TS PGECET 2024 Pharmacy Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

Question 1:

Increase in the solubility of the aqueous systems by adding large amount of additives is known as.........

• (1) Solubilization
• (2) Hydrotrophy
• (3) Co solvency
• (4) Solid dispersion

Clark's formula………

• (1) Dose for the child = Child's weight in kg / 70 * Adult dose
• (2) Dose for the child = Age in years / 20 * Adult dose
• (3) Dose for the child = Child's weight in mg / 70 * Adult dose
• (4) Dose for the child = Age in months / 20 * Adult dose

One of the following is used as a key ingredient in hair conditioning product

• (1) Cetyl trimethyl ammonium chloride
• (2) Benzyl cinnamate
• (3) Ethanol
• (4) Glycerine

Empty capsule has moisture content in the range of ………

• (1) 2–3%
• (2) 20–30%
• (3) 12–15%
• (4) 40–45%

Aerosol container must withstand pressures as high as 140–180 psi at ………

• (1) 100°F
• (2) 110°F
• (3) 120°F
• (4) 130°F

Which polymer is used in the sealing step of sugar coating?

• (1) Poly acrylic acid
• (2) Shellac
• (3) Poly caprolactone
• (4) Chitin

Slugging process is also known as………

• (1) Wet granulation
• (2) Direct compression
• (3) Dry granulation
• (4) Melt granulation

What temperature ranges are typically used to destroy Pyrogens in Parenterals?

• (1) 50\textdegree C for 10 minutes
• (2) 1000\textdegree C for 15 minutes
• (3) 150\textdegree C for 20 minutes
• (4) 250\textdegree C for 45 minutes

What is the net ATP synthesis during glycolysis under anaerobic conditions?

• (1) 4 ATP
• (2) 8 ATP
• (3) 2 ATP
• (4) 6 ATP

Major substrates for gluconeogenesis are………

• (1) Pyruvate
• (2) Fructose
• (3) Glucose
• (4) Malate

Lipase is an example for the class of enzyme namely

• (1) Oxidoreductases
• (2) Transferases
• (3) Hydrolases
• (4) Ligases

What is the final product of purine metabolism in humans?

• (1) Xanthine
• (2) Uric acid
• (3) Urea
• (4) Alanine

Triacylglycerol on lipolysis gives ………

• (1) Glycerol and free fatty acids
• (2) Glucose and free fatty acids
• (3) Urea
• (4) Uric acid

In type 2 diabetes mellitus, pancreatic beta cells initially respond to insulin resistance by………

• (1) Enhancing glucose uptake by peripheral tissues
• (2) Decreasing insulin secretion
• (3) Suppressing glucagon secretion
• (4) Increasing insulin secretion

Underlying mechanism for variant angina is………

• (1) Atherosclerosis
• (2) Aortic stenosis
• (3) Coronary artery spasm
• (4) Cardiomyopathy

Which lipoprotein plays major role in development of Atherosclerosis?

• (1) HDL-C
• (2) LDL-C
• (3) VLDL
• (4) Chylomicrons

The physiologic effect of PGF2-ALFA

• (1) Bronchodilator
• (2) Vasodilator
• (3) Bronchoconstrictor
• (4) Platelet aggregation

Which gene is associated with autosomal dominant Parkinsonism?

• (1) UCHL1
• (2) LRRK2
• (3) TIMP2
• (4) UCHL3

If a researcher mistakenly concludes that there is a significant effect when, in fact, there is none, what type of error is committed?

• (1) Measurement error
• (2) Type II error
• (3) Sampling error
• (4) Type I error

Example of Amphiprotic solvent ………

• (1) Water
• (2) Formic acid
• (3) Benzene
• (4) Chloroform

Which functional groups or specific types of compounds can be determined using diazotization titration?

• (1) Alkyl halides
• (2) Primary alcohols
• (3) Primary aromatic amines
• (4) Carboxylic acids

Karl Fischer titration is based on the ……… reaction between the iodine and sulphur dioxide.

• (1) Reduction
• (2) Oxidation
• (3) Hydrolysis
• (4) Condensation

……………. is the measure of how close a measurement comes to the true value

• (1) Accuracy
• (2) Precision
• (3) Standard deviation
• (4) Robustness

Cinchona is well grown in ……… soil.

• (1) Acidic
• (2) Basic
• (3) Neutral
• (4) Non-porous

Which plant growth regulator is commonly used in tissue culture for promoting cell division and callus formation?

• (1) Gibberellins
• (2) Abscisic acid
• (3) Cytokinins
• (4) Ethylene

The number of milligrams of KOH required to neutralize the fatty acids obtained by complete hydrolysis of 1 gram of an oil sample is

• (1) Iodine value
• (2) Saponification value
• (3) Hydroxyl value
• (4) Acetyl value

Libermann test is used for the identification of

• (1) Glycosides
• (2) Alkaloids
• (3) Tannins
• (4) Triterpenoid saponins

Biological source of pale catechu

• (1) Terminalia arjuna
• (2) Uncaria gambier
• (3) Acacia catechu
• (4) Pterocarpus marsupium

South American arrow poison is the synonym of the drug

• (1) Datura
• (2) Curare
• (3) Cinchona
• (4) Coca

The family of fennel

• (1) Umbelliferae
• (2) Cucurbitaceae
• (3) Zygophyllaceae
• (4) Araliaceae

Cucurbitacins are the plant bitters present in

• (1) Spirulina
• (2) Stevia
• (3) Garlic
• (4) Colocynth

Which of the following is used as a rat poison?

• (1) Liquorice
• (2) Thevetia
• (3) Digitalis
• (4) European squill

Which of the following contains sesquiterpenoids?

• (1) Saffron
• (2) Fennel
• (3) Clove
• (4) Caraway

Which of the following describes the mechanism of action of metoclopramide as an antiemetic?

• (1) H\textsubscript{1} and H\textsubscript{2}-receptor blocking effect
• (2) M-cholino receptor stimulating effect
• (3) D\textsubscript{2}-dopamine and 5-HT\textsubscript{3}-serotonin receptor blocking effect
• (4) M-cholino receptor blocking effect

Class II antiarrhythmic drugs are ……… blockers.

• (1) Sodium channel
• (2) Calcium channel
• (3) Potassium channel
• (4) Beta adrenergic receptor

……… is drug of choice for acute iron poisoning

• (1) Aspirin
• (2) Clopidogrel
• (3) Deferoxamine
• (4) Ezetimibe

Mechanism of action of propyl thiouracil ………

• (1) Inhibition of thyroid peroxidase
• (2) Activation of thyroid peroxidase
• (3) Inhibition of thyroid oxidase
• (4) Activation of thyroid oxidase

The drug that cause Stevens-Johnson syndrome is

• (1) Clarithromycin
• (2) Cimetidine
• (3) Azithromycin
• (4) Sulfamethoxazole

What mechanism underlies the gastrointestinal discomfort induced by macrolides?

• (1) Histamine receptor agonist
• (2) Adrenergic receptor agonist
• (3) Motilin receptor agonist
• (4) Binding to 50 S ribosomal subunit

Choose the drug which is topical aminoglycoside

• (1) Neomycin
• (2) Kanamycin
• (3) Amikacin
• (4) Gentamicin

Which diuretic is known for its significant ototoxicity?

• (1) Torsemide
• (2) Ethacrynic acid
• (3) Azosemide
• (4) Indacrinone

Lorazepam is used in the treatment of ………

• (1) UTI
• (2) Glaucoma
• (3) Status epilepticus
• (4) Schizophrenia

H\textsubscript{1 antihistaminic having anti-anxiety activity is

• (1) Alprazolam
• (2) Hydroxyzine
• (3) Meprobamate
• (4) Zopiclone

Pilocarpine is used in the treatment of

• (1) Alzheimer
• (2) Paralytic ileus
• (3) Myasthenia gravis
• (4) Glaucoma

Captopril inhibits

• (1) Carbonic anhydrase
• (2) Angiotensin converting enzyme
• (3) Topoisomerase
• (4) Fumarate reductase

Sumatriptan is selective ……… agonist.

• (1) 5HT\textsubscript{3}
• (2) 5HT\textsubscript{4}
• (3) 5HT\textsubscript{1B/1D}
• (4) 5HT\textsubscript{2A}

……… is a prodrug of terbutaline

• (1) Bambuterol
• (2) Salbutamol
• (3) Theophylline
• (4) Montelukast

What are the long-term side effects associated with chronic isoniazid use?

• (1) Cardiotoxicity
• (2) Hepatotoxicity, peripheral neuropathy
• (3) Loss of hair
• (4) Immunotoxicity

Which type of transitions are responsible for the R-band?

• (1) \(\pi \rightarrow \pi^*\)
• (2) \(n \rightarrow \pi^*\)
• (3) \(\sigma \rightarrow \sigma^*\)
• (4) \(n \rightarrow \sigma^*\)

What is the maximum absorption (\(\lambda_{max}\)) for a homo-annular conjugated diene according to the Woodward-Fieser Rules?

• (1) 253 nm
• (2) 217 nm
• (3) 5 nm
• (4) 215 nm

How many vibrational modes are possible for H\textsubscript{2O?

• (1) 2
• (2) 0
• (3) 1
• (4) 3

Which of the following is the disadvantage of nitrogen, which can be used as carrier gas in gas chromatography?

• (1) Dangerous to use
• (2) Expensive
• (3) Reduced sensitivity
• (4) Highly reactive

What is the nature of mobile phase in normal phase chromatography?

• (1) Polar
• (2) Non-polar
• (3) Mixture of polar and non-polar
• (4) Can be polar and non-polar, it depends on the nature of analyte

One of the detectors used in HPLC is

• (1) Bolometer
• (2) Thermal conductivity detector
• (3) Refractive index detector
• (4) Geiger Muller counter

The mobility of ion in electrophoresis does not depend upon

• (1) Shape of ion
• (2) Size of ion
• (3) Molecular weight
• (4) Stationary phase

Among these, which is used as stationary phase in gel electrophoresis?

• (1) Inorganic polymers
• (2) Polyacrylamide gel
• (3) Chromium gel
• (4) Momoner gel

ELISA is widely used in ………

• (1) Clinical diagnostics
• (2) Food preservation
• (3) Structural engineering
• (4) Automotive manufacturing

Example of organic molecular complexes ………

• (1) Quinhydrone type complexes
• (2) Chelates
• (3) Clatharates
• (4) Layer type complexes

Liquid dispersions of tragacanth, sodium alginate, methylcellulose and sodium carboxymethyl cellulose exhibit ………

• (1) Plastic flow
• (2) Bingham flow
• (3) Dilatant flow
• (4) Pseudoplastic flow

Andreasen pipette method is used over the size range of ………

• (1) 0.01–0.1 µm
• (2) 0.1–300 µm
• (3) 0.01–50 µm
• (4) 0.01–1000 µm

Example of cationic surface active agent ………

• (1) Methyl cellulose
• (2) Bentonite
• (3) Benzalkonium chloride
• (4) Magnesium hydroxide

Chemically nitrogen mustards are ……………..

• (1) Bis alpha halo alkyl amines
• (2) Tris beta halo alkyl amines
• (3) Bis beta halo alkyl amines
• (4) Tris alpha halo alkyl amines

What is strongest H\textsubscript{1 Antihistamines?

• (1) Cetrizine
• (2) Fexofinadine
• (3) Loratidine
• (4) Astemizole

Histamine contains .................... heterocyclic ring

• (1) Pyrrole
• (2) Pyridine
• (3) Thiazole
• (4) Imidazole

Coumarin based anti-coagulant drug ……………..

• (1) Phenindione
• (2) Anisindione
• (3) Heparin
• (4) Warfarin

Mechanism of action of digoxin …………………………….

• (1) Inhibition of sodium-potassium pump
• (2) Increasing cGMP
• (3) Decreasing cGMP
• (4) Decreasing calcium levels

What impact does replacing the decalin ring with a cyclohexane ring have on the activity of HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors?

• (1) 10000 fold increase in the activity
• (2) 10000 fold decrease in the activity
• (3) No changes in the activity
• (4) Increase in the activity

Angiotensin-II is a ……… peptide

• (1) Decapeptide
• (2) Heptapeptide
• (3) Octapeptide
• (4) Tripeptide

Replacement of 6-methoxy group of quinine with a 7-chloro substituent results in formation of ………………

• (1) Cinchonine
• (2) Chloroquine
• (3) Amodiaquine
• (4) Mefloquine

Chloramphenicol is synthesized from ………………

• (1) 4-Nitro acetophenone
• (2) 4-Chloro acetophenone
• (3) 3-Chloro acetophenone
• (4) 2-Chloro acetophenone

Azithromycin has a ………. membered lactone ring.

• (1) 12
• (2) 13
• (3) 14
• (4) 15

Which mechanism is involved in the absorption of propranolol in the body?

• (1) Ion pair transport
• (2) Pinocytosis
• (3) Phagocytosis
• (4) Passive diffusion

Select the probable mechanism of absorption of a hydrophilic drug of molecular weight 80 dalton.

• (1) Active transport
• (2) Filtration
• (3) Passive diffusion
• (4) Endocytosis

Which of the following represents the total integrated area under the plasma level time profile and expresses the total amount of drug that comes into systemic circulation after its administration?

• (1) C\textsubscript{max}
• (2) t\textsubscript{max}
• (3) MRT
• (4) AUC

In the equation dX/dt = – K\textsubscript{EX, what does X stand for?

• (1) First order elimination rate constant
• (2) Distribution exponent
• (3) Amount of drug in the body at any time
• (4) Elimination exponent

Dose dependent pharmacokinetics is also known as ……….

• (1) Non linear pharmacokinetics
• (2) Linear pharmacokinetics
• (3) Pseudo order kinetics
• (4) Third order kinetics

Which term describes the drug substance in two or more identical dosage forms reaches the systemic circulation at the same relative rate and to the same relative extent without significant statistical differences?

• (1) Chemical equivalence
• (2) Bioequivalence
• (3) Bioinequivalence
• (4) Therapeutic equivalence

What role does the P-glycoprotein efflux pump play in drug absorption?

• (1) Enhances metabolism
• (2) Inhibits absorption
• (3) Facilitates absorption
• (4) Has no effect on absorption

What is the unit of measurement for clearance?

• (1) L/hour
• (2) L/min
• (3) %/day
• (4) mL/hour

Zidovudine is an analogue of

• (1) Thymidine
• (2) Cytidine
• (3) Purine
• (4) Guanosine

An example of Imidazole containing antifungal drug is

• (1) Ketoconazole
• (2) Itraconazole
• (3) Fluconazole
• (4) Griseofulvin

Drug used to treat Amoebiasis is

• (1) Tolnaftate
• (2) Mefloquine
• (3) Tinidazole
• (4) Verapamil

Prontosil is a prodrug of _______

• (1) Sulfamethoxazole
• (2) Sulfanilamide
• (3) Nalidixic acid
• (4) Sulfadoxine

Which of the following is a precursor of nitroglycerin synthesis?

• (1) Glycerol
• (2) Glycol
• (3) Glucose
• (4) Glucitol

What is the chemical nomenclature of Procaine?

• (1) 2-(dimethylamino)ethyl 4-aminobenzoate
• (2) 2-(triethylamino)ethyl 4-aminobenzoate
• (3) 2-(dipropylamino)ethyl 4-aminobenzoate
• (4) 2-(diethylamino)ethyl 4-aminobenzoate

Which of the following antibiotics possesses a \(\beta\)-lactam ring in its structure?

• (1) Erythromycin
• (2) Vancomycin
• (3) Ciprofloxacin
• (4) Amoxicillin

Cephalosporin nucleus consists of \ldots

• (1) Beta-lactam ring + Thiazolidine ring
• (2) Beta-lactam ring + Oxazolidine ring
• (3) Beta-lactam ring + Dihydrothiazine ring
• (4) Beta-lactam ring + Pyrrole ring

What is the chemical class of Zaleplon?

• (1) Imidobenzene
• (2) Imidopyrimidine
• (3) Pyrazolopyrimidine
• (4) Cycloppyrolone

Diazepam is synthesized from \ldots

• (1) Diphenyl methane
• (2) 2-Amino-5-chloro benzophenone
• (3) 3-Chloro acetophenone
• (4) Phenothiazine

In the microbial bioassay of Amikacin, the strain used is \ldots

• (1) Bacillus pumilus
• (2) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
• (3) Bacillus subtilis
• (4) Staphylococcus aureus

Which of the following comes under chemical method of sterilization?

• (1) Ethylene oxide treatment
• (2) Radiation
• (3) Moist heat sterilization
• (4) Filtration

……… helps bacteria to grow by providing nitrogenous compounds, carbon, B-complex vitamins and other growth factors for microorganisms.

• (1) Agar
• (2) Yeast extract
• (3) Peptone
• (4) Agar–Agar

Which of the following substances is used as an inactivating agent for sulfonamides?

• (1) PABA (Para Amino Benzoic Acid)
• (2) Penicillinase
• (3) Acetyl Transferase
• (4) Penicillamine

Hybridoma technology was developed by……….

• (1) Kohler \& Milstein
• (2) Khorana and Korenberg
• (3) Khorana and Nirenberg
• (4) Beedle and Tautum

Which of the following is an example of passive immunity?

• (1) Skin acting as a physical barrier to pathogens
• (2) IgG Antibodies passed from mother to fetus through the placenta
• (3) Immune response to a specific antigen after vaccination
• (4) Production of interferons in response to a viral infection

BCG vaccine contains which of the following strain?

• (1) Ebola virus
• (2) Herpes virus
• (3) Mycobacterium bovis
• (4) Variola virus

Which of the following is a common method for inactivating or attenuating pathogens in vaccine production?

• (1) Pasteurization
• (2) Filtration
• (3) Lyophilization
• (4) Polymerization

Dibenzodiazepine derivative atypical neuroleptic drug is ……….

• (1) Loxapine
• (2) Haloperidol
• (3) Ziprasidone
• (4) Clozapine

Which one of the following is sulphonyl urea derivative hypoglycemic drug?

• (1) Repaglinide
• (2) Nateglinide
• (3) Glipizide
• (4) Metformin

Which is selective \(\beta_1\) adrenergic antagonist?

• (1) Propranolol
• (2) Atenolol
• (3) Nadolol
• (4) Timolol

The structural feature which is essential for both glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids activity is

• (1) 6-\(\alpha\) substitution on ring B
• (2) 3-keto group on ring A
• (3) Double bond in the 1,2 position of ring A
• (4) Without 17\(\alpha\) hydroxy group

Which of the following antibiotics is a tetracycline?

• (1) Chloramphenicol
• (2) Streptomycin
• (3) Erythromycin
• (4) Doxycycline

GMP is scheduled as ………. in drugs & cosmetics act.

• (1) N
• (2) O
• (3) M
• (4) P

ISO 14001 refers to

• (1) Environmental management
• (2) Quality system
• (3) Risk management
• (4) Energy management

ICH Q9 refers to

• (1) GMP guidelines
• (2) Quality risk management
• (3) Clinical safety
• (4) Specifications

The requirement and guidelines for clinical trials, import and manufacture of new drugs as per the drugs & cosmetics rules is given under schedule

• (1) N
• (2) Y
• (3) A
• (4) B

List of substances that should be sold by retail only on prescription of registered medical practitioner comes under

• (1) Schedule P
• (2) Schedule H
• (3) Schedule G
• (4) Schedule J

The following form under Schedule A of the Drug and Cosmetic Act is utilized for applying license “Application to Import drugs for personal use”

• (1) Form 8
• (2) Form 24 C
• (3) Form 19
• (4) Form 12A

Blood bank comes under the following schedule

• (1) Schedule B
• (2) Schedule D
• (3) Schedule F
• (4) Schedule G

Spurious drug comes under

• (1) Section 17
• (2) Section 17A
• (3) Section 17B
• (4) Section 3B

Dried aluminium hydroxide gel contains NLT 47% of ………

• (1) Aluminium carbonate
• (2) Aluminium oxide
• (3) Aluminium citrate
• (4) Aluminium silicate

………. is produced in limit test for chlorides

• (1) Turbidity
• (2) Opalescence
• (3) Precipitate
• (4) Pink colour

IP limit for heavy metals is………………

• (1) 10 ppm
• (2) 15 ppm
• (3) 5 ppm
• (4) 20 ppm

………. limit test is a pharmacopoeia method based on Gutzeit test

• (1) Arsenic
• (2) Iron
• (3) Sulphur
• (4) Chlorides

Which of the following is used as an adsorbent for bacterial toxoids in preparation of vaccines?

• (1) Calcium carbonate
• (2) Magnesium oxide
• (3) Aluminium phosphate
• (4) Sodium bicarbonate

The diagnostic test for myocardial infarction is

• (1) Creatinine kinase test
• (2) Haematocrit
• (3) Total blood count
• (4) Urine test

A heart rate of 90 bpm (beats per minute) means the duration of one cardiac cycle is about ………seconds.

• (1) 0.67
• (2) 1.0
• (3) 1.5
• (4) 1.8

The hypertensive drug used in pregnancy is………

• (1) Propranalol
• (2) Metaprolol
• (3) Diuretics
• (4) Methyldopa

Which medication is added to prolong the activity of L-DOPA in the case of motor fluctuation development?

• (1) MAO-B inhibitors
• (2) Catechol-O-methyl transferase inhibitor
• (3) Dopamine inhibitors
• (4) Anti-cholinergic

Therapeutic drug monitoring is advised in all except

• (1) Tacrolimus
• (2) Cyclosporine
• (3) Metformin
• (4) Phenytoin