic of an instrument?

• (1) High drift
• (2) High fidelity
• (3) High measuring lag
• (4) Poor reproducibility

Pick out the most suitable instrument for measuring temperature in the range of \(-40^\circ C\) to \(425^\circ C\)

• (1) Bimetallic thermometer
• (2) Radiation pyrometer
• (3) Mercury thermometer
• (4) Infrared thermometer

An algebraic equation relating the Celsius and Fahrenheit is

• (1) \( C = \left( \frac{9}{5} \right)(F - 32) \)
• (2) \( C = \frac{9}{5}(F) \)
• (3) \( C = \left( \frac{5}{9} \right)(F - 32) \)
• (4) \( C = \frac{5}{9F} \)

The volumetric expansion of a liquid caused by temperature changes is minimum for

• (1) Mercury
• (2) Ethyl alcohol
• (3) Toluene
• (4) Pentane

Which of the following thermocouples will give the highest output for the same value of hot and cold junction temperature?

• (1) Platinum–platinum + rhodium
• (2) Iron–constantan
• (3) Chromel–constantan
• (4) Nickle–Chromium

U-tube manometer is an example of

• (1) Second order system
• (2) Third order system
• (3) Zero order system
• (4) First order system

A proportional controller with a gain of \( K_c \) is used to control a first order process. The offset will increase, if

• (1) Derivative control action is introduced
• (2) \( K_c \) is increased
• (3) Integral control action is introduced
• (4) \( K_c \) is reduced

A negative gain margin expressed in decibels means a/an _____ system

• (1) Stable
• (2) Critically damped
• (3) Unstable
• (4) Over damped

In a single tank system, the transfer function of level to inlet flow rate is

• (1) \( \frac{R}{\tau s} \)
• (2) \( \frac{R}{\tau s + 1} \)
• (3) \( \frac{1}{\tau s + 1} \)
• (4) \( \frac{1}{\tau s} \)

Use of I-control along with P-control facilitates

• (1) Reduction of stability time
• (2) Reduction of offset
• (3) Elimination of offset
• (4) Increase of offset

The closed loop pole of a stable second order system could be

• (1) Both real and negative
• (2) Complex conjugate with positive real parts
• (3) Both real and positive
• (4) One real positive and the other real negative

The transfer function for a PID controller is (where, \( \tau_I \) is the integral (reset) time and \( \tau_D \) is the derivative time.)

• (1) \( K_c (1 + \tau_I s + \tau_D s) \)
• (2) \( K_c \left( 1 + \frac{1}{\tau_I s} + \frac{1}{\tau_D s} \right) \)
• (3) \( K_c \left( 1 + \tau_I s + \frac{1}{\tau_D s} \right) \)
• (4) \( K_c \left( 1 + \frac{1}{\tau_I s} + \tau_D s \right) \)

For an input forcing function, \( X(t) = 2t^2 \), the Laplace transform of this function is

• (1) \( \frac{2}{s^2} \)
• (2) \( \frac{4}{s^3} \)
• (3) \( \frac{2}{s^3} \)
• (4) \( \frac{4}{s^2} \)

What is the ratio of output amplitude to input amplitude for a sinusoidal forcing function in a first order system?

• (1) \( < 1 \)
• (2) \( > 1 \)
• (3) \( 1 \)
• (4) Zero

Transfer function of transportation lag is

• (1) \( e^{Ts} \)
• (2) \( \frac{1}{Ts+1} \)
• (3) \( e^{-Ts} \)
• (4) \( e^{-Ts+1} \)

The ratio of working capital to total capital investment for most chemical plants (except for non-seasonal based products) is in the range of ______ percent.

• (1) 10 to 20
• (2) 1 to 2
• (3) 0.1 to 1
• (4) 50 to 60

Out of the following, the depreciation calculated by the ______ method is the maximum.

• (1) Straight line
• (2) Diminishing balance
• (3) Sum of the years digit
• (4) Sinking fund

Utilities cost in the operation of chemical process plant comes under the

• (1) plant overhead cost
• (2) fixed charges
• (3) direct production cost
• (4) general expenses

The total investment in a project is Rs. 10 lakhs and the annual profit is 1.5 lakhs. If the project life is 10 years, then the simple rate of return on investment is

• (1) 15%
• (2) 10%
• (3) 150%
• (4) 1.5%

For a given fluid, as the pipe diameter increases, the pumping cost

• (1) Remains the same.
• (2) Increases.
• (3) Decreases.
• (4) May increase or decrease depending on nature of the fluid.

Operating profit of a chemical plant is equal to

• (1) Profit before interest and tax
• (2) Profit after tax plus depreciation
• (3) Net profit + tax
• (4) Profit after tax

In a manufacturing industry, breakeven point occurs, when the

• (1) Total annual rate of production equals the assigned value
• (2) Total annual product cost equals the total annual sales
• (3) Annual profit equals the expected value
• (4) Annual sales equals the fixed cost

The depreciation during the year ‘n’, in diminishing balance method of depreciation calculation, is calculated by multiplying a fixed percentage ‘N’ to the

• (1) Initial cost
• (2) Difference between initial cost and salvage value
• (3) Depreciation during the (n-1)^th year
• (4) Book value at the end of (n-1)^th year

Fixed charges for a chemical plant does not include the

• (1) Repair and maintenance charges
• (2) Interest on borrowed money
• (3) Rent of land and buildings
• (4) Property tax, insurance and depreciation

_____ taxes are based on gross earnings

• (1) Property
• (2) Excise
• (3) Income
• (4) Capital gain

Ammonia synthesis gas is produced from natural gas by

• (1) Thermal cracking
• (2) Steam reforming
• (3) Partial oxidation
• (4) Hydrogenation

Which is used as bleaching agent in paper industries?

• (1) ClO\(_2\)
• (2) HCl
• (3) H\(_2\)O\(_2\)
• (4) H\(_3\)PO\(_4\)

Butadiene is copolymerized by

• (1) Addition polymerization
• (2) Condensation polymerization
• (3) Emulsion polymerization
• (4) Solution polymerization

Catalyst used in the synthesis of Ammonia is

• (1) Cu
• (2) Cobalt
• (3) Fe
• (4) Zn

Urea is represented as

• (1) NH\(_2\).CO.NH\(_2\)
• (2) NH\(_3\)CO.CH\(_3\)
• (3) NH.CO\(_2\).NH
• (4) NH\(_3\).CO\(_2\).NH\(_3\)

Ammonium nitrate (a fertiliser) is coated with limestone powder to

• (1) Increase its nitrogen content
• (2) Cut down its production cost
• (3) Avoid the risk of explosion
• (4) Add extra nutrient as fertiliser

Action of phosphoric acid on rock phosphate produces

• (1) Superphosphate
• (2) Diammonium phosphate
• (3) Nitrophosphate
• (4) Triple superphosphate

Steam reforming of naphtha is a source of hydrogen production for nitrogenous fertiliser industry. What is the usual ratio of steam to carbon maintained in the process of steam reforming of naphtha?

• (1) 1.5:1
• (2) 3.5:1
• (3) 10:1
• (4) 15:1

Which of the following is not an intermediate distillate product in petroleum refining?

• (1) Heavy fuel oils
• (2) Diesel oils
• (3) Lubricating oil
• (4) Gas oil

The polymer having the highest percentage in polypropylene is

• (1) Syndiotactic
• (2) Isoprapctic
• (3) Atactic
• (4) Isotactic