TS PGECET 2024 Environmental Management Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

Question 1:

If \(l > 0, K < 0\) are roots of \(x^2 + x - 20 = 0\), the system of linear equations \(3x - y + 4z = 3\), \(x + 2y - 3z = -2\) and \(6x + 5y + Pz = -3\) has?

• (a) unique solution when \(P = K\)
• (b) infinite number of solutions when \(P = l\)
• (c) no solution when \(P = K + l\)
• (d) unique solution when \(P = l\)

The number of positive integral solutions of \(x+y+z = 12\), \(x \le y \le z\) is?

• (a) 55
• (b) 36
• (c) 11
• (d) 13

If the equations \(x^2+2x+K=0\) and \(x^2+Kx+2=0\) have one root in common, then the product of the other two roots is?

• (a) \(2K\)
• (b) \(12+K\)
• (c) \(K+1\)
• (d) \(3K\)

If for a progression, sum of the first \(n\) terms is \(2n^2+5n+6\) and \(T_n\) is the \(n^{th}\) term of the progression, then \(\sum_{k=1}^{10} T_{3k} = \)?

• (a) \(690\)
• (b) \(270\)
• (c) \(780\)
• (d) \(460\)

Let \(X\) be a discrete random variable with probability mass function \(P(X=x_i)\) where \(x \in \{x_1, x_2, \dots, x_n\}\). If \(\sum_{i=1}^{n} (x_i-2)^2 P(X=x_i) = 28\) and \(\sum_{i=1}^{n} (x_i+2)^2 P(X=x_i) = 12\). Then variance of \(X\) is?

• (a) \(20\)
• (b) \(12\)
• (c) \(8\)
• (d) \(40\)

If \(b_{yx}\) and \(b_{xy}\) are regression coefficients and they are equal, then?

• (a) correlation coefficient is one
• (b) variance of \(x\) and variance of \(y\) are equal
• (c) Mean of \(x\) and mean of \(y\) are equal
• (d) Standard deviation of \(x\) is greater than standard deviation of \(y\)

If the probability density function of a continuous random variable X is \(f(X=x) = Ke^{-3x}\), \(0 < x < \infty\), then a solution of \(\frac{P^2+1}{P} = \frac{K}{\sqrt{2}}\) is?

• (a) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
• (b) \(\sqrt{3}\)
• (c) \(2\)
• (d) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\)

For a bivariate data \((x_i, y_i)\) (\(i=1,2,3,\dots,10\)), \(\sum x_i y_i = 6200\), \(\sum x_i = 400\), \(\sum y_i = 1220\), \(\sum x_i^2 = 1800\), then equation of line of best fit is?

• (a) \(y = 0.2x+0.3\)
• (b) \(y = 3x+1\)
• (c) \(y = 2x+3\)
• (d) \(y = 3x+2\)

In large sample, the critical value for the single tailed test at 5% level of significance is?

• (a) \(2.58\)
• (b) \(1.96\)
• (c) \(1.642\) (Often 1.645)
• (d) \(1.28\)

Mean of a binomial distribution 12 and variance is 8. The probability of having at least one success is?

• (a) \(1 - \left(\frac{1}{3}\right)^{36}\)
• (b) \(1 - \left(\frac{2}{3}\right)^{36}\)
• (c) \(1 - \left(\frac{2}{3}\right)^{35} \left(\frac{1}{3}\right)\)
• (d) \(1 - \left(\frac{1}{3}\right)^{35} \left(\frac{2}{3}\right)\)

Which component of an ecosystem is responsible for the cycling of nutrients such as carbon, nitrogen and phosphorus?

• (a) Primary producers
• (b) Consumers
• (c) Decomposers
• (d) Abiotic factors

Energy flow is always unidirectional in an ecosystem because?

• (a) the energy that is lost during energy flow cannot be reused in other stages of energy flow
• (b) Energy flows from tertiary consumers to secondary consumers and finally to producers
• (c) the energy that is gained during energy flow can be reused in other stages of energy flow
• (d) Energy flows from tertiary consumers to producers and finally to primary consumers

Energy flow in an ecosystem is based on which laws?

• (a) Avogadro's law
• (b) Gas law
• (c) Thermodynamics law
• (d) Henry's law

Photosynthesis converts solar energy into the chemical energy of a carbohydrate by?

• (a) Reducing CO\(_2\) and oxidizing H\(_2\)O
• (b) Reducing H\(_2\)O and oxidizing CO\(_2\)
• (c) Reducing the carbohydrate
• (d) Reducing glucose and water

In a food chain, energy is transferred from one trophic level to another. What happens to the energy as it moves up the food chain?

• (a) It increases
• (b) It decreases
• (c) It remains constant
• (d) It fluctuates randomly

What is the primary purpose of biogeochemical cycles in ecosystems?

• (a) To regulate the temperature of the environment
• (b) To recycle nutrients and elements essential for life
• (c) To control the population sizes of organisms
• (d) To produce energy through photosynthesis

What are the four factors that affect population growth ecology?

• (a) Predation, competition, resource availability and habitat destruction
• (b) Environmental changes, disease outbreaks, natural disasters and genetic mutations
• (c) Immigration, emigration, predation and competition
• (d) Birth rate, death rate, emigration and immigration

Which of the following Indian states is known for its significant population of the Bengal Tiger?

• (a) Karnataka
• (b) Tamil Nadu
• (c) Madhya Pradesh
• (d) Maharashtra

Which part of India is rich in biodiversity?

• (a) The Himalayas
• (b) Indo-Burma Region
• (c) Western Ghats
• (d) Sundaland

The Sundarbans, located in India, are known for being the largest _________________ ecosystem in the world.

• (a) grass land
• (b) pond
• (c) forest
• (d) mangrove

Which characteristic is common to both bacteria and yeast?

• (a) Unicellular
• (b) Eukaryotic
• (c) Photosynthetic
• (d) Prokaryotic

Which type of medium allows for the differentiation of microorganisms based on their metabolic characteristics?

• (a) Defined medium
• (b) Complex medium
• (c) Selective medium
• (d) Differential medium

What is the primary mechanism of action of ultraviolet (UV) radiation in controlling microorganisms?

• (a) Protein denaturation
• (b) Disruption of DNA replication
• (c) Inhibition of metabolic enzymes
• (d) Cellular dehydration

Which chemical agent is effective against enveloped viruses, such as influenza and herpes viruses?

• (a) Ethylene oxide
• (b) Benzalkonium chloride
• (c) Chlorine dioxide
• (d) Quaternary ammonium compounds

In anaerobic wastewater treatment the microorganisms present are?

• (a) methane formers and acid formers
• (b) actobacillus
• (c) Nocardia
• (d) Ecoli

Which process occurs during the acidogenesis stage of anaerobic digestion?

• (a) Hydrolysis of complex organic compounds
• (b) Production of organic acids and volatile fatty acids
• (c) Conversion of organic acids to methane and carbon dioxide
• (d) Formation of methane gas by methanogens

In aerobic biological waste treatment, microorganisms utilize which compound as the primary electron acceptor during the degradation of organic matter?

• (a) Oxygen
• (b) Carbon dioxide
• (c) Nitrate
• (d) Sulfate

Which of the following is a major group of microbes involved in nitrogen fixation?

• (a) Bacteria
• (b) Fungi
• (c) Protozoa
• (d) Archaea

Which group of microbes is known for its role in the production of antibiotics?

• (a) Actinomycetes
• (b) Cyanobacteria
• (c) Archaea
• (d) Yeasts

Which of the following is not a common nitrogen source used in cultivation media for microorganisms?

• (a) Ammonium sulfate
• (b) Peptone
• (c) Urea
• (d) Glucose

What is the scope of environmental chemistry in our daily life?

• (a) do not help in classify contaminated soils as hazardous waste, manage their disposal, and supervise on-site remediation
• (b) do not help to assess the risks of contaminants in soil and ground water
• (c) do help to assess the long-term risks of contaminants in soil and groundwater
• (d) do not help to undertake corrective strategies

Environmental chemistry mainly deals with the study of

• (a) unwanted substances and their effects
• (b) flora and fauna
• (c) biodiversity
• (d) forest resources

Acid rain is primarily caused by the emission of which two gases into the atmosphere?

• (a) Nitrogen oxides and sulfur dioxide
• (b) Carbon monoxide and methane
• (c) Ozone and carbon monoxide
• (d) Hydrogen sulfide and ammonia

Which of the following is not a feature of the lithosphere?

• (a) Mountains
• (b) Valleys
• (c) Ocean trenches
• (d) Ozone layer

Deep-ocean currents are driven by differences in the

• (a) water temperature
• (b) water type
• (c) water concentration
• (d) water source

Which of the following is not a major biome found in the biosphere?

• (a) Rainforest
• (b) Tundra
• (c) Desert
• (d) Plateau

The boundary between the troposphere and stratosphere is known as the

• (a) Tropopause
• (b) Stratopause
• (c) Mesopause
• (d) Thermopause

Which photochemical oxidants are formed by the action of sunlight on nitrogen oxides and reactive hydrocarbons?

• (a) peroxyacetyl nitrate
• (b) acid rain
• (c) inorganic carbon
• (d) particulate matter

Ozone is good

• (a) in the troposphere
• (b) in the mesosphere
• (c) in the stratosphere
• (d) in the thermosphere

Which global agreement protects the stratospheric ozone layer by phasing out the production and consumption of ozone-depleting substances (ODS)?

• (a) Kyoto protocol
• (b) Montreal protocol
• (c) Paris agreement
• (d) Stockholm agreement

Which of the following is a key component of Cation Exchange Capacity of the soils?

• (a) Nitrate ions
• (b) Anions
• (c) Exchangeable cations
• (d) Soil water content

Why is Cation Exchange Capacity of the soils important in agriculture?

• (a) It influences soil color
• (b) It affects soil pH
• (c) It indicates nutrient-holding capacity
• (d) It determines soil structure

Which of the following is a natural source of aerosols?

• (a) Volcanic eruptions
• (b) Industrial emissions
• (c) Deforestation
• (d) Automobile exhaust

How do aerosols contribute to air quality concerns?

• (a) By reducing respiratory diseases
• (b) By acting as natural air purifiers
• (c) By causing air pollution and respiratory issues
• (d) By having no impact on human health

Which of the following human activities is a significant source of anthropogenic trace metal contamination in soils?

• (a) Organic farming
• (b) Mining and industrial activities
• (c) Reforestation projects
• (d) Environmental conservation efforts

How does soil salinity affect plant growth?

• (a) Promotes optimal growth
• (b) Inhibits germination and growth
• (c) Has no impact on plants
• (d) Increases resistance to diseases

What is the purpose of adding chlorine or ozone during water treatment?

• (a) To remove suspended particles
• (b) To neutralize pH levels
• (c) To kill bacteria and viruses
• (d) To enhance taste and odor

Which of the following method is not used in water purification systems?

• (a) Filtration
• (b) Chlorination
• (c) Distillation
• (d) Fermentation

What is the purpose of primary treatment in wastewater treatment plants?

• (a) To remove suspended solids
• (b) To neutralize pH levels
• (c) To kill harmful bacteria
• (d) To remove dissolved minerals

Which process is commonly used in secondary treatment to break down organic matter?

• (a) Filtration
• (b) sedimentation
• (c) Chlorination
• (d) Activated sludge process

What is the primary function of baghouse filters in air pollution control?

• (a) To remove sulfur dioxide (SO\(_2\))
• (b) To remove nitrogen oxides (NOx)
• (c) To remove particulate matter
• (d) To neutralize acidic gases

Which of the following is a method used to control sulfur dioxide (SO\(_2\)) emissions?

• (a) Wet scrubbing
• (b) Catalytic converters
• (c) Baghouse filters
• (d) Electrostatic precipitators

The permissible noise level in industrial areas in India is

• (a) 65 dB for day time and 55 dB at night
• (b) 75 dB for daytime and 70 dB at night
• (c) 55 dB for daytime and 45 dB at night
• (d) 45 dB for daytime and 35 dB at night

Which parameter is commonly measured to determine the biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) of wastewater?

• (a) Nitrate concentration
• (b) Ammonia level
• (c) Dissolved oxygen
• (d) Organic content

Which of the following is an indicator of wastewater salinity?

• (a) Conductivity
• (b) Total suspended solids (TSS)
• (c) pH level
• (d) BOD level

Which regulatory authority establishes the noise limits in industrial areas?

• (a) Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
• (b) Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
• (c) Federal Aviation Administration (FAA)
• (d) Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

What is the purpose of a catalytic converter in vehicles?

• (a) Increase fuel efficiency
• (b) Reduce harmful emissions
• (c) Improve engine performance
• (d) Enhance vehicle sound

Which parameter is commonly measured to assess the level of pathogens in wastewater?

• (a) pH level
• (b) Chlorine concentration
• (c) Total coliform count
• (d) Dissolved oxygen

What is the primary function of an Electrostatic Precipitator (ESP)?

• (a) To remove particulate matter from air or gas streams
• (b) To neutralize acidic pollutants
• (c) To reduce nitrogen oxide emissions
• (d) To remove volatile organic compounds (VOCs)

What are the primary pollutant responsible for formation of photochemical smog?

• (a) Sulfur dioxide (SO\(_2\))
• (b) Particulate matter (PM)
• (c) Ozone (O\(_3\)) and volatile organic compounds (VOCs)
• (d) nitrogen oxides (NO\(_x\))

The radioactive isotope to find the Earth's age in radiometric dating of rocks is

• (a) Carbon-14
• (b) Uranium-238
• (c) Potassium-40
• (d) Lead-206

Which of the following is foliated sedimentary rock?

• (a) Shale
• (b) Marble
• (c) Quartz
• (d) Sandstone

If no crystallization takes place, then the rock is

• (a) Holocrystalline
• (b) Plutonic
• (c) Glassy
• (d) Hypabyssal

Which type of crust is formed when the older rocks are pushed above the younger rocks in earth's crust?

• (a) Normal fault
• (b) Reverse fault
• (c) Strike-slip fault
• (d) Thrust fault

Which landform is formed when the glacier cuts a U-shaped valley by abrasion?

• (a) Fjords
• (b) Corris
• (c) Aretes
• (d) Butte

Which satellite series is operated by the French Space Agency (CNES)?

• (a) LANDSAT series
• (b) SPOT
• (c) RS
• (d) IKONOS

Which satellite sensor is used to monitor the environmental changes like urban growth and deforestation?

• (a) LiDAR sensor
• (b) Radar sensor
• (c) Magnetometer sensor
• (d) Infrared sensors

What is the temporal resolution of MODIS?

• (a) 1 day
• (b) 5 days
• (c) 10 days
• (d) 14 days

How many bands does LANDSAT 8 have?

• (a) 10
• (b) 5
• (c) 11
• (d) 7

Which colour of EM spectrum is used for LiDAR bathymetry studies?

• (a) Yellow
• (b) UV
• (c) Red
• (d) Green

If the precipitation (P) in a region is 450 mm/year, evapotranspiration (ET) is 200 mm/year, and the change in storage (\(\Delta\)S) is 80 mm/year, what is the value of quick flow (Q)?

• (a) 170 mm/year
• (b) 450 mm/year
• (c) 250 mm/year
• (d) 280 mm/year

What is the occurrence of orographic precipitation?

• (a) When the warm air raises over a cold air mass
• (b) By frontal lifting of air masses
• (c) When the moist air raises over a mountain barrier
• (d) By convection in the atmosphere

The portion of rain fall that hits the ground through canopy is called

• (a) Interception loss
• (b) Throughfall
• (c) Interception gain
• (d) Stem flow

If the average solar radiation received by the earth is 500 W/m\(^2\) and reflects 70 W/m\(^2\), what is the available energy for absorption and heating the surface?

• (a) 500 W/m\(^2\)
• (b) 70 W/m\(^2\)
• (c) 430 W/m\(^2\)
• (d) 570 W/m\(^2\)

Soil suction pressure and soil moisture pressure can be measured by

• (a) Tensiometers
• (b) Lysimeter
• (c) Infiltrometer
• (d) Piezometers

When a portion of rainfall does not infiltrate into the soil and becomes surface runoff, it is called as

• (a) Base flow
• (b) Overland flow
• (c) Cover flow
• (d) Inter flow

With regard to stream gauging, what for the stage-discharge curve is used?

• (a) To measure the width of the stream
• (b) To measure the depth of the stream and presence of debris in the stream
• (c) To find out change in velocity of the stream
• (d) To relate the water level of a stream to its discharge

What is a falling limb of a synthetic unit hydrograph?

• (a) A part of hydrograph where discharge decreases
• (b) Peak discharge of hydrograph
• (c) A part of hydrograph where discharge increases
• (d) The total volume of water in the hydrograph

What is the size range of sleet pellets?

• (a) Less than 1 mm in diameter
• (b) Between 1 mm and 5 mm in diameter
• (c) Between 5 mm and 10 mm in diameter
• (d) Greater than 10 mm in diameter

Which of the following have higher evaporation rates?

• (a) Wet soil
• (b) Dry soil
• (c) Grassland
• (d) Concrete pavement

What is the major factor affecting the rate of groundwater recharge?

• (a) Precipitation intensity
• (b) Soil permeability
• (c) Groundwater depth
• (d) Land use

Which artificial groundwater recharge technique causes directing extra surface water to ponds or infiltration basins?

• (a) Injection wells
• (b) Recharge pits
• (c) Spreading basins
• (d) Recharge trenches

Which aquifer property is associated with specific yield of the aquifer?

• (a) Porosity
• (b) Permeability
• (c) Storativity
• (d) Transmissivity

If the transmissivity of the aquifer is 650 m\(^2\)/day and the thickness of the aquifer is 10 meters, then hydraulic conductivity of the aquifer is

• (a) 650 m/day
• (b) 65 m/day
• (c) 10 m/day
• (d) 160 m/day

In a groundwater model, the hydraulic conductivity of the aquifer is 10 m/day and the cross-sectional area perpendicular to the flow is 20 m\(^2\). The hydraulic gradient is 0.006. Calculate the flow rate (Q) using the Darcy's Law.

• (a) 1 m\(^3\)/day
• (b) 1.2 m\(^3\)/day
• (c) 2 m\(^3\)/day
• (d) 0.12 m\(^3\)/day

What is the recharge mechanism of the dug well?

• (a) Direct rain fall into the well openings
• (b) By the lateral flow from nearby surface water bodies
• (c) Through seepage from the surrounding areas after rain fall
• (d) By artificial means such as recharge pits and collection from rooftops of houses

What material is commonly used for casing in well construction?

• (a) Steel
• (b) Concrete
• (c) PVC
• (d) Wood

Which type of aquifer has an impervious layer above and below it?

• (a) Confined aquifer
• (b) Unconfined aquifer
• (c) Perched aquifer
• (d) Alluvial Aquifer

What is the relationship between porosity and specific yield?

• (a) Porosity is greater than specific yield
• (b) Specific yield is greater than porosity
• (c) Porosity and specific yield are equal
• (d) Porosity and specific yield are independent of each other

What is the example of an aquitard?

• (a) Zeolite
• (b) Gravel
• (c) Sand
• (d) Shale

What is the difference between an aquifuge and an aquitard?

• (a) Aquifuge has higher permeability than aquitard
• (b) Aquifuge has lower permeability than aquitard
• (c) Aquitard cannot store and transmit groundwater and aquifuge can store
• (d) Aquitard is less porous than aquifuge

What is the function of aquiclude in groundwater recharge systems?

• (a) They facilitate the flow of groundwater
• (b) They increase the recharge of the groundwater
• (c) They act as a hindrance to ground water flow
• (d) They store and transmit groundwater

What was the major challenge associated with Bhakra-Nangal project?

• (a) Soil erosion
• (b) Loss of biodiversity like flora and fauna
• (c) Desertification
• (d) Deforestation

What is the example of unconsolidated formulation?

• (a) Limestone
• (b) Shale
• (c) Granite
• (d) Sandstone

How will the degree of consolidation affect the porosity of the formation?

• (a) Higher degree of consolidation leads to higher porosity
• (b) Degree of consolidation does not affect porosity
• (c) It is not possible to determine the porosity by degree of consolidation
• (d) Higher degree of consolidation leads to lower porosity

What is the benefit in construction of the Narmada Sagar project?

• (a) Enhanced flood control
• (b) Decrease in potential of agriculture
• (c) Reduced water availability downstream
• (d) Increased sediment load in the river

Which type of aquifer is more prone to contamination?

• (a) Unconfined Aquifer
• (b) Confined Aquifer
• (c) Artesian Aquifer
• (d) Perched Aquifer

If a confined aquifer has a specific yield of 0.40, what does this value indicate about the aquifer's ability to release groundwater?

• (a) It can release 40% of its water under pumping
• (b) It can release 40% of its water without pumping
• (c) It can release 60% of its water under pumping
• (d) It can release 60% of its water without pumping

The storage coefficient of aquifer represents

• (a) Ratio of specific yield to porosity
• (b) Volume of water retained in storage per unit rise in head
• (c) Volume of water released from storage per unit decline in head
• (d) Ratio of specific retention to specific yield

Measurement of specific yield of an aquifer in field is done by

• (a) Slug tests
• (b) Grain size analysis
• (c) Drain tests
• (d) Pumping tests

Which stage of EIA involves the identification of potential impacts and formulation of mitigation measures?

• (a) Assessment of the impact
• (b) Scoping
• (c) Monitoring
• (d) Screening

According to Montreal Protocol, which is not the key aspect of the international cooperation?

• (a) Technology transfer
• (b) Financial assistance
• (c) Emission trading
• (d) Capacity building

What is Green Climate Fund (GCF)?

• (a) A global carbon trading platform
• (b) A fund to compensate countries for loss and damage due to climate change
• (c) A technology transfer platform for climate-friendly technologies
• (d) A financial mechanism under the UNFCCC to support climate action in developing countries

How is the effectiveness of Soil Quality Management Plan assessed?

• (a) Through satellite imagery of land use practices
• (b) Regular sampling and analysis of soil samples
• (c) Through interviews with local farmers
• (d) Through laboratory experiments

Which of the following international treaty aims to address the climate change by limiting global warming below 2\(^\circ\) Celsius above pre-industrial levels?

• (a) Montreal Protocol
• (b) Paris agreement
• (c) Kyoto protocol
• (d) Copenhagen Accord

The Stockholm Convention aims to protect human health and environment from which types of pollutants?

• (a) Ozone-depleting substances
• (b) Greenhouse gases
• (c) Heavy metals
• (d) Persistent organic pollutants

Which international agreement aims to control the transboundary transit of hazardous wastes and their disposal?

• (a) Rotterdam Convention
• (b) Basel Convention
• (c) Minamata Convention
• (d) Stockholm Convention

Which of the following is not included in the baseline studies conducted in EIA?

• (a) Economic analysis
• (b) Air quality monitoring
• (c) Noise level assessments
• (d) Ecological surveys

How can public participation improve the assessment of social and economic impacts in an EIA?

• (a) By excluding community perspectives and concerns
• (b) By promoting transparency and accountability
• (c) By expediting the approval process without public input
• (d) By ignoring the potential impacts on local economies

What is the role of Cumulative Impact Assessment (CIA) in EIA?

• (a) CIA assesses the environmental impacts of individual projects
• (b) CIA is not a part of the EIA process
• (c) CIA assesses the combined impacts of multiple projects on the environment
• (d) CIA is conducted after project completion

What is the role of biogeochemistry in understanding Earth's systems?

• (a) To study the behavior of elements in isolation
• (b) To analyze only biological processes
• (c) To investigate the flow and transformations of elements
• (d) To study the behavior of elements in space

Which of the following is not a physical method for controlling microorganisms?

• (a) Radiation
• (b) Filtration
• (c) Disinfection
• (d) Desiccation

Which of the following atmospheric pollutants is known to contribute to the formation of ozone in troposphere?

• (a) Sulfur dioxide (SO\(_2\))
• (b) Oxides of nitrogen \& volatile organic compounds
• (c) Carbon monoxide (CO)
• (d) Carbondioxide (CO\(_2\))

Which technology utilizes electric charges to remove particulate matter from industrial flue gases?

• (a) Flue Gas Desulfurization (FGD)
• (b) Selective Catalytic Reduction (SCR)
• (c) Electrostatic Precipitators (ESP)
• (d) Thermal Oxidizers

Which technology combusts volatile organic compounds (VOCs) at high temperatures to convert them into carbon dioxide and water vapor?

• (a) Vapor Recovery Systems
• (b) Electrostatic Precipitators (ESP)
• (c) Thermal Oxidizers
• (d) Fabric Filters

Which landform is typically created by the erosional action of rivers over geological time scales?

• (a) Moraine
• (b) Delta
• (c) Mesa
• (d) Fjord

What distinguishes metamorphic rocks from igneous and sedimentary rocks?

• (a) They are formed from the cooling of molten lava
• (b) They are formed from the accumulation of sediments
• (c) They are formed from the alteration of pre-existing rocks
• (d) They are formed from the compression of organic remains

Which type of satellite sensor captures data in various spectral bands, including visible, infrared and microwave?

• (a) Lidar sensor
• (b) SAR sensor
• (c) Multispectral sensor
• (d) Hyperspectral sensor

Which of the following is a basic principle of surveying?

• (a) Satellite imagery analysis
• (b) Data interpolation
• (c) Triangulation
• (d) Spectral analysis

What is the process of measuring water discharge in rivers and streams?

• (a) Rain gauging
• (b) Infiltration measurement
• (c) Stream gauging
• (d) Transpiration monitoring