The UPCATET 2025 was conducted by CSAUAT Kanpur on June 12th for UG courses. The UPCATET question paper is available here with solutions PDF. The UPCATET 2025 question paper consists of 200 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) totaling 800 marks divided into 4 sections with 50 questions in each subject. UPCATET 2025 on June 12 was conducted from 9 AM to 12 PM.
UPCATET 2025 Question Paper with Solution PDF
Question 1:
De-Broglie wavelength of \(\alpha\) particle is the same as that of a proton moving with (1/10) of velocity as the speed of light. The ratio of K.E. of proton to that of \(\alpha\) particle is:
- (a) 2:1
- (b) 1:4
- (c) 4:3
- (d) 4:1
Question 2:
In hydrogen spectrum, the shortest wavelength in the Balmer series is \( \lambda \). The shortest wavelength in the Bracket series is:
- (a) \( 4 \lambda \)
- (b) \( 9 \lambda \)
- (c) \( 16 \lambda \)
- (d) \( 2 \lambda \)
Question 3:
Which property of light is used in an optical fiber?
- (a) Interference
- (b) Total internal reflection
- (c) Diffraction
- (d) Scattering
Question 4:
An intrinsic semiconductor is converted into n-type extrinsic semiconductor by doping it with:
- (a) Germanium
- (b) Phosphorus
- (c) Aluminium
- (d) Silver
Question 5:
A body of mass \( m = 3.513 \, kg \) is moving along the X-axis with a speed of \( 5.00 \, ms^{-1} \). The magnitude of its momentum is recorded as:
- (a) \( 17.6 \, kg ms^{-1} \)
- (b) \( 17.565 \, kg ms^{-1} \)
- (c) \( 17.56 \, kg ms^{-1} \)
- (d) \( 17.57 \, kg ms^{-1} \)
Question 6:
An object of mass \( 3 \, kg \) is at rest. Now a force of \( \vec{F} = 6t^2 \hat{i} + 4t \hat{j} \) is applied on the object. The velocity of the object at \( t = 3 \, s \) is:
- (a) \( 18 \hat{i} + 3 \hat{j} \)
- (b) \( 18 \hat{i} + 6 \hat{j} \)
- (c) \( 3 \hat{i} + 18 \hat{j} \)
- (d) \( 18 \hat{i} + 4 \hat{j} \)
Question 7:
A particle of mass \( m \) kg is suspended by a weightless string. The horizontal force that is required to displace it until the string makes an angle of \( 45^\circ \) with the initial vertical direction is:
- (a) \( \frac{mg}{\sqrt{2}} \)
- (b) \( mg (\sqrt{2} - 1) \)
- (c) \( mg \)
- (d) \( mg \sqrt{2} \)
Question 8:
AU measures:
- (A) Temperature
- (B) Distance
- (C) Weight
- (D) Time
Question 9:
T² vs l graph represents:
- (A) A parabola
- (B) A straight line passing through the origin
- (C) A hyperbola
- (D) A horizontal line
Question 10:
In the given circuit, the equivalent resistance between points A and D is:
- (A) \( 20 \, \Omega \)
- (B) \( 25 \, \Omega \)
- (C) \( 35 \, \Omega \)
- (D) \( 40 \, \Omega \)
Question 11:
If an 18 \(\Omega\) resistance wire is bent into the shape of an equilateral triangle, then the equivalent resistance across the ends of any side = ?
- (A) \( 2 \, \Omega \)
- (B) \( 4 \, \Omega \)
- (C) \( 6 \, \Omega \)
- (D) \( 12 \, \Omega \)
Question 12:
If the weight of an object is 200 Newtons, then the weight of the object at the midpoint between the Earth's surface and the Earth's center will be:
- (A) \( 50 \, N \)
- (B) \( 100 \, N \)
- (C) \( 150 \, N \)
- (D) \( 200 \, N \)
Question 13:
The given reaction is known as:
\[ PhCH_2CN + SnCl_2 + HCl \xrightarrow{H_3O^+} PhCH_2CH=NH \]
- (a) Rosenmund reaction
- (b) Stephen reaction
- (c) Etard reaction
- (d) Gatterman-Koch reaction
Question 14:
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Propene on treatment with diborane gives an addition product with the formula \( \left( (CH_3)_2 CH \right)_3 B \)
Statement II: Oxidation of \( \left( (CH_3)_2 CH \right)_3 B \) with Hydrogen peroxide in the presence of NaOH gives propan-2-ol
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
- (a) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
- (b) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
- (c) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
- (d) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Question 15:
Which of the following aldehydes does not form iodoform on heating with \(\mathrm{I_2}\) and alkali?
- (a) \(\mathrm{CH_3-C-CHO}\)
- (b) \(\mathrm{I-CH_2-CHO}\)
- (c) \(\mathrm{CH_3CH_2CHO}\)
- (d) \(\mathrm{CH_3-CH-CHO}\)
Question 16:
Statement (A): Alkyl halides are not soluble in water.
Statement (B): Alkyl halides do not form H-bonds with water molecules through alkyl halide, but they are polar in nature.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
- (a) Statement (A) is correct, B is incorrect
- (b) Statement (A) is incorrect, B is correct
- (c) Both are incorrect
- (d) Both statements are correct
Question 17:
Relation between rate constant and half-life for a first-order reaction is:
- (a) \( t_{1/2} = \frac{0.693}{K} \)
- (b) \( K = \frac{t_{1/2}}{0.693} \)
- (c) \( t_{1/2} = 0.693 + K \)
- (d) \( t_{1/2} = \frac{K}{0.693} \)
Question 18:
An element has two isotopes having atomic masses 10 and 15 u, respectively. If the percent abundance of lighter isotopes is 80%, then the average atomic mass of the element is:
- (a) \( 9 \, u \)
- (b) \( 11 \, u \)
- (c) \( 12 \, u \)
- (d) \( 14 \, u \)
Question 19:
If 0.01 mol of \(\mathrm{P_4O_{10}}\) is removed from 0.1 mol, then the remaining molecules of \(\mathrm{P_4O_{10}}\) will be:
- (a) \( 2.7 \times 10^{22} \)
- (b) \( 5.4 \times 10^{23} \)
- (c) \( 5.4 \times 10^{22} \)
- (d) \( 1.35 \times 10^{23} \)
Question 20:
If a radiation of energy \( 4.25 \, eV \) falls on a metal surface, then the maximum kinetic energy of ejected electrons will be (work function of metal is \( 2.25 \, eV \)).
- (a) \( 4.5 \times 10^{-16} \, J \)
- (b) \( 6.5 \times 10^{-19} \, J \)
- (c) \( 3.2 \times 10^{-19} \, J \)
- (d) \( 1.6 \times 10^{-19} \, J \)
Question 21:
Incorrect match of IUPAC symbol of elements with its respective atomic number is:
- (a) Sg – 106
- (b) Mt – 109
- (c) Bh – 105
- (d) Hs – 108
Question 22:
Polar molecule among the following is:
- (a) \(\mathrm{BF_3}\)
- (b) \(\mathrm{XeF_4}\)
- (c) \(\mathrm{CCl_4}\)
- (d) \(\mathrm{NH_3}\)
Question 23:
Minimum bond length is of:
- (a) \(\mathrm{O_2}\)
- (b) \(\mathrm{O_2^+}\)
- (c) \(\mathrm{O_2^-}\)
- (d) \(\mathrm{O_2^{2-}}\)
Question 24:
No work is done during free expansion of an ideal gas:
- (A) Only in reversible isothermal process
- (B) Only in irreversible isothermal process
- (C) Both in reversible and irreversible isothermal process
- (D) Only in reversible adiabatic process but not in irreversible adiabatic process
Question 25:
Hybridisation of \(\mathrm{Ni}\) in \(\left[\mathrm{Ni}(\mathrm{CN})_4\right]^{2-}\) is:
- (A) \( s p^3 \)
- (B) \( d s p^2 \)
- (C) \( s p \)
- (D) \( s p^3 d \)
Question 26:
Unit of \( K_C \) for equilibrium:
- (A) \( mol L^{-1} \)
- (B) \( L mol^{-1} \)
- (C) \( mol^2 L^{-2} \)
- (D) Dimensionless
Question 27:
Solubility of \(\mathrm{AgCl}\) in \(10^{-2} M \mathrm{NaCl}\) solution is (\( K_{sp_{\mathrm{AgCl}}} = 1.8 \times 10^{-10} \)):
- (A) \( 10^{-2} M \)
- (B) \( 1.8 \times 10^{-12} M \)
- (C) \( 1.8 \times 10^{-8} M \)
- (D) \( 1.8 \times 10^{-2} M \)
Question 28:
In the balanced redox reaction \(\mathrm{Cr}_2\mathrm{O}_7^{2-} + \mathrm{SO}_3^{2-} \longrightarrow \mathrm{Cr}^{3+} + \mathrm{SO}_4^{2-}\), the ratio of the number of \(\mathrm{Cr}_2\mathrm{O}_7^{2-}\) ions to \(\mathrm{SO}_4^{2-}\) ions is:
- (A) \( 1:1 \)
- (B) \( 1:2 \)
- (C) \( 1:3 \)
- (D) \( 2:3 \)
Question 29:
Oxidation number of hydrogen is (-1) in:
- (A) \(\mathrm{NaH}_2\mathrm{PO}_4\)
- (B) \(\mathrm{NaHSO}_4\)
- (C) \(\mathrm{NaBH}_4\)
- (D) \(\mathrm{H}_2\)
Question 30:
The group which shows \(-I\) and \(-R\) effect is:
- (A) \(-\mathrm{Cl}\)
- (B) \(-\mathrm{OR}\)
- (C) \(-\mathrm{NO}_2\)
- (D) \(-\mathrm{NHCOR}\)
Question 31:
Correct order of first ionisation energy of B, In, Ga, and Al is:
- (A) \(\mathrm{B} > \mathrm{Al} > \mathrm{Ga} > \mathrm{In}\)
- (B) \(\mathrm{B} > \mathrm{Ga} > \mathrm{Al} > \mathrm{In}\)
- (C) \(\mathrm{B} > \mathrm{In} > \mathrm{Ga} > \mathrm{Al}\)
- (D) \(\mathrm{Al} > \mathrm{B} > \mathrm{Ga} > \mathrm{In}\)
Question 32:
Which among the following is not an aromatic species:
- (A) Benzene
- (B) Cyclopentadienyl anion
- (C) Cyclobutadiene
- (D) Pyrrole
Question 33:
Benzene on reaction with benzoyl chloride in the presence of anhydrous \(\mathrm{AlCl}_3\) forms:
- (A) Acetophenone
- (B) Benzophenone
- (C) Phenyl benzoate
- (D) Benzoic anhydride
Question 34:
The emf of the cell \(\mathrm{Ni}_{(s)} \left| \mathrm{Ni}^{2+}(0.16 \, \mathrm{M}) \right| \mathrm{Ag}^{+}(0.002 \, \mathrm{M}) \left| \mathrm{Ag}_{(s)} \right.\) is (\(E^0_{cell} = 1.05 \, \mathrm{V}\)):
- (A) \(-0.91 \, \mathrm{V}\)
- (B) \(+0.46 \, \mathrm{V}\)
- (C) \(+0.91 \, \mathrm{V}\)
- (D) \(-0.75 \, \mathrm{V}\)
Question 35:
How many structural isomers does \(\mathrm{C}_7\mathrm{H}_{16}\) have:
Question 36:
Molecularity of a reaction can be:
- (A) Zero
- (B) \(-2\)
- (C) 1
- (D) 0.5
Question 37:
Cell constant is equal to:
- (A) Conductivity \(\times\) Resistance
- (B) Conductivity / Resistance
- (C) \(\frac{1}{A}\)
- (D) (A) and (C) both
Correct Answer: [None of the options are fully correct; closest is (A) with clarification]
View Solution
Question 38:
In which of the following elements the 6d orbital is vacant:
- (A) Lr
- (B) \(\mathrm{Cm}\)
- (C) \(\mathrm{Np}\)
- (D) \(\mathrm{Fm}\)
Question 39:
Optical isomerism is shown by:
- (A) \(\left[\mathrm{Co}\left(\mathrm{NH}_3\right)_5\left(\mathrm{NO}_2\right)\right]^{+}\)
- (B) \(\left[\mathrm{Co}(\mathrm{en})_3\right]^{3+}\)
- (C) \(\left[\mathrm{Co}\left(\mathrm{NH}_3\right)_4 \mathrm{Cl}_2\right]^{+}\)
- (D) \(\left[\mathrm{Co}\left(\mathrm{NH}_3\right)_3 \mathrm{Cl}_3\right]\)
Question 40:
For the same metal, same ligands, and metal-ligand distances, the correct relation is:
- (A) \(4 \Delta_t = 9 \Delta_o\)
- (B) \(2 \Delta_t = 7 \Delta_o\)
- (C) \(9 \Delta_t = 4 \Delta_o\)
- (D) \(3 \Delta_t = 5 \Delta_o\)
Correct Answer: [None match exactly; closest is (A) with standard relation]
View Solution
Question 41:
The coordination number and oxidation number of \(\mathrm{Cr}\) in \(\mathrm{K}\left[\mathrm{Cr}\left(\mathrm{H}_2\mathrm{O}\right)_2\left(\mathrm{C}_2\mathrm{O}_4\right)_2\right]\) are:
- (A) 4 and \(+3\)
- (B) 3 and \(+3\)
- (C) 6 and \(+2\)
- (D) 6 and \(+3\)
Question 42:
Electrophile used in Kolbe’s reaction is:
- (A) Carbondioxide
- (B) Dichlorocarbene
- (C) Carbommonoxide
- (D) Acyl carbocation
Question 43:
Schiff’s base is formed by the reaction of aldehyde with:
- (A) Ammonia
- (B) Amines
- (C) Hydrazine
- (D) Phenyl hydrazine
Question 44:
Denaturation of alcohol is done by the help of:
- (1) \(\mathrm{CuSO_4}\) + Pyridine
- (2) \(\mathrm{H_2SO_4}\)
- (3) \(\mathrm{ZnSO_4}\)
- (4) \(\mathrm{HCl}\)
Question 45:
The compound which does not react with ammonical silver nitrate solution is:
- (A) 2-methyl propanal
- (B) 2-methyl cyclopentanone
- (C) 3-methyl benzaldehyde
- (D) Methanoic acid
Question 46:
When benzene diazonium chloride is treated with ethanol, the product obtained is:
- (A) Aniline
- (B) Phenetole
- (C) Benzene
- (D) p-Chloro phenol
Question 47:
The amine which is most basic in gas phase is:
- (A) \(\mathrm{CH}_3\mathrm{NH}_2\)
- (B) \(\mathrm{NH}_3\)
- (C) \(\left(\mathrm{CH}_3\right)_2\mathrm{NH}\)
- (D) \(\left(\mathrm{CH}_3\right)_3\mathrm{N}\)
Question 48:
Which among the following is fibrous protein:
- (A) Keratin
- (B) Insulin
- (C) Myosin
- (D) Both (A) and (C)
Question 49:
Which of the following amines will give most easily \(\mathrm{N}_2\) gas on treatment with \(\mathrm{NaNO}_2 + \mathrm{HCl}\) at 275 K:
- (A) \(\mathrm{C}_2\mathrm{H}_5\mathrm{NH}_2\)
- (B) \(\mathrm{C}_6\mathrm{H}_5\mathrm{NHCH}_3\)
- (C) \(\mathrm{C}_6\mathrm{H}_5\mathrm{NH}_2\)
- (D) \(\left(\mathrm{CH}_3\right)_3\mathrm{N}\)
Question 50:
Which of the following is a double salt:
- (A) \(\mathrm{KCl} \cdot \mathrm{MgCl}_2 \cdot 6\mathrm{H}_2\mathrm{O}\)
- (B) \(\mathrm{FeSO}_4 \cdot \left(\mathrm{NH}_4\right)_2\mathrm{SO}_4 \cdot 6\mathrm{H}_2\mathrm{O}\)
- (C) \(\mathrm{KAl}\left(\mathrm{SO}_4\right)_2 \cdot 12\mathrm{H}_2\mathrm{O}\)
- (D) All of above
Question 51:
Which of the following fluid has \(\mathrm{pH} < 7\):
- (A) Egg white
- (B) Sea water
- (C) Human blood
- (D) Human saliva
Question 52:
Ratio of time required for 99% completion vs 90% completion of a first order reaction is:
- (a) \(\frac{99}{90}\)
- (b) 2
- (c) \(\frac{10}{9}\)
- (d) 1
UPCATET 2025 Exam Pattern
| Component |
Details |
| Mode of Exam |
Offline (Pen and Paper-based Test) |
| Duration |
3 Hours (180 Minutes) |
| Total Questions |
200 MCQs |
| Total Marks |
800 Marks |
| Marking Scheme |
+3 for each correct answer, -1 for each incorrect answer |
| Section-wise Distribution |
- Agriculture – 50
- Physics – 50
- Chemistry – 50
- Mathematics/Biology – 50
|
| Question Type |
Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) |
| Language of Paper |
English/Hindi |
UPCATET 2025 Exam Hall Tips
Comments