VITEEE 2006 Question Paper is available for download here. VITEEE 2006 Question Paper includes 40 questions from Mathematics/Biology, 35 questions from Physics, 35 questions from Chemistry, 5 questions from English, 10 questions from Aptitude to be attempted in 150 minutes. Candidates can download the VITEEE 2006 Question Paper with Solution PDF using the link below.

VITEEE 2006 Question Paper with Solution PDF

VITEEE 2006 Question Paper with Solution PDF Download PDF Check Solution

Question 1:

A potential difference of 300 V is applied to a combination of 2.0µF and 8.0µF capacitors connected in series. The charge on the 2.0µF capacitor is:

  • (A) \( 2.4 \times 10^{-4} \) C
  • (B) \( 4.8 \times 10^{-4} \) C
  • (C) \( 7.2 \times 10^{-4} \) C
  • (D) \( 9.6 \times 10^{-4} \) C

Question 2:

Two point charges \( +4 \mu C \) and \( -2 \mu C \) are separated by a distance of 1 m. Then, the distance of the point on the line joining the charges, where the resultant electric field is zero, is (in metre):

  • (A) 0.58
  • (B) 0.75
  • (C) 0.67
  • (D) 0.81

Question 3:

Figure shows a triangular array of three point charges. The electric potential \( V \) of these source charges at the midpoint \( P \) of the base of the triangle is:

  • (A) 55 kV
  • (B) 63 kV
  • (C) 45 kV
  • (D) 48 kV

Question 4:

A current of 5A is passing through a metallic wire of cross-sectional area \( 4 \times 10^{-6} \, m^2 \). If the density of the charge carriers in the wire is \( 5 \times 10^{22} \, m^{-3} \), the drift speed of the electrons will be:

  • (A) \( 1.56 \times 10^{-3} \, m/s \)
  • (B) \( 1.89 \times 10^{-3} \, m/s \)
  • (C) \( 2.42 \times 10^{-3} \, m/s \)
  • (D) \( 2.84 \times 10^{-3} \, m/s \)

Question 5:

The series combination of two capacitors shown in the figure is connected across 1000V. The magnitude of the charges on the capacitors will be:

  • (A) \( 3 \times 10^{-9} \) C
  • (B) \( 2 \times 10^{-9} \) C
  • (C) \( 5 \times 10^{-9} \) C
  • (D) \( 3.5 \times 10^{-9} \) C

Question 6:

Three resistances of values 2Ω, 3Ω, and 6Ω are to be connected to produce an effective resistance of 4Ω. This can be done by connecting:

  • (A) 6Ω in series with the parallel combination of 2Ω and 3Ω
  • (B) 3Ω in series with the parallel combination of 2Ω and 6Ω
  • (C) 2Ω resistance in series with the parallel combination of 3Ω and 6Ω
  • (D) 20Ω resistance in parallel with the parallel combination of 3Ω and 6Ω

Question 7:

The resistance of a field cold measures 50Ω at 20°C and 53Ω at 70°C. The temperature coefficient of resistance is:

  • (A) \( 0.0086 \, °C^{-1} \)
  • (B) \( 0.0087 \, °C^{-1} \)
  • (C) \( 0.0067 \, °C^{-1} \)
  • (D) \( 0.0099 \, °C^{-1} \)

Question 8:

The electrolyte used in Leclanché cell is:

  • (A) Copper sulphate solution
  • (B) Ammonium chloride solution
  • (C) Zinc sulphate
  • (D) Sodium chloride

Question 9:

A galvanometer has a resistance of 50Ω. If a resistance of 12Ω is connected across its terminals, the total current flow through the galvanometer is:

  • (A) 3A
  • (B) 1A
  • (C) 2A
  • (D) 0.5A

Question 10:

In a tangent galvanometer, a current of 1A is required to produce a deflection of 60° is:

  • (A) 3A
  • (B) 2A
  • (C) 1A
  • (D) 4A

Question 11:

In the presence of magnetic field \( B \) and electric field \( E \), the total force on a moving charged particle is:

  • (A) \( F = q(E + v \times B) \)
  • (B) \( F = q(E + vB) \)
  • (C) \( F = q(E + v \times B) + E \)
  • (D) \( F = q(E + v \times B) \)

Question 12:

A circular coil of radius 40 cm consists of 250 turns of wire in which the current is 20mA. The magnetic field in the center of the coil is:

  • (A) \( 5.25 \times 10^{-5} \) T
  • (B) \( 2.50 \times 10^{-5} \) T
  • (C) \( 7.85 \times 10^{-5} \) T
  • (D) \( 6.20 \times 10^{-5} \) T

Question 13:

The RMS value of AC is:

  • (A) \( 0.707 \times Peak value \)
  • (B) \( 1.414 \times Peak value \)
  • (C) \( 0.5 \times Peak value \)
  • (D) \( 1 \times Peak value \)

Question 14:

The LCR circuit becomes extremely sharp in resonance when:

  • (A) \( R \) is large
  • (B) \( L \) is large
  • (C) \( C \) is large
  • (D) \( R \) is small

Question 15:

In the case of a current carrying coil, the induced EMF is maximum when the coil's plane is:

  • (A) Parallel to the magnetic field
  • (B) Perpendicular to the magnetic field
  • (C) At an angle of 45°
  • (D) At an angle of 90°

Question 16:

The frequency of AC supply is determined by the:

  • (A) Inductive reactance
  • (B) Capacitive reactance
  • (C) Resistive reactance
  • (D) Both inductive and capacitive reactance

Question 17:

Our eyes respond to wavelengths ranging from:

  • (A) 400 nm to 700 nm
  • (B) 700 nm to 800 nm
  • (C) 300 nm to 800 nm
  • (D) 400 nm to 800 nm

Question 18:

A ray of light strikes a piece of glass at an angle of incidence of 60° and the reflected beam is completely plane polarised. The refractive index of glass is:

  • (A) \( \sqrt{2} \)
  • (B) \( \sqrt{3} \)
  • (C) \( \sqrt{5} \)
  • (D) \( \sqrt{3} \)

Question 19:

In an experiment on Newton's rings, the diameter of the 20th dark ring was found to be 5.82mm and that of the 10th dark ring was 3.16mm. The wavelength of light used is:

  • (A) 5646Å
  • (B) 8969Å
  • (C) 5406Å
  • (D) 5900Å

Question 20:

The refractive index of a material is 1.5. The angle of incidence for which the angle of refraction is 30° is:

  • (A) 45°
  • (B) 60°
  • (C) 30°
  • (D) 15°

Question 21:

In the angular momentum equation for the hydrogen atom, the principal quantum number is:

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4

Question 22:

The transition of an electron from \( n = 5 \) to \( n = 6 \) corresponds to:

  • (A) Paschen series
  • (B) Lyman series
  • (C) Balmer series
  • (D) Brackett series

Question 23:

The wavelength of a spectral line in the second order of the hydrogen spectrum is 2.82 Å. The wavelength of the spectral line in the first order is:

  • (A) 5.64 Å
  • (B) 8.64 Å
  • (C) 10.82 Å
  • (D) 4.82 Å

Question 24:

The inductance of an inductor becomes equal to capacitance when:

  • (A) Impedance is purely real
  • (B) Impedance is purely imaginary
  • (C) The resonance condition is satisfied
  • (D) None of the above

Question 25:

Which is the incorrect statement of the following?

  • (A) Photon is a particle with zero rest mass
  • (B) Photon is a particle with zero momentum
  • (C) Photons travel with velocity of light in vacuum
  • (D) Photons even feel the pull of gravity

Question 26:

The de Broglie wavelength associated with a steel ball of mass 100 g moving at a speed of 1 m/s is:

  • (A) \( 6.62 \times 10^{-34} \) m
  • (B) \( 6.62 \times 10^{-37} \) m
  • (C) \( 6.62 \times 10^{-39} \) m
  • (D) \( 6.62 \times 10^{-30} \) m

Question 27:

The velocity, \( v \), at which the mass of a particle is double its rest mass is:

  • (A) \( v = c \)
  • (B) \( v = \sqrt{3} c \)
  • (C) \( v = \sqrt{2} c \)
  • (D) \( v = 2c \)

Question 28:

How much energy is produced, if 2 kg of a substance is fully converted into energy?

  • (A) \( 3 \times 10^{15} \) J
  • (B) \( 1.5 \times 10^{16} \) J
  • (C) \( 3 \times 10^{16} \) J
  • (D) \( 1.5 \times 10^{14} \) J

Question 29:

The difference between the rest mass of the nucleus and the sum of the masses of the nucleons composing a nucleus is known as:

  • (A) Binding energy
  • (B) Mass defect
  • (C) Nuclear energy
  • (D) Isotopic mass

Question 30:

The half-life period of Radium is 3 minutes. Its decay constant is:

  • (A) \( 1.5 \, minute^{-1} \)
  • (B) \( 0.693 \, minute^{-1} \)
  • (C) \( 0.231 \, minute^{-1} \)
  • (D) \( 0.5 \, minute^{-1} \)

Question 31:

'Pair production' involves conversion of a photon into:

  • (A) A neutron-electron pair
  • (B) A positron-electron pair
  • (C) A neutron-proton pair
  • (D) A proton-electron pair

Question 32:

The neutrino has mass and neutron fall under the group of:

  • (A) Mesons
  • (B) Photons
  • (C) Leptons
  • (D) Baryons

Question 33:

When the conductivity of a semiconductor is due only to the breaking up of the covalent bonds, the semiconductor is known as:

  • (A) Donor
  • (B) Extrinsic
  • (C) Intrinsic
  • (D) Acceptor

Question 34:

In a P-type semiconductor, the acceptor impurity is:

  • (A) Just above the valence band
  • (B) Just below the conduction band
  • (C) Just above the conduction band
  • (D) Just below the valence band

Question 35:

An amplifier with proper negative feedback network circuits:

  • (A) Converts alternating current into direct current
  • (B) An amplifier with no feedback network
  • (C) Converts direct current into alternating current
  • (D) An amplifier with proper positive feedback network circuits

Question 36:

Which of the following gates can perform perfect binary addition?

  • (A) AND gate
  • (B) OR gate
  • (C) NAND gate
  • (D) XOR gate

Question 37:

An FM transmitter without signal input is called:

  • (A) Modulation
  • (B) Frequency deviation
  • (C) Frequency modulation
  • (D) None of the above

Question 38:

The frequency of an FM transmitter without signal input is:

  • (A) The frequency of operation
  • (B) The carrier frequency
  • (C) The modulated frequency
  • (D) None of the above

Question 39:

Vidicon works on the principle of:

  • (A) Electrical conductivity
  • (B) Photoconductivity
  • (C) Thermal conductivity
  • (D) SONAR

Question 40:

The maximum range, \( d_{max} \), of radar is:

  • (A) Proportional to the cube root of the peak transmitted power
  • (B) Proportional to the fourth root of the peak transmitted power
  • (C) Proportional to the square root of the peak transmitted power
  • (D) Not related to the peak transmitted power at all

Question 41:

The equivalent weight of potassium permanganate when it acts as oxidizing agent in ferrous ion estimation is:

  • (A) 158
  • (B) 31.6
  • (C) 79
  • (D) 39.5

Question 42:

The magnetic moment of lanthanide ions is determined from which one of the following relation?

  • (A) \( \mu = \sqrt{n(n+1)} \)
  • (B) \( \mu = g \sqrt{J(J+1)} \)
  • (C) \( \mu = g \sqrt{n(n+1)} \)
  • (D) \( \mu = 2 \sqrt{J(J+1)} \)

Question 43:

Which one of the following has maximum number of unpaired electrons?

  • (A) \( Mg^{2+} \)
  • (B) \( Fe^{3+} \)
  • (C) \( Ti^{3+} \)
  • (D) \( F^{-} \)

Question 44:

Excess of NaOH reacts with Zn to form:

  • (A) \( ZnOH_2 \)
  • (B) \( NaZnOH_3 \)
  • (C) \( ZnO_2 \)
  • (D) \( Zn(OH)_2 \)

Question 45:

How many isomers does \( Co(C_6H_6)_3 \) have?

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4

Question 46:

NH\(_3\), group in a coordination compound is named as:

  • (A) Ammine
  • (B) Ammonia
  • (C) Ammonium
  • (D) Ammonium ion

Question 47:

Name the complex Ni(\(PF_6\))\(_2\):

  • (A) Tetra(Phosphorus (III) fluoride) nickel
  • (B) Tetra(phosphorus (III) fluoride) nickel
  • (C) Tetra(phosphorus (III) fluoride) nickel (III)
  • (D) None of the above

Question 48:

The purple colour of KMnO\(_4\) is due to:

  • (A) Charge transfer
  • (B) d-d transition
  • (C) f-f transition
  • (D) d-f transition

Question 49:

How many lattice points belong to a face-centered cubic unit cell?

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 8

Question 50:

Schottky defect in solids is due to:

  • (A) A pair of cation and anion vacancies
  • (B) Occupation of interstitial site by a pair of cation and anion
  • (C) Occupation of interstitial site by a cation
  • (D) Occupation of interstitial site by an anion

Question 51:

Which one of the following is amorphous?

  • (A) Polystyrene
  • (B) Table salt
  • (C) Silica
  • (D) Diamond

Question 52:

The metal that crystallizes in simple cubic system is:

  • (A) Po
  • (B) Na
  • (C) Cu
  • (D) Ag

Question 53:

When ideal gas expands in vacuum, the work done by the gas is equal to:

  • (A) \( pV \)
  • (B) \( RT \)
  • (C) 0
  • (D) \( nRT \)

Question 54:

For a closed system consisting of a reaction, N\(_2\)O\(_4\) \( (g) \) \( \rightleftharpoons \) 2NO\(_2\) \( (g) \), the pressure:

  • (A) Remains constant
  • (B) Decreases
  • (C) Increases
  • (D) Becomes zero

Question 55:

6 moles of an ideal gas expand isothermally and reversibly from a volume of 1 litre to a volume of 10 liters at 27°C. What is the maximum work done?

  • (A) 47 kJ
  • (B) 100 kJ
  • (C) 63 kJ
  • (D) 34.465 kJ

Question 56:

The reaction, Zn(s) + CuSO\(_4\)(aq) \( \rightleftharpoons \) ZnSO\(_4\)(aq) + Cu(s) is an example of a:

  • (A) Spontaneous process
  • (B) Isobaric process
  • (C) Non-spontaneous process
  • (D) Reversible process

Question 57:

For the reaction, H\(_2\)(g) + I\(_2\)(g) \( \rightleftharpoons \) 2HI(g), \( K_p \) = 0, what happens if the pressure on ice is increased at a constant temperature?

  • (A) Water to vaporize
  • (B) Water to freeze
  • (C) Increases
  • (D) No change

Question 58:

The order of the reaction: N\(_2\)O\(_4\)(g) \( \rightleftharpoons \) 2NO\(_2\)(g) is:

  • (A) 3
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 1
  • (D) 0

Question 59:

The order of the reaction N\(_2\)O\(_3\) \( \rightleftharpoons \) N\(_2\)O\(_4\) is:

  • (A) 3
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 1
  • (D) 0

Question 60:

The reactions with low activation energy are always:

  • (A) Adiabatic
  • (B) Slow
  • (C) Non-spontaneous
  • (D) Fast

Question 61:

For a cell reaction to be spontaneous, the standard free energy change of the reaction must be:

  • (A) Zero
  • (B) Positive
  • (C) Infinite
  • (D) Negative

Question 62:

Equivalent conductance of an electrolyte containing NaF at infinite dilution is 90.1 Ohm\(^{-1}\) cm\(^{2}\). If NaF is replaced by KF, what is the value of equivalent conductance?

  • (A) 90.1 Ohm\(^{-1}\) cm\(^{2}\)
  • (B) 111.2 Ohm\(^{-1}\) cm\(^{2}\)
  • (C) 90.1 Ohm\(^{-1}\) cm\(^{2}\)
  • (D) 222.4 Ohm\(^{-1}\) cm\(^{2}\)

Question 63:

The tendencies of the electrodes made up of Cu, Zn and Ag to release electrons when dipped in their respective salt solutions decrease in the order:

  • (A) Zn \( \rightarrow \) Ag \( \rightarrow \) Cu
  • (B) Cu \( \rightarrow \) Zn \( \rightarrow \) Ag
  • (C) Ag \( \rightarrow \) Cu \( \rightarrow \) Zn
  • (D) Ag \( \rightarrow \) Cu \( \rightarrow \) Zn

Question 64:

The electrode reaction that takes place at the anode of CH\(_3\)OH - O\(_2\) fuel cell is:

  • (A) 2O\(_2\) + 8H\(^+\) + 8e\(^-\) \( \rightarrow \) 4H\(_2\)O
  • (B) CH\(_3\)OH \( \rightarrow \) CO\(_2\) + 8H\(^+\) + 8e\(^-\)
  • (C) CH\(_3\)OH \( \rightarrow \) CO\(_2\) + H\(_2\)O
  • (D) CO\(_2\) \( \rightarrow \) CO

Question 65:

What is the hybridization of the oxygen atom in an alcohol molecule?

  • (A) sp\(^3\)
  • (B) sp
  • (C) sp\(^2\)
  • (D) p\(^2\)

Question 66:

R–OH + LiAlH\(_4\) \( \rightarrow \) ?

  • (A) RCH\(_2\)OH
  • (B) RCHO
  • (C) RCOR
  • (D) RCH\(_2\)OH

Question 67:

Which one of the following is correct?

  • (A) RCH\(_2\)OH + KMnO\(_4\) \( \rightarrow \) No reaction
  • (B) CH\(_3\)CH\(_2\)OH + Na\(_2\)Cr\(_2\)O\(_7\), H\(_2\)SO\(_4\) \( \rightarrow \) No reaction
  • (C) CH\(_3\)CHO + Na\(_2\)Cr\(_2\)O\(_7\), H\(_2\)SO\(_4\) \( \rightarrow \) No reaction
  • (D) CH\(_3\)CHO + alkaline KMnO\(_4\) \( \rightarrow \) No reaction

Question 68:

Which one of the following products is obtained when diethyl ether is boiled with water in the presence of dilute acid?

  • (A) Glycol
  • (B) Ethyl alcohol
  • (C) Ethylene oxide
  • (D) Peroxide

Question 69:

Identify the product for the following reaction:


Question 70:

What is the reaction of acetaldehyde with concentrated sulphuric acid?

  • (A) No reaction
  • (B) Decomposition
  • (C) Charred to black residue
  • (D) Polymerisation

Question 71:

Calcium Acetate on heating under distillation gives:

  • (A) Acetaldehyde and Calcium Oxide
  • (B) Calcium Carbonate and Acetic acid
  • (C) Acetone and Calcium Carbonate
  • (D) Calcium Oxide and CO\(_2\)

Question 72:

Identify the correct statement.

  • (A) Aldehydes on reduction give secondary alcohols
  • (B) Ketones on reduction give primary alcohols
  • (C) Ketones reduce Fehling’s solution and give red cuprous oxide
  • (D) Ketones do not react with alcohols

Question 73:

The O–H stretching vibration of alcohols absorbs in the region 3700–3500 cm\(^{-1}\). The O–H stretching of carboxylic acids absorbs in the region:

  • (A) 3090–3700 cm\(^{-1}\)
  • (B) 3000–2500 cm\(^{-1}\)
  • (C) 3700–3500 cm\(^{-1}\)
  • (D) 1700–2000 cm\(^{-1}\)

Question 74:

Which among the following reduces Fehling’s solution?

  • (A) Acetic acid
  • (B) Formic acid
  • (C) Benzoic acid
  • (D) Salicylic acid

Question 75:

Determine the experimental condition for the following reaction:

  • (A) In presence of KOH
  • (B) On heating
  • (C) In presence of NaOH
  • (D) In presence of HCl

Question 76:

Which one of the following is an ingredient of Phthalic acid manufacture by catalytic oxidation?

  • (A) Benzene
  • (B) Salicylic acid
  • (C) Anthranilic acid
  • (D) Naphthalene

Question 77:

On comparison with H–C–H bond angle of methane, the C–N–C bond angle of trimethylamine is:

  • (A) Higher
  • (B) No change
  • (C) Not comparable
  • (D) Lower

Question 78:

The transition of acylazide (RCON\(_3\)) with acidic or alkaline medium gives:

  • (A) RCONH\(_2\)
  • (B) R–NH\(_2\)
  • (C) RCOCH\(_3\)
  • (D) RCOOH

Question 79:

The sequence of basic strength of alkyl amines follows the order:

  • (A) RNH\(_2\) > R\(_2\)NH > R\(_3\)N
  • (B) RNH\(_2\) > R\(_3\)N > R\(_2\)NH
  • (C) R\(_2\)NH > RNH\(_2\) > R\(_3\)N
  • (D) R\(_3\)N > RNH\(_2\) > R\(_2\)NH

Question 80:

Activation of benzene ring in aniline can be decreased by treating with:

  • (A) Dil. HCl
  • (B) Ethyl alcohol
  • (C) Acetic acid
  • (D) Acetyl chloride

Question 81:

The value of \( x \), for which the matrix \( A \) is singular, is:
\[ A = \begin{pmatrix} 2 & x & -1 & 2
1 & x & 2x^2
1 & \frac{1}{x} & 2 \end{pmatrix} \]

  • (A) \( \pm 1 \)
  • (B) \( \pm 2 \)
  • (C) \( \pm 3 \)
  • (D) \( \pm 4 \)

Question 82:

If \( x = -9 \) is a root of \( \begin{pmatrix} 2 & 3
7 & 6 \end{pmatrix} \times \begin{pmatrix} x \end{pmatrix} = 0 \), then other two roots are:

  • (A) 3, 7
  • (B) 2, 7
  • (C) 3, 6
  • (D) 2, 6

Question 83:

The values of \( \alpha \) for which the system of equation \( x + y + z = 1 \), \( x + 2y + 4z = \alpha \), \( x + 4y + 10z = \alpha^2 \) is consistent are given by:

  • (A) 1, -2
  • (B) 1, 2
  • (C) 1, -2
  • (D) 1, 2

Question 84:

Let \( A = \begin{pmatrix} 1 & 3 & 2
4 & 2 & 5
7 & -t & -6 \end{pmatrix} \), then the values of \( t \) for which inverse of \( A \) does not exist are:

  • (A) 2, 1
  • (B) 3, 2
  • (C) 2, -1
  • (D) 3, 1

Question 85:

The non-integer roots of \( x^4 - 3x^3 - 2x^2 + 3x + 1 = 0 \) are:

  • (A) \( \frac{1}{3} \pm \sqrt{3} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{3}{4} \pm \sqrt{3} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{1}{3} \pm \sqrt{5} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{1}{2} \pm \sqrt{5} \)

Question 86:

If \( e^x = y + \sqrt{1 + y^2} \), then the value of y is:

  • (A) \( \frac{1}{2}(e^x - e^{-x}) \)
  • (B) \( \frac{1}{2}(e^x + e^{-x}) \)
  • (C) \( e^x - e^{-x} \)
  • (D) \( e^x + e^{-x} \)

Question 87:

Consider an infinite geometric series with the first term and common ratio. If its sum is 4 and the second term is \( \frac{3}{4} \), then:

  • (A) \( a = \frac{4}{7}, r = \frac{3}{8} \)
  • (B) \( a = 3, r = \frac{1}{8} \)
  • (C) \( a = \frac{3}{4}, r = \frac{1}{2} \)
  • (D) \( a = \frac{7}{4}, r = \frac{3}{4} \)

Question 88:

If \( \alpha \) and \( \beta \) are the roots of the equation \( ax^2 + bx + c = 0 \), then the value of \( \alpha^3 + \beta^3 \) is:

  • (A) \( 3ab + b^3 \)
  • (B) \( \frac{a^3 + b^3}{a^3} \)
  • (C) \( 3ab + b^3 \)
  • (D) \( \frac{3ab + b^3}{a^3} \)

Question 89:

The volume of the tetrahedron with vertices \( P(1, 2, 0), Q(2, 1, -3), R(1, 0, 1) \), and \( S(3, -2, 3) \) is:

  • (A) \( 1 \)
  • (B) \( \frac{2}{3} \)
  • (C) \( 2 \)
  • (D) \( \frac{4}{3} \)

Question 90:

If \( \mathbf{a} = i + 2j + 3k \), \( \mathbf{b} = i + 2j + k \), and \( \mathbf{c} = 3i + j \), then \( \mathbf{a} + \mathbf{b} \) is at right angle to \( \mathbf{c} \), then \( a + b \) and \( t \) are equal to:

  • (A) 4
  • (B) 6
  • (C) 2
  • (D) 3

Question 91:

An equation of the plane passing through the line of intersection of the planes \( x + y + z = 6 \) and \( 2x + 3y + 4z = 5 \), and passing through \( (1, 1, 1) \) is:

  • (A) \( x + y + z = 6 \)
  • (B) \( x + y + z = 3 \)
  • (C) \( 3x + 2y + z = 1 \)
  • (D) \( x + y + z = 0 \)

Question 92:

The length of the shortest distance between the lines \( \mathbf{r} = 3i + 5j + 7k + \lambda(2i - 2j + 3k) \) and \( \mathbf{r} = -i - j + k + \mu(7i - 6j + k) \) is:

  • (A) \( 83 \, units \)
  • (B) \( \sqrt{6} \, units \)
  • (C) \( \sqrt{3} \, units \)
  • (D) \( \sqrt{29} \, units \)

Question 93:

The region of the Argand plane defined by \( |z - 1| + |z + 1| \leq 4 \) is:

  • (A) Interior of an ellipse
  • (B) Exterior of a circle
  • (C) Interior and boundary of an ellipse
  • (D) Interior of a parabola

Question 94:

The value of the sum \( \sum_{n=1}^{13} (i^n + i^{n+1}) \), where \( i = \sqrt{-1} \), equals:

  • (A) \( i \)
  • (B) \( i - 1 \)
  • (C) \( -i \)
  • (D) \( 0 \)

Question 95:

If \( \sin \theta, \cos \theta, \tan \theta \) are in G.P., then \( \cos^2 \theta + \cos \theta + 3 \cos \theta - 1 \) is equal to:

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 0
  • (C) \( -1 \)
  • (D) \( 0 \)

Question 96:

In a triangle ABC, \( 5 \cos C + 6 \cos B = 4 \) and \( 6 \cos A + 4 \cos C = 5 \), then:

  • (A) \( \frac{3}{2} \)
  • (B) \( 1 \)
  • (C) \( \frac{3}{4} \)
  • (D) \( 5 \)

Question 97:

In a model, it is shown that an arc of a bridge is semielliptical with major axis horizontal. If the length of the base is 9m and the highest part of the bridge is 3m from horizontal, the best approximation of the height of the arch, 2m from the center of the base is:

  • (A) 11 m
  • (B) 8 m
  • (C) 7 m
  • (D) 2 m

Question 98:

The number of real tangents through \( (3, 5) \) that can be drawn to the ellipses \( 3x^2 + 5y^2 = 32 \) and \( 25x^2 + 9y^2 = 450 \) is:

  • (A) 0
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4

Question 99:

If the normal to the rectangular hyperbola \( xy = c^2 \) at the point \( (ct, c/t) \) meets the curve again at \( (ct', c/t') \), then:

  • (A) \( t' + t = 1 \)
  • (B) \( t' = -t \)
  • (C) \( t' = t - 1 \)
  • (D) \( t' = 1 \)

Question 100:

An equilateral triangle is inscribed in the parabola \( y^2 = 4ax \), one of whose vertices is at the vertex of the parabola, the length of each side of the triangle is:

  • (A) \( \sqrt{5} \)
  • (B) \( \sqrt{6} \)
  • (C) \( \sqrt{3} \)
  • (D) \( 8 \sqrt{3} \)

Question 101:

If \( f(2) = 4 \) and \( f'(2) = 1 \), then \[ \lim_{x \to 2} \frac{x f(2) - 2f(x)}{x - 2} is equal to: \]

  • (A) 0
  • (B) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
  • (C) 1
  • (D) 2

Question 102:

What is the least value of \( k \) such that the function \( x^2 + kx + 1 \) is strictly increasing on \( (1, 2) \)?

  • (A) 1
  • (B) -1
  • (C) 2
  • (D) -2

Question 103:

The maximum value of \( \left| \frac{1}{x} \right| \) is:

  • (A) \( c \)
  • (B) \( e^c \)
  • (C) \( \frac{1}{e} \)
  • (D) \( e \)

Question 104:

If \( u = \tan^{-1} \left( \frac{x^3 + y^2}{x + y} \right) \), then \( \frac{\partial u}{\partial x} + \frac{\partial u}{\partial y} \) is:

  • (A) \( \sin 2u \)
  • (B) \( \cos 2u \)
  • (C) \( \sec^2 2u \)
  • (D) \( \tan 2u \)

Question 105:

If \( f'(x) = \frac{x}{\sqrt{1 + x^2}} \) and \( f(0) = 0 \), then \( f(x) = \):

  • (A) \( \frac{2}{3}(1 + x^2)^{\frac{3}{2}} - 6(1 + x^2)^{1/2} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{2}{3}(1 + x^2)^{\frac{5}{2}} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{2}{3}(1 + x^2)^{\frac{3}{2}} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{2}{3}(1 + x^2)^{\frac{1}{2}} \)

Question 106:

The value of the integral \( \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \log (\tan x) \, dx \) is:

  • (A) 0
  • (B) \( \pi \)
  • (C) \( \frac{\pi}{4} \)
  • (D) 1

Question 107:

What is the area of a loop of the curve \( r = a \sin 30^\circ \)?

  • (A) \( \frac{\pi a^2}{6} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{\pi a^2}{8} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{\pi a^2}{12} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{\pi a^2}{24} \)

Question 108:

The value of the integral \( \int_1^4 \sqrt{t} \, dt \) is:

  • (A) \( a^3 \)
  • (B) \( 4e^3 \)
  • (C) \( 4e^2 \)
  • (D) \( 4 \sqrt{2} \)

Question 109:

The differential equation that represents all parabolas each of which has a latus rectum \( 4a \) and whose axes are parallel to the x-axis is:

  • (A) \( \frac{d^2y}{dx^2} + \frac{dy}{dx} = 0 \)
  • (B) \( \frac{d^2y}{dx^2} + \frac{dy}{dx} = 3 \)
  • (C) \( \frac{d^2y}{dx^2} + \frac{dy}{dx} = 1 \)
  • (D) \( \frac{d^2y}{dx^2} = 0 \)

Question 110:

The solution of \( x \sec \left( \frac{x}{y} \right) - y \, dx + x \, dy = 0 \) is:

  • (A) \( \log |k| - \cos \left( \frac{x}{y} \right) = c \)
  • (B) \( \log |k| - \cos \left( \frac{x}{y} \right) = c \)
  • (C) \( \log |k| - \sin \left( \frac{x}{y} \right) = c \)
  • (D) \( \log |k| - \sin \left( \frac{x}{y} \right) = c \)

Question 111:

The particular integral of \( \frac{d^2 y}{dx^2} + 2y = x^2 \) is:

  • (A) \( x^2 - 1 \)
  • (B) \( x^2 + 1 \)
  • (C) \( \frac{1}{2} (x^2 + 1) \)
  • (D) \( \frac{1}{2} (x^2 + 1) \)

Question 112:

The solution of \( D^2 + 16y = \cos 4x \) is:

  • (A) \( A \cos 4x + B \sin 4x \)
  • (B) \( A \cos 4x + B \sin 4x + \frac{x}{8} \sin 4x \)
  • (C) \( A \cos 4x + B \sin 4x + \frac{x}{4} \sin 4x \)
  • (D) \( A \cos 4x + B \sin 4x + \frac{x}{4} \sin 4x \)

Question 113:

Determine which one of the following relations on \( X = \{1, 2, 3, 4\} \) is not transitive.

  • (A) \( R = R^2 \), the empty relation
  • (B) \( R = X \times X \), the universal relation
  • (C) \( R = \{(1, 1), (2, 2)\} \)
  • (D) \( R = \{(1, 2), (2, 3), (3, 4)\} \)

Question 114:

Find the number of ways in which five large books, four medium-size books, and three small books can be placed on a shelf so that all books of the same size are together.

  • (A) \( 5! \times 4! \times 3! \)
  • (B) \( 6! \times 3! \)
  • (C) \( 3! \times 4! \)
  • (D) \( 5! \times 4! \times 2! \)

Question 115:

Consider the set \( Q \) of rational numbers. Let \( * \) be the operation \( a * b = a + b - ab \). The identity element under \( * \) is:

  • (A) 0
  • (B) 1
  • (C) 2
  • (D) 3

Question 116:

The statement \( p \to q \) is equivalent to:

  • (A) \( p \to q \)
  • (B) \( p \to \neg q \)
  • (C) \( \neg p \to q \)
  • (D) \( p \to \neg q \)

Question 117:

In rolling two fair dice, what is the probability of obtaining a sum greater than 3 but not exceeding 6?

  • (A) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{1}{3} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{1}{4} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{1}{6} \)

Question 118:

Team A has probability \( \frac{2}{3} \) of winning whenever it plays. Suppose A plays four games. What is the probability that A wins more than half of its games?

  • (A) \( \frac{16}{27} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{19}{81} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{32}{81} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{27}{81} \)

Question 119:

An unprepared student takes five questions of true-false type quiz and guesses every answer. What is the probability that the student will pass the quiz if at least four correct answers is the passing grade?

  • (A) \( \frac{1}{16} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{3}{16} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{1}{32} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{3}{32} \)

Question 120:

The probability density \( f(x) \) of a continuous random variable is given by \( f(x) = K e^{-|x|} \) for \( -\infty < x < \infty \). Then the value of \( K \) is:

  • (A) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 1
  • (D) 4