TS PGECET 2024 Textile Technology Question Paper is available for download here. Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University Hyderabad on behalf of Telangana Council of Higher Education (TGCHE) conducted TS PGECET 2024 Textile Technology on June 12 in Shift 1 from 10 AM to 12 PM. TS PGECET Question Paper 2024 consists of 120 MCQ-based questions in total carrying 1 mark each to be attempted in the duration of 2 hours.

TS PGECET 2024 Textile Technology Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

TS PGECET 2024 TX Question Paper​ with Answer Key Download PDF Check Solution
TS PGECET 2024 Textile Technology

Question 1:

If \(\lambda_1\) and \(\lambda_2\) are two distinct eigen values of a symmetric matrix, \(X_1\) and \(X_2\) are the eigen vectors corresponding to \(\lambda_1, \lambda_2\) respectively, then

  • (a) \(X_1 + X_2 = 0\)
  • (b) \(X_1^T X_2 = 1\)
  • (c) \(X_1 - X_2 = 0\)
  • (d) \(X_1^T X_2 X_1 = X_2^T X_1 X_2\)
Correct Answer: (d) \(X_1^T X_2 X_1 = X_2^T X_1 X_2\)
View Solution

Question 2:

If the characteristic equation of a \(3 \times 3\) square matrix A is \(ax^3+bx^2+cx+d=0\), \((a \neq 0)\) then the Trace of A + det A =

  • (a) \(\frac{d-b}{a}\)
  • (b) \(\frac{b+c+d}{2a}\)
  • (c) \(-\frac{(b+d)}{a}\)
  • (d) \(-\frac{(a+b)}{d}\)
Correct Answer: (c)
View Solution

Question 3:

Let \(f(x) = \begin{cases} h(x), & 0 < x < C
-h(-x), & -C < x < 0 \end{cases}\) and \(f(x+2C)=f(x) \; \forall x \in \mathbb{R}\). If the Fourier series of \(f(x) = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \left(a_n \cos\frac{n\pi x}{C} + b_n \sin\frac{n\pi x}{C}\right)\) then \(\sum_{n=0}^\infty a_n b_n =\)
% (The summation for Fourier series is usually from n=1 for b_n, and a_0/2 + sum(a_n cos + b_n sin) from n=1. The sum here \(\sum_{n=0}^\infty a_n b_n\) is unusual, as \(b_0\) is not standardly defined or is 0. Let's assume standard definitions where \(b_0=0\).)

  • (a) \(\left(\int_{-C}^{C} h(x)\cos\frac{n\pi x}{C}dx\right) \left(\int_{-C}^{C} h(-x)\sin\frac{n\pi x}{C}dx\right)\)
    (b) \(\int_{-C}^{C} f(x)\cos\frac{n\pi x}{C}dx\)
    (c) \(2 \int_{0}^{C} h(x)\sin\frac{n\pi x}{C}dx\)
  • (d) \(2 \int_{-C}^{0} -h(-x)\sin\frac{n\pi x}{C}dx\) 
Correct Answer: (b) \(\int_{-C}^{C} f(x)\cos\frac{n\pi x}{C}dx\)
View Solution

Question 4:

Consider the statements
I. If a series of positive terms is not convergent, then it is either divergent or oscillatory.
II. In an alternating series, if \(\lim_{n\to\infty} |u_n| \neq 0\), then it is convergent.
III. In a series of positive terms, if \(\lim_{n\to\infty} u_n = 0\), then it may be convergent or divergent.
IV. If \(\sum |u_n|\) is divergent and \(\sum u_n\) is convergent, then \(\sum u_n\) is conditionally convergent.
Which of the above statement(s) is(are) correct?

  • (a) All the statements are correct
  • (b) Statements I and III are correct
  • (c) Statements III and IV are correct
  • (d) Statements II, III and IV are correct
Correct Answer: (c)
View Solution

Let's analyze each statement:

I. If a series of positive terms is not convergent, then it is either divergent or oscillatory.
A series of positive terms \(\sum u_n\) (where \(u_n \ge 0\)) has partial sums \(S_N = \sum_{k=1}^N u_k\) that are monotonically non-decreasing (\(S_{N+1} \ge S_N\)).
Such a sequence of partial sums can either converge to a finite limit (if bounded above) or diverge to \(+\infty\) (if not bounded above). It cannot oscillate without converging, because it's monotonic.
So, if a series of positive terms is not convergent, it must be divergent (to \(+\infty\)). It cannot be oscillatory in the sense of finite oscillation (like \((-1)^n\)).
Thus, statement I is incorrect because it includes "oscillatory" as an alternative for non-convergent series of positive terms. A series of positive terms can only converge or diverge to \(+\infty\).

II. In an alternating series, if \(\lim_{n\to\infty} |u_n| \neq 0\), then it is convergent.
This statement refers to an alternating series \(\sum (-1)^n u_n\) or \(\sum (-1)^{n-1} u_n\) where \(u_n > 0\). (The question states \(|u_n|\), maybe it means general series \(u_n\) that alternates).
For any series \(\sum a_n\) (alternating or not), if \(\lim_{n\to\infty} a_n \neq 0\) (or \(\lim_{n\to\infty} |a_n| \neq 0\)), then the series diverges by the \(n\)-th term test for divergence.
So, if \(\lim_{n\to\infty} |u_n| \neq 0\), the alternating series diverges, it is not convergent.
Statement II is incorrect. (It would be correct if it said "divergent"). Leibniz test for alternating series requires \(\lim u_n = 0\) AND \(u_n\) is decreasing for convergence.

III. In a series of positive terms, if \(\lim_{n\to\infty} u_n = 0\), then it may be convergent or divergent.
This is correct. The condition \(\lim_{n\to\infty} u_n = 0\) is a necessary condition for convergence of any series, but it is not sufficient.
For series of positive terms:
Example of convergent: \(\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{n^2}\). Here \(u_n = 1/n^2\), \(\lim_{n\to\infty} 1/n^2 = 0\). This series converges (p-series with \(p=2>1\)).
Example of divergent: \(\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{n}\). Here \(u_n = 1/n\), \(\lim_{n\to\infty} 1/n = 0\). This series (harmonic series) diverges (p-series with \(p=1\)).
So, statement III is correct.

IV. If \(\sum |u_n|\) is divergent and \(\sum u_n\) is convergent, then \(\sum u_n\) is conditionally convergent.
This is the definition of conditional convergence. A series \(\sum u_n\) is said to be:

Absolutely convergent if \(\sum |u_n|\) converges. (This implies \(\sum u_n\) also converges).
Conditionally convergent if \(\sum u_n\) converges but \(\sum |u_n|\) diverges.

So, statement IV is correct by definition.

Correct statements are III and IV.
This matches option (c). \[ \boxed{Statements III and IV are correct} \] Quick Tip: \textbf{Series of positive terms:} If not convergent, it diverges to \(+\infty\). It cannot oscillate finitely. \textbf{\(n\)-th term test for divergence:} For any series \(\sum a_n\), if \(\lim_{n\to\infty} a_n \neq 0\) or the limit does not exist, the series diverges. \textbf{Necessary condition for convergence:} If \(\sum a_n\) converges, then \(\lim_{n\to\infty} a_n = 0\). The converse is not always true (e.g., harmonic series). \textbf{Conditional convergence:} A series \(\sum u_n\) converges conditionally if \(\sum u_n\) converges AND \(\sum |u_n|\) diverges. \textbf{Absolute convergence:} A series \(\sum u_n\) converges absolutely if \(\sum |u_n|\) converges. Absolute convergence implies convergence.


Question 5:

Let \(\phi(x,y,z) = (x^2+y^2+z^2)^{n/2}\) and \(f(x,y,z)=(xyz)^{-n/2}\). Then div Curl grad\(\phi\) + (Curl grad \(f\)) \(\cdot\) grad\(\phi =\)
% Note: (Curl grad f) is a vector. grad\(\phi\) is a vector. Their dot product is a scalar. div (Curl G) is a scalar.

  • (a) \(\frac{n}{2}(x^2+y^2+z^2)^{\frac{n+1}{2}} - \frac{n}{2}(xyz)^{\frac{n-1}{2}}\)
    % This seems too complex given identities. (b) \(\frac{n(n+1)}{2}(x^2+y^2+z^2)(xyz)\)
    (c) 0
  • (d) \(x+y+z\)
Correct Answer: (c)
View Solution

Question 6:

If \(L^{-1}\left\{\frac{e^{-\pi s}}{s^2+4s+5}\right\} = \begin{cases} 0, & t \le \pi
e^{a(t-\pi)}(f(t)), & t > \pi \end{cases}\), then \(f(\pi/2)=\)
% Note: The form \(e^{a(t-\pi)}(f(t))\) for \(t>\pi\) seems unusual. Standard form using Heaviside \(u(t-\pi)\) would be \(g(t-\pi)u(t-\pi)\) where \(L\{g(t)\} = F(s)\) and \(L^{-1}\{e^{-cs}F(s)\} = g(t-c)u(t-c)\). Here \(F(s) = 1/(s^2+4s+5)\).

  • (a) 1
    (b) -1
    (c) 2
  • (d) -2
Correct Answer: (a)
View Solution

Question 7:

Particular Integral of \((D^2-4D+4)y = e^x \sin 2x\), \(D=\frac{d}{dx}\) is

  • (a) \(\frac{e^x}{25}(4\cos 2x - 3\sin 2x)\)
  • (b) \(\frac{e^x}{16}(4\sin 2x + 3\cos 2x)\)
  • (c) \(\frac{e^x}{25}(\sin 2x - \cos 2x)\)
  • (d) \(\frac{e^x}{16}(3\sin 2x + 4\cos 2x)\)
Correct Answer: (a)
View Solution

Question 8:

The probability density function of a continuous random variable X is \(f(X=x) = \begin{cases} x^3, & 0 \le x \le 1
(2-x)^3, & 1 \le x \le 2
1/2, & 2 \le x \le 3
0, & otherwise \end{cases}\). Then mean of the random variable is

  • (a) \(\frac{7}{4}\)
  • (b) \(\frac{43}{20}\)
  • (c) \(\frac{15}{8}\)
  • (d) \(\frac{12}{7}\)
Correct Answer: (a)
View Solution

Question 9:

The coefficient of correlation between x and y is 0.85. If \(u = \frac{x+1.5}{12}\) and \(v = \frac{y-2.4}{30}\) Then the correlation coefficient between u and v is

  • (a) -0.85
  • (b) 0.85
  • (c) \(\frac{0.85-0.9}{6}\)
  • (d) \(\frac{0.85+0.9}{15}\)
Correct Answer: (b)
View Solution

Question 10:

If \(f(x)\) is defined on \([a,b]\) and \([a,b]\) is divided into \(2n\) equal parts by the points \(x_0=a < x_1 < x_2 < \dots < x_{2n}=b\). Then by Simpson's \(\frac{1}{3}\) rule \(\int_a^b f(x)dx =\)

  • (a) \(\frac{b-a}{3n} [(f(x_0)+f(x_{2n}))+4(f(x_1)+f(x_3)+\dots+f(x_{2n-1}))+2(f(x_2)+f(x_4)+\dots+f(x_{2n-2}))]\)
  • (b) \(\frac{b-a}{6n} [(f(x_0)+f(x_{2n}))+4(f(x_1)+f(x_3)+\dots+f(x_{2n-1}))+2(f(x_2)+f(x_4)+\dots+f(x_{2n-2}))]\)
  • (c) \(\frac{b-a}{6n} [(f(x_0)+f(x_{2n}))+4(f(x_1)+f(x_3)+\dots+f(x_{2n-1}))+2(f(x_2)+f(x_4)+\dots+f(x_{2n-2}))]\)
  • (d) \(\frac{b-a}{3n} [(f(x_0)+f(x_{2n}))+4(f(x_1)+f(x_3)+\dots+f(x_{2n-2}))+2(f(x_2)+f(x_4)+\dots+f(x_{2n-1}))]\)
Correct Answer: (c) \(\frac{b-a}{6n} [(f(x_0)+f(x_{2n}))+4(f(x_1)+f(x_3)+\dots+f(x_{2n-1}))+2(f(x_2)+f(x_4)+\dots+f(x_{2n-2}))]\)
View Solution

Question 11:

SERICIN refers to

  • (a) Cotton
  • (b) Wool
  • (c) Silk
  • (d) Jute
Correct Answer: (c)
View Solution

Question 12:

From the following, highest moisture regain can be seen in

  • (a) Linen
  • (b) Jute
  • (c) Silk
  • (d) Acetate
Correct Answer: (b)
View Solution

Question 13:

The trilobal cross section of polyester is observed in

  • (a) Cotton
  • (b) Wool
  • (c) Silk
  • (d) Jute
Correct Answer: (c) Silk
View Solution

Question 14:

In which of the following cotton, one finds an apparel use?

  • (a) Bt
  • (b) Cayano Ethylatated
  • (c) Organic
  • (d) Carboxy methylated
Correct Answer: (c)
View Solution

Question 15:

Basalt is

  • (a) Manmade fibre
  • (b) Synthetic fibre
  • (c) Mineral fibre
  • (d) Melt Spun fibre
Correct Answer: (c)
View Solution

Question 16:

The plant used for production of Viscose Rayon is

  • (a) Eucalyptus or Neelagiri
  • (b) Sandalwood
  • (c) Teak
  • (d) Maple
Correct Answer: (a)
View Solution

Question 17:

For identifying 100 % polyester, which of the following is used as solvent for P/V blends?
% P/V blends usually means Polyester/Viscose blends. The question asks for a solvent to identify 100% polyester, possibly by dissolving other components in a blend or by dissolving polyester itself. "Solvent for P/V blends" might mean a solvent that can differentiate or separate P and V.

  • (a) TNT
    (b) Di- Ethyl Ether
  • (c) Di-Ethylene Glycol
  • (d) Sodium Hydroxide
Correct Answer: (b) Di- Ethyl Ether
View Solution

Question 18:

The variety produced only in polyester staple production is

  • (a) BDD
  • (b) TDD
  • (c) MDD
  • (d) KDD
Correct Answer: (a)
View Solution

Question 19:

Which of the following is preferred as reagent for estimation of spin finish of synthetics in laboratory?

  • (a) Trichloro Acetic acid
  • (b) Isopropyl Alcohol
  • (c) Titanium Dioxide
  • (d) Methyl Alcohol
Correct Answer: (b)
View Solution

Question 20:

The constant factor for converting tex count to cotton count is

  • (a) 100
  • (b) 590.5
  • (c) 5315
  • (d) 1.1
Correct Answer: (b)
View Solution

Question 21:

For cotton, the system of count used is

  • (a) Kilotex
  • (b) Militex
  • (c) Indirect
  • (d) Direct
Correct Answer: (c)
View Solution

Question 22:

CDT test gives information about

  • (a) Birefringence of fibre structure
  • (b) Crystallinity of fibre structure
  • (c) Orientation of fibre structure
  • (d) Specific Gravity of fibre structure
Correct Answer: (b)
View Solution

Question 23:

From ring spinning section, 20 ring cops were selected randomly from two frames for testing yarn count. To know whether the frames are spinning the same count, the best statistical tools advised is

  • (a) Chi- square test
  • (b) Cluster analysis
  • (c) Fisherman's test
  • (d) Student 't' test
Correct Answer: (d)
View Solution

Question 24:

In testing the colour fastness of a dye, Crock meter is used. If the dye has best wash fastness, the grade will be

  • (a) 3
  • (b) 5
  • (c) 2
  • (d) 1
Correct Answer: (b)
View Solution

Question 25:

Which of the following is not a parameter of KES-f?

  • (a) SMD
  • (b) G
  • (c) F
  • (d) \(\frac{2HB}{T_m}\)
Correct Answer: (c)
View Solution

Question 26:

When compared to \(40^s\) cotton shirting, the crease recovery of Polyester shirting from 50 D x 50 D (Tex x Tex) is
% Note: "50 D x 50 D (Tex x Tex)" means 50 Denier warp and 50 Denier weft. The (Tex x Tex) in parenthesis is likely a typo or misunderstanding, as Denier and Tex are different unit systems. 50 Denier is a typical filament yarn size. \(40^s\) cotton is a medium count cotton spun yarn.

  • (a) Equal
  • (b) Higher
  • (c) Lower
  • (d) Normal 
Correct Answer: (b)
View Solution

Question 27:

'USTER' Tensorapid tensile tester works based on the principle of

  • (a) CRT
  • (b) CRE
  • (c) CRF
  • (d) CRL
Correct Answer: (d)
View Solution

Question 28:

Which of the following is preferred for filtration function of geotextile?

  • (a) Jute nonwoven
  • (b) Cotton knitted
  • (c) Polypropylene nonwoven
  • (d) Wool knitted
Correct Answer: (c)
View Solution

Question 29:

Which of the following controls "Koshi" in fabric low stress mechanical properties?

  • (a) Shear deformation
  • (b) Bending deformation
  • (c) Tensile deformation
  • (d) Surface deformation
Correct Answer: (b)
View Solution

Question 30:

A cotton grey fabric showed drape coefficient of 0.78. Then the drape coefficient of fabric following scouring is

  • (a) 0.51
  • (b) 0.681
  • (c) 0.62
  • (d) 0.59
Correct Answer: (a)
View Solution

Question 31:

Which of the following blending process is recommended to get the uniform blending of fibres?

  • (a) Carding
  • (b) Drawframe
  • (c) Blowroom
  • (d) Comber
Correct Answer: (c)
View Solution

Question 32:

For an ideal blend mixing of fibres, \(\pi\) value should be equal to

  • (a) 0
  • (b) 1
  • (c) 2
  • (d) 1.2
Correct Answer: (b)
View Solution

Question 33:

In Modern Comber, which will be in the form of one fourth moon shape in size?

  • (a) Plane segment
  • (b) Table Calendar
  • (c) Improved Nipper
  • (d) Web condenser
Correct Answer: (d)
View Solution

Question 34:

The maximum number of spindles in G 36 ring frame is

  • (a) 1824
  • (b) 1724
  • (c) 1224
  • (d) 1228
Correct Answer: (a)
View Solution

Question 35:

Which of the following type of action occurs between inclined spiked lattice and evener?

  • (a) Beat out
  • (b) Combing
  • (c) Tearing up
  • (d) Picking part
Correct Answer: (c)
View Solution

Question 36:

As the material passes, which type of action the mono cylinder has?

  • (a) Beat out
  • (b) Aero Dynamic
  • (c) Combing
  • (d) Picking part
Correct Answer: (b)
View Solution

Question 37:

The standard norm for the waste at comber is

  • (a) 0.5% of short fibre % of sorter diagram
    (interpretation-dependent)
  • (b) 2.5 times short fibre % of sorter diagram
  • (c) 4.5% of short fibre % of sorter diagram
  • (d) based on type of cotton processed
Correct Answer: (a)
View Solution

Question 38:

Cleaning efficiency of an opener can be judged by

  • (a) Waster extraction at the end of blow room
  • (b) Overall cleaning efficiency
  • (c) Individual cleaning efficiency
  • (d) Yarn realization studies
Correct Answer: (c)
View Solution

Question 39:

Which of the following is correct pertaining to fibre fracture?

  • (a) change in mass / unit volume
  • (b) change in fibre length
  • (c) change in fibre fineness
  • (d) change in fibre crimp
Correct Answer: (b)
View Solution

Question 40:

Counting of Neps at left, middle \& right is found in

  • (a) Blow room
  • (b) Fibre retriver
  • (c) Trash analyzer
  • (d) Carding
Correct Answer: (d)
View Solution

Question 41:

Trash in the draw frame sliver as feed material is a very important parameter while processing in

  • (a) Friction spinner
  • (b) Rotor spinner
  • (c) Air Jet spinner
  • (d) Wrap spinner
Correct Answer: (b)
View Solution

Question 42:

Which of the following is measured on the drafting roller in spinning, using NILO meter?

  • (a) Pressure
  • (b) Speed
  • (c) Vibration
  • (d) Setting
Correct Answer: (a)
View Solution

Question 43:

Which of the following techniques is used to check the uniformity of load on drafting roller?

  • (a) U % study
  • (b) Snap study
  • (c) Carbon paper
  • (d) Time study
Correct Answer: (c)
View Solution

Question 44:

Break draft used in simplex is in the range of
% Simplex = Roving Frame / Fly Frame

  • (a) 1.09 - 1.12
  • (b) 1.2 - 1.3
  • (c) 1.22 - 1.29
  • (d) 1.1 - 1.3
Correct Answer: (b)
View Solution

Question 45:

A defect "drag away" during working of the machine is observed in

  • (a) Ring frame
  • (b) Flyer frame
  • (c) TFO
  • (d) Doubler
Correct Answer: (a)
View Solution

Question 46:

The number of coils /D.T\(_t\) remains constant from D\(_0\) to D\(_{max}\) in
% D.T_t likely means Double Traverse. Number of coils per double traverse.

  • (a) Drum winders
  • (b) Precision winders
  • (c) Ply winders
  • (d) Doubler winder
Correct Answer: (b)
View Solution

Question 47:

Alpanol is a best example of

  • (a) Sizing unit
  • (b) Sizing ingredient
  • (c) Sizing treatment
  • (d) Post sizing operation % Image shows a red cross, implying incorrect, but it's part of the question page, not an option label.
Correct Answer: (b)
View Solution

Question 48:

Wet splitting is a concept of

  • (a) Single end sizing
  • (b) Perfect drying methodology
  • (c) Solvent sizing
  • (d) Split drying
Correct Answer: (d)
View Solution

Question 49:

For a weavers beam of 64", the best suited beam press roller is

  • (a) 64.5"
  • (b) 63.5"
  • (c) 64"
  • (d) 62.5"
Correct Answer: (b)
View Solution

Question 50:

In case of reeves variator in a sizing machine, it is necessary to

  • (a) adjust the tension of warp
  • (b) reset after each set length
  • (c) clean after each set length
  • (d) submerge in oil bath
Correct Answer: (b)
View Solution

Question 51:

Starting marks can be prevented by using

  • (a) Indirect cloth winding
  • (b) Thin place preventers
  • (c) 20 / 22 S.S Emery
  • (d) 10" Emery roller
Correct Answer: (b)
View Solution

Question 52:

The recommended percentage of air space in reeds is

  • (a) 45.34
  • (b) 60.00
  • (c) 54.25
  • (d) 70.25
Correct Answer: (b)
View Solution

Question 53:

A Poplin sort with 112 ends X 72 picks 40\(^s\) produced on a 50" RS auto loom needs
% Construction: 112 EPI, 72 PPI, 40s NeC yarn. RS (Reed Space) = 50 inches.

  • (a) 2/108\(^s\) Reed
  • (b) 2/80\(^s\) Reed
  • (c) 4/52\(^s\) Reed
  • (d) 3/100\(^s\) Reed
Correct Answer: (c)
View Solution

Question 54:

Which type of weft accumulators given below are used to achieve higher W.I.R?
% W.I.R = Weft Insertion Rate

  • (a) Axial feed over end withdrawal
  • (b) Axial feed axial withdrawal
  • (c) Over end feed over end withdrawal
  • (d) Over end feed axial withdrawal
Correct Answer: (c)
View Solution

Question 55:

Warp stop motion is not found in

  • (a) Jacquard
  • (b) Dobby
  • (c) Shuttle loom
  • (d) Rapier loom
Correct Answer: (a)
View Solution

Question 56:

Friction let off in modern loom is of \hspace{3cm} type.

  • (a) Friction clutch let off
  • (b) Friction let off with beam feeler
  • (c) Frictionless rollers
  • (d) Semi-positive and intermittent
Correct Answer: (a)
View Solution

Question 57:

The percentage stretch employed in sizing of 2/40's P/V yarn meant for unconventional weaving is about
% 2/40's P/V yarn: A plied yarn, likely two 40s NeC yarns plied. P/V means Polyester/Viscose blend.
% Unconventional weaving: Could refer to shuttleless looms (rapier, projectile, air jet, water jet) which often require higher quality warp with specific stretch properties.

  • (a) 1.2
  • (b) 3.25
  • (c) 1
  • (d) 1.5
Correct Answer: (c)
View Solution

Question 58:

All the mechanisms in shuttleless looms are set with respect to

  • (a) Cam shaft
  • (b) Index wheel
  • (c) Fly wheel
  • (d) Break wheel 
Correct Answer: (b)
View Solution

Question 59:

Pick finding in modern looms include the

  • (a) Heald crossing motion
  • (b) Warp easing motion
  • (c) Cylinder turning motion
  • (d) Index wheel turning motion
Correct Answer: (d) Index wheel turning motion
View Solution

Question 60:

If projectile gripper, rapier \& air jet weaving are compared for techno-economic aspects, one can say that

  • (a) Rapier is better than projectile gripper & air jet
  • (b) Air Jet is better than rapier & projectile gripper
  • (c) Projectile gripper is better than air jet & rapier
  • (d) Projectile is better for 20's sheeting production
Correct Answer: (b)
View Solution

Question 61:

The general rule of drawing order of ends in a Reed for any weave is

  • (a) 2 ends / dent
  • (b) 3 ends / dent
    (c) 4 ends / dent
  • (d) 1 ends / dent
Correct Answer: (a) 2 ends / dent
View Solution

Question 62:

Which of the following drafts is used for production of plain weave in industry?
% "Drafts" here refers to "drawing-in drafts" or "heald drafts," which specify how warp yarns are threaded through heald eyes on different heald shafts.

  • (a) Broken
  • (b) Skip
  • (c) Pointed
  • (d) Straight
Correct Answer: (b) Skip
View Solution

Question 63:

From the following, identify the odd one with respect to toweling weaves

  • (a) Huck-A- Buck
  • (b) Honey Comb
  • (c) Moss Crepe
  • (d) Terry / Turkish
Correct Answer: (c)
View Solution

Question 64:

Match Group I with Group II and choose the correct options

GROUP - I                                             GROUP - II

P   Always it is on multiples of four   1  Minimum ends are 4 X 4
Q  Irregular Sateen                              2  Check for outer presentation of folded garment
R   Devon Huck                                    3  Two ground and one figuring
S   Loose Back Pique                          4   Odd numbers are move numbers
                                                               5  Brighton Honey Comb
                                                               6  10 ends and 6 picks

 

  • (a) P -- 3, Q -- 6, R -- 2, S -- 1
    (b) P -- 6, Q -- 3, R -- 1, S -- 2
    (c) P -- 5, Q -- 1, R -- 6, S -- 3
  • (d) P -- 5, Q -- 2, R -- 3, S -- 6 
Correct Answer: (c)
View Solution

Question 65:

Fancy matty is the result of
% Matty weave is also known as Basket weave or Hopsack weave.

  • (a) Warp  & Weft Rib weave
  • (b) Plain weave
  • (c) Sateen and Weft rib weave
  • (d) Plain  & Satin weave
Correct Answer: (a)
View Solution

Question 66:

The skip order for plain weave, if 6 Heald shafts employed are
"Skip order" here means drawing-in draft (heald draft). Plain weave needs minimum 2 distinct movements.

  • (a) 1-3, 2-5, 4-6
    (b) 1-4, 3-5, 2-6
  • (c) 1-4, 2-5, 3-6
  • (d) 1-5, 2-4, 3-6
Correct Answer: (b)
View Solution

Question 67:

Pattern depth depends on
This likely refers to Jacquard weaving or Dobby weaving, where pattern depth means the number of picks in the pattern repeat.

  • (a) gauge
  • (b) number of tricks per wheel
  • (c) number of butts
  • (d) number of feeds
Correct Answer: (b)
View Solution

Question 68:

The following is the most popular and quicker methods for measurement of Spirality in weft knit goods

  • (a) Photo copy method
  • (b) Heat set method
  • (c) Wash burns method
  • (d) Star fish method
Correct Answer: (a)
View Solution

Question 69:

Maximum machine diameter for circular weft knit machine is

  • (a) 50 inches
  • (b) 30 inches
  • (c) 60 inches
  • (d) 10 inches
Correct Answer: (b)
View Solution

Question 70:

The maximum yarn tension build up occurs in

  • (a) Nonlinear cam with 52\(^\circ\)
  • (b) Linear cam with 57\(^\circ\)
  • (c) Nonlinear cam with 55\(^\circ\)
  • (d) linear cam with 45\(^\circ\)
Correct Answer: (d)
View Solution

Question 71:

Tightness factor is given by

  • (a) \(\frac{\sqrt{Tex}}{L}\)
  • (b) L = 2 H + C
  • (c) L = a\(^2 + \frac{a^2}{4}\)
  • (d) L = \(3\sqrt{\left(\frac{d+a}{4}\right)^2}\) 
Correct Answer: (a)
View Solution

Question 72:

As compared to woven fabrics, the values of G, HB \& 2 HG in knit goods are
% G = Shear stiffness, HB = Bending rigidity (often just B), 2HG = Shear hysteresis. (2HB is bending hysteresis).
% Question probably means comparing G, B (bending rigidity), and 2HG (shear hysteresis) or 2HB (bending hysteresis).

  • (a) Moderately high
  • (b) Very high
  • (c) Lower
  • (d) Moderately low
Correct Answer: (c)
View Solution

Question 73:

Rack means

  • (a) 600 courses in warp knitting
  • (b) 388 courses in warp knitting
  • (c) 450 courses in warp knitting
  • (d) 525 courses in warp knitting
Correct Answer: (c)
View Solution

Question 74:

Which of the following governs the Run-in Ratio in warp knitting?

  • (a) Number and type of bars
  • (b) Underlap
  • (c) Overlap
  • (d) Types of Needles
Correct Answer: (a)
View Solution

Question 75:

The following has excellent elastic recovery

  • (a) Cotton
  • (b) Polyster
  • (c) Nylon
  • (d) Viscose
Correct Answer: (c)
View Solution

Question 76:

Use of scrambler roller in condenser card gives

  • (a) Random laid webs
  • (b) Cross laid webs
  • (c) Parallel laid webs
  • (d) Continuous laid webs
Correct Answer: (a)
View Solution

Question 77:

In needle punching, the DPN, ND and WW will influence
% DPN = Depth of Penetration of needles
% ND = Needle Density (needles per unit area of needle board)
% WW = Working Width (related to machine size, or could mean web width if it influences something) - or possibly needle stroke or frequency if it's not width.

  • (a) Fibre arrangement of the fabric
  • (b) Tenacity of the fabric
  • (c) Width of the fabric
  • (d) Thickness of the fabric
Correct Answer: (d)
View Solution

Question 78:

In Needle punching a Crown needle has ......... number of barbs

  • (a) 2
  • (b) 3
  • (c) 4
  • (d) 7
Correct Answer: (b)
View Solution

Question 79:

If carding machines are placed parallel to each other, the web doffed from the final card gives

  • (a) Longitudinal orientation
  • (b) Random orientation
  • (c) Cross - laid orientation
  • (d) Horizontal orientation
Correct Answer: (b)
View Solution

Question 80:

In a cross lapper, if draw off speed is V\(_A\) and laying speed is V\(_L\), then laying angle is given by
% Laying angle \(\alpha\).

  • (a) \(\cot \alpha = \frac{V_A}{V_L}\)
  • (b) \(\tan \alpha = \frac{V_A}{V_L}\)
  • (c) \(\cot \alpha = \frac{V_L}{V_A}\)
  • (d) \(\tan \alpha = \frac{V_L}{V_A}\)
Correct Answer: (d)
View Solution

Question 81:

Two x Two Rubia cloth needs
% "Two x Two Rubia" (2/2 Rubia) is a type of fabric, often cotton, known for its use in blouses or specific traditional wear. It implies a certain weave structure and finish.

  • (a) Singing
    (Singeing)
  • (b) Calendaring
  • (c) Mercerizing
  • (d) Polishing
Correct Answer: (a)
View Solution

Question 82:

The approximate lot size fed to a jet dyeing machine

  • (a) 50 -- 80 kg
  • (b) 60 -- 90 kg
  • (c) 120-- 140 kg
  • (d) exactly 100 kg
Correct Answer: (c)
View Solution

Question 83:

Wash bum equation is used in understanding
% "Wash bum" is likely a typo for "Washburn Equation".

  • (a) Dyeing theory
  • (b) Surface characteristics
  • (c) Washing
  • (d) Diffusion
Correct Answer: (c) % Given the options, "Washing" might be intended if "Washburn" relates to wetting/capillary flow relevant to washing.
View Solution

Question 84:

In long jets, the liquor to material ratio is
% "Long jets" likely refers to long-tube or older generation jet dyeing machines.

  • (a) 1:1.5
  • (b) 1:3
  • (c) 1:8
  • (d) 1:10
Correct Answer: (c)
View Solution

Question 85:

One bath dyeing of P/C blends calls for use of
% P/C blend = Polyester/Cotton blend.

  • (a) High temperature resistant reactive dyes
  • (b) High viscosity disperse dyes
  • (c) Low temperature disperse dyes
  • (d) Low viscosity reactive dyes
Correct Answer: (a)
View Solution

Question 86:

The capacity of a processing unit is normally judged by the number of

  • (a) Stenters
  • (b) Dyeing machines
  • (c) Printing machines
  • (d) Drumming machines
Correct Answer: (a)
View Solution

Question 87:

Surface modification of Polyester imparts

  • (a) Smoothness to Polyester
  • (b) Silky feeling to Polyester
    (option 2, the only one with text)
  • (c) Scroopiness to Polyester
  • (d) Shining to Polyester
Correct Answer: (b) % Image shows only option 2 with text, and it's marked correct.
View Solution

Question 88:

Feed forward and feed backward concept is observed in

  • (a) Winch dyeing machine
  • (b) Jet dyeing machine
  • (c) Jigger dyeing machine
  • (d) Pad- Batch dyeing machine
Correct Answer: (c)
View Solution

Question 89:

Quality of the fabric finished in stenter basically depends on

  • (a) GSM of the fabric being finished
  • (b) Speed of the stenter
  • (c) Temperature profiles of chambers
  • (d) % Over feed
Correct Answer: (d)
View Solution

Question 90:

The best dyeing uniformity is obtained on

  • (a) Winch dyeing machine
  • (b) Jet dyeing machine
  • (c) Jigger dyeing machine
  • (d) Pad- Batch dyeing machine
Correct Answer: (b)
View Solution

Question 91:

Tenacity is the term used for the strength of

  • (a) Fiber
  • (b) Yarn
  • (c) Fabric
  • (d) Cotton
Correct Answer: (a)
View Solution

Question 92:

In jet dyeing machine

  • (a) Both fabric and liquor will be moving
  • (b) Liquor stationary and fabric will be moving
  • (c) Fabric is stationary and liquor will be moving
  • (d) Fabric and liquor are stationary
Correct Answer: (a)
View Solution

Question 93:

Among the following circular cross section fibres, which absorbs more dyes in dyeing
% The premise "circular cross section fibres" is given, then options are shapes or properties. This is confusing.
% It likely means "Among fibers which *can have* circular cross-sections, or among fibers in general, which of these characteristics leads to absorbing more dye".
% Or "Among the following [listed fiber types/shapes], which absorbs more dye..." assuming they can be circular or are compared generally.

  • (a) Star shaped
  • (b) Trilobal shaped
  • (c) High tenacity
  • (d) Pentalobal shaped
Correct Answer: (b)
View Solution

Question 94:

In fabric folding machine, the type of motion of the folder is

  • (a) Eccentric
  • (b) Simple harmonic
  • (c) Reciprocatory
  • (d) Cycloid
Correct Answer: (c)
View Solution

Question 95:

Compared to grey fabric, heat set polyester fabric show

  • (a) High shear rigidity
  • (b) High density
  • (c) High bending rigidity
  • (d) Low density
Correct Answer: (b)
View Solution

Question 96:

The amount charged by customs, imposed on imports is called as

  • (a) Tariff
  • (b) Export duty
  • (c) Charges
  • (d) MFA
Correct Answer: (a)
View Solution

Question 97:

The process of buying of goods offshore, from other countries is

  • (a) Management of merchandising
  • (b) International sourcing
  • (c) In-house planning
  • (d) Production plan
Correct Answer: (b)
View Solution

Question 98:

The process of making patterns with the help of body measurements is called

  • (a) Drafting
  • (b) Draping
  • (c) Slash and spread
  • (d) Flat pattern making
Correct Answer: (a)
View Solution

Question 99:

Creating customized garment patterns by using muslin on dress form is called

  • (a) Wrapping
  • (b) Air pinning
  • (c) Draping
  • (d) Slash and overlap 
Correct Answer: (c)
View Solution

Question 100:

Mass produced garments use the following measurements

  • (a) Designer's own measurements
  • (b) Measurements of models
  • (c) Individual measurements
  • (d) Standard size chart
Correct Answer: (d)
View Solution

Question 101:

The economical way of planning the fabric layout is possible in garment industry with the help of

  • (a) Digitizer
  • (b) Marker
  • (c) Sloper
  • (d) Conveyor
Correct Answer: (b)
View Solution

Question 102:

Arrow mark on the pattern indicates

  • (a) Top stitching
  • (b) On fold
  • (c) Points of joining
  • (d) Grain
Correct Answer: (d)
View Solution

Question 103:

The objective of spreading is

  • (a) To check the grain of fabric
  • (b) To draw the patterns
  • (c) To check the fabric defects
  • (d) For easy bundling
Correct Answer: (a)
View Solution

Question 104:

Machine used for cutting straight lines in layout is
% "Layout" here refers to the fabric lay (stack of plies) with a marker on top.

  • (a) Straight knife
  • (b) Rotary knife
  • (c) Water jets
  • (d) Laser knife
Correct Answer: (a)
View Solution

Question 105:

The process of packing similar patterns after cutting in apparel industry is
% "similar patterns" means cut pieces of the same garment part and size.

  • (a) Packing
  • (b) Marking
  • (c) Tagging
  • (d) Bundling
Correct Answer: (d)
View Solution

Question 106:

Feed mechanism depends on the following part of sewing machine

  • (a) Shuttle
  • (b) Feed dog
  • (c) Fly wheel
  • (d) Tension guide
Correct Answer: (b)
View Solution

Question 107:

Joining two or more layers of fabric using lock stitch is called

  • (a) Seam
  • (b) Seam finish
  • (c) Hem stitching
  • (d) Stitching
Correct Answer: (a)
View Solution

Question 108:

Stitch number for ordinary running on lock stitch sewing machine is
% "Stitch number" often refers to Stitch Type Number from standards like ISO 4915 or Federal Standard 751a.

  • (a) 301
  • (b) 402
  • (c) 302
  • (d) 401
Correct Answer: (a)
View Solution

Question 109:

The process of joining the two layers of fabric using heat pressing in-order to retain the shape of the garment component is called

  • (a) Welding
  • (b) Fusing
  • (c) Reviting
    % (Riveting) (d) Molding
Correct Answer: (b)
View Solution

Question 110:

The process to remove unwanted creases in garment after laundry is

  • (a) Folding
  • (b) Molding
  • (c) Fusing
  • (d) Pressing
Correct Answer: (d)
View Solution

Question 111:

The common sewing thread is a

  • (a) Folded yarn
  • (b) Slub yarn
  • (c) Chenille yarn
  • (d) Seed yarn
Correct Answer: (a)
View Solution

Question 112:

Which one of the following is used as medium of laundering clothes in tumble wash?

  • (a) Water
  • (b) Petroleum solvent
  • (c) Ether
  • (d) Detergent
Correct Answer: (a)
View Solution

Question 113:

Care label "triangle" symbol indicates

  • (a) Bleaching
  • (b) Washing
  • (c) Dry cleaning
  • (d) Tumble wash
Correct Answer: (a)
View Solution

Question 114:

Which of the following is to be avoided for packaging eco-friendly garments?

  • (a) Clips \& pins
  • (b) Poly covers
  • (c) Paper covers
  • (d) Jute fabric tags 
Correct Answer: (b)
View Solution

Question 115:

The task of purchasing of raw materials used for garment production is associated with

  • (a) Consumer
  • (b) Merchandiser
  • (c) Retailer
  • (d) Wholesaler
Correct Answer: (b)
View Solution

Question 116:

The continuous process at every stage of garment production is

  • (a) Specification marking
  • (b) Ticket marking
  • (c) Size checking
  • (d) Quality checking
Correct Answer: (d)
View Solution

Question 117:

Credit purchase indicates the paying of money

  • (a) On delivery of goods
  • (b) At a later stage as specified
  • (c) Before receiving the goods
  • (d) At the time of placing order
Correct Answer: (b)
View Solution

Question 118:

The following stain removal, requires sunlight

  • (a) Blood
  • (b) Ink
  • (c) Turmeric
  • (d) Oil
Correct Answer: (c)
View Solution

Question 119:

Suction wash is used for the following fabrics

  • (a) Polyester shirts
  • (b) Woolen blankets
  • (c) Denim pants
  • (d) Cotton bed covers
Correct Answer: (b)
View Solution

Question 120:

Multi head sewing machine is commonly used for

  • (a) Button hole making
  • (b) Flat lock the seams
  • (c) Overlocking seams
  • (d) Embroidery
Correct Answer: (d)
View Solution