VITEEE 2008 Question Paper is available for download here. VITEEE 2008 Question Paper includes 40 questions from Mathematics/Biology, 35 questions from Physics, 35 questions from Chemistry, 5 questions from English, 10 questions from Aptitude to be attempted in 150 minutes. Candidates can download the VITEEE 2008 Question Paper with Solution PDF using the link below.

VITEEE 2008 Question Paper with Solution PDF

VITEEE 2008 Question Paper with Solution PDF Download PDF Check Solution

Question 1:

Two beams of light will not give rise to an interference pattern, if

  • (A) they are coherent
  • (B) they have the same wavelength
  • (C) they are linearly polarized perpendicular to each other
  • (D) they are not monochromatic

Question 2:

A slit of width `a' is illuminated with a monochromatic light of wavelength \(\lambda\) from a distant source and the diffraction pattern is observed on a screen placed at a distance `D' from the slit. To increase the width of the central maximum one should

  • (A) decrease \(D\)
  • (B) decrease \(a\)
  • (C) decrease \(\lambda\)
  • (D) the width cannot be changed

Question 3:

A thin film of soap solution (\(n = 1.4\)) lies on the top of a glass plate (\(n = 1.5\)). When visible light is incident almost normal to the plate, two adjacent reflection maxima are observed at two wavelengths 420 nm and 630 nm. The minimum thickness of the soap solution is

  • (A) 420 nm
  • (B) 450 nm
  • (C) 630 nm
  • (D) 1260 nm

Question 4:

If the speed of a wave doubles as it passes from shallow water into deeper water, its wavelength will be

  • (A) unchanged
  • (B) halved
  • (C) doubled
  • (D) quadrupled

Question 5:

A light whose frequency is equal to \(6 \times 10^{14}\) Hz is incident on a metal whose work function is 2 eV. The maximum energy of the electrons emitted will be

  • (A) 2.49 eV
  • (B) 4.49 eV
  • (C) 0.49 eV
  • (D) 5.49 eV

Question 6:

An electron microscope is used to probe the atomic arrangements to a resolution of 5 AA. What should be the electric potential to which the electrons need to be accelerated?

  • (A) 2.5 V
  • (B) 5 V
  • (C) 2.5 kV
  • (D) 5 kV

Question 7:

Which phenomenon best supports the theory that matter has a wave nature?

  • (A) Electron momentum
  • (B) Electron diffraction
  • (C) Photon momentum
  • (D) Photon diffraction

Question 8:

The radioactivity of a certain material drops to \(\frac{1}{16}\) of the initial value in 2 hours. The half-life of this radionuclide is

  • (A) 10 min
  • (B) 20 min
  • (C) 30 min
  • (D) 40 min

Question 9:

An observer 'A' sees an asteroid with a radioactive element moving away at a speed \(0.3c\) and measures the radioactive decay time to be \(T_A\). Another observer 'B' is moving with the asteroid and measures its decay time as \(T_B\). Then \(T_A\) and \(T_B\) are related as

  • (A) \(T_B > T_A\)
  • (B) \(T_B = T_A\)
  • (C) \(T_B < T_A\)
  • (D) Either (A) or (C) depending on whether the asteroid is approaching or moving away from A

Question 10:

\(^{234}\)U has 92 protons and 234 nucleons total in its nucleus. It decays by emitting an alpha particle. After the decay it becomes

  • (A) \(^{232}\)U
  • (B) \(^{232}\)Pa
  • (C) \(^{230}\)Th
  • (D) \(^{230}\)Ra

Question 11:

The \(K_{\alpha}\) and \(K_{\beta}\) X-rays are emitted when there is a transition of electron between the levels

  • (A) \(n = 2 \to n = 1\) and \(n = 3 \to n = 1\) respectively
  • (B) \(n = 2 \to n = 1\) and \(n = 3 \to n = 2\) respectively
  • (C) \(n = 3 \to n = 2\) and \(n = 4 \to n = 3\) respectively
  • (D) \(n = 3 \to n = 2\) and \(n = 4 \to n = 3\) respectively

Question 12:

A certain radioactive material \(_x^AX\) starts emitting \(\alpha\) and \(\beta\) particles successively such that the end product is \(_{Z-3}^{A-8}\)A. The number of \(\alpha\) and \(\beta\) particles emitted are respectively

  • (A) 4 and 3 respectively
  • (B) 2 and 1 respectively
  • (C) 3 and 4 respectively
  • (D) 3 and 8 respectively

Question 13:

In the circuit shown above, an input of 1V is fed into the inverting input of an ideal Op-amp A. The output signal \(V_{out}\) will be

  • (A) +10V
  • (B) -10V
  • (C) 0V
  • (D) infinity

Question 14:

When a solid with a band gap has a donor level just below its empty energy band, the solid is

  • (A) an insulator
  • (B) a conductor
  • (C) a p-type semiconductor
  • (D) an n-type semiconductor

Question 15:

A p--n junction has acceptor impurity concentration of \(10^{17}\,cm^{-3}\) in the p-side and donor impurity concentration of \(10^{16}\,cm^{-3}\) in the n-side. What is the contact potential at the junction (\(T=\) thermal energy, intrinsic semiconductor concentration \(n_i = 1.4\times 10^{10}\,cm^{-3}\)) ?

  • (A) \((kT/e)\ln(4\times 10^{12})\)
  • (B) \((kT/e)\ln(2.5\times 10^{23})\)
  • (C) \((kT/e)\ln(10^{23})\)
  • (D) \((kT/e)\ln(10^{9})\)

Question 16:

A Zener diode has a contact potential of 1V in the absence of biasing. It undergoes Zener breakdown for an electric field of \(10^6\) V/m at the depletion region of p--n junction. If the width of the depletion region is \(2.5\,\mu m\), what should be the reverse biased potential for the Zener breakdown to occur?

  • (A) 3.5 V
  • (B) 1.5 V
  • (C) 2.5 V
  • (D) 0.5 V

Question 17:

In Colpitt oscillator the feedback network consists of

  • (A) two inductors and a capacitor
  • (B) two capacitors and an inductor
  • (C) three pairs of RC circuit
  • (D) three pairs of RL circuit

Question 18:

The reverse saturation current of p--n diode

  • (A) depends on doping concentrations
  • (B) depends on diffusion lengths of carriers
  • (C) depends on the doping concentrations and diffusion lengths
  • (D) depends on the doping concentrations, diffusion length and device temperature

Question 19:

A radio station has two channels. One is AM at 1020 kHz and the other is FM at 89.5 MHz. For good results you will use

  • (A) longer antenna for the AM channel and shorter for the FM
  • (B) shorter antenna for the AM channel and longer for the FM
  • (C) same length antenna will work for both
  • (D) information given is not enough to say which one to use for which

Question 20:

The communication using optical fibers is based on the principle of

  • (A) total internal reflection
  • (B) Brewster angle
  • (C) polarization
  • (D) resonance

Question 21:

In nature, the electric charge of any system is always equal to

  • (A) half integral multiple of the least amount of charge
  • (B) zero
  • (C) square of the least amount of charge
  • (D) integral multiple of the least amount of charge

Question 22:

The energy stored in the capacitor as shown in Fig. (a) is \(4.5\times 10^{-6}\) J. If the battery is replaced by another capacitor of 900 pF as shown in Fig. (b), then the total energy of system is

  • (A) \(4.5\times 10^{-6}\) J
  • (B) \(2.25\times 10^{-6}\) J
  • (C) zero
  • (D) \(9\times 10^{-6}\) J

Question 23:

Equal amounts of a metal are converted into cylindrical wires of different lengths (\(L\)) and cross-sectional area (\(A\)). The wire with the maximum resistance is the one, which has

  • (A) length = \(L\) and area = \(A\)
  • (B) length = \(\frac{L}{2}\) and area = \(2A\)
  • (C) length = \(2L\) and area = \(\frac{A}{2}\)
  • (D) all have the same resistance, as the amount of metal is the same

Question 24:

If the force exerted by an electric dipole on a charge \(q\) at a distance of 1 m is \(F\), the force at a point 2 m away in the same direction will be

  • (A) \(\frac{F}{2}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{F}{4}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{F}{6}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{F}{8}\)

Question 25:

A solid sphere of radius \(R_1\) and volume charge density \(\rho = \frac{\rho_0}{r}\) is enclosed by a hollow sphere of radius \(R_2\) with negative surface charge density \(\sigma\), such that the total charge in the system is zero. \(\rho_0\) is a positive constant and \(r\) is the distance from the centre of the sphere. The ratio \(\frac{R_2}{R_1}\) is

  • (A) \(\frac{\sigma}{\rho_0}\)
  • (B) \(\sqrt{\frac{2\sigma}{\rho_0}}\)
  • (C) \(\sqrt{\frac{\rho_0}{2\sigma}}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{\rho_0}{\sigma}\)

Question 26:

A solid spherical conductor of radius \(R\) has a spherical cavity of radius \(a\) (\(a < R\)) at its centre. A charge \(+Q\) is kept at the centre. The charge at the inner surface, outer surface and at a position \(r\) (\(a < r < R\)) are respectively

  • (A) \(+Q,-Q,0\)
  • (B) \(-Q,+Q,0\)
  • (C) \(0,-Q,0\)
  • (D) \(+Q,0,Q\)

Question 27:

A cylindrical capacitor has charge \(Q\) and length \(L\). If both the charge and length of the capacitor are doubled, by keeping other parameters fixed, the energy stored in the capacitor

  • (A) remains same
  • (B) increases two times
  • (C) decreases two times
  • (D) increases four times

Question 28:

Three resistances of \(4\Omega\) each are connected as shown in figure. If the point D divides the resistance into two equal halves, the resistance between point A and D will be

  • (A) \(12\Omega\)
  • (B) \(6\Omega\)
  • (C) \(3\Omega\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{3}\Omega\)

Question 29:

The resistance of a metal increases with increasing temperature because

  • (A) the collisions of the conducting electrons with the electrons increase
  • (B) the collisions of the conducting electrons with the lattice consisting of the ions of the metal increase
  • (C) the number of conduction electrons decreases
  • (D) the number of conduction electrons increases

Question 30:

In the absence of applied potential, the electric current flowing through a metallic wire is zero because

  • (A) the electrons remain stationary
  • (B) the electrons are drifted in random direction with a speed of the order of \(10^{-2}\) cm/s
  • (C) the electrons move in random direction with a speed of the order close to that of velocity of light
  • (D) electrons and ions move in opposite direction

Question 31:

A meter bridge is used to determine the resistance of an unknown wire by measuring the balance point length \(l\). If the wire is replaced by another wire of same material but double the length and half the thickness, the balancing point is expected to be

  • (A) \(\frac{l}{8}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{l}{4}\)
  • (C) \(16l\)
  • (D) \(8l\)

Question 32:

Identify the INCORRECT statement regarding a superconducting wire

  • (A) transport current flows through its surface
  • (B) transport current flows through the entire area of cross-section of the wire
  • (C) it exhibits zero electrical resistivity and expels applied magnetic field
  • (D) it is used to produce large magnetic field

Question 33:

A sample of HCl gas is placed in an electric field \(3\times 10^{4}\,NC^{-1}\). The dipole moment of each HCl molecule is \(6\times 10^{-30}\,Cm\). The maximum torque that can act on a molecule is

  • (A) \(2\times 10^{-34}C^{2}Nm^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(2\times 10^{-34}Nm\)
  • (C) \(18\times 10^{-26}Nm\)
  • (D) \(0.5\times 10^{4}C^{2}Nm^{-1}\)

Question 34:

When a metallic plate swings between the poles of a magnet

  • (A) no effect on the plate
  • (B) eddy currents are set up inside the plate and the direction of the current is along the motion of the plate
  • (C) eddy currents are set up inside the plate and the direction of the current oppose the motion of the plate
  • (D) eddy currents are set up inside the plate

Question 35:

When an electrical appliance is switched on, it responds almost immediately, because

  • (A) the electrons in the connecting wires move with the speed of light
  • (B) the electrical signal is carried by electromagnetic waves moving with the speed of light
  • (C) the electrons move with the speed which is close to but less than speed of light
  • (D) the electrons are stagnant

Question 36:

Two identical incandescent light bulbs are connected as shown in the figure. When the circuit is an AC voltage source of frequency \(f\), which of the following observations will be correct?

  • (A) both bulbs will glow alternatively
  • (B) both bulbs will glow with same brightness provided frequency \(f = \frac{1}{2\pi\sqrt{LC}}\)
  • (C) bulb \(b_1\) will light up initially and goes off, bulb \(b_2\) will be ON constantly
  • (D) bulb \(b_1\) will blink and bulb \(b_2\) will be ON constantly

Question 37:

A transformer rated at 10 kW is used to connect a 5 kV transmission line to a 240 V circuit. The ratio of turns in the windings of the transformer is

  • (A) 5
  • (B) 20.8
  • (C) 104
  • (D) 40

Question 38:

Three solenoid coils of same dimension, same number of turns and same number of layers of winding are taken. Coil 1 with inductance \(L_1\) was wound using an A m wire of resistance \(11\Omega/m\); Coil 2 with inductance \(L_2\) was wound using similar wire but the direction of winding was reversed in each layer; Coil 3 with inductance \(L_3\) was wound using a superconducting wire. The self inductance of coils \(L_1, L_2, L_3\) are

  • (A) \(L_1 = L_2 = L_3\)
  • (B) \(L_1 = L_2;\, L_3 = 0\)
  • (C) \(L_1 = L_3;\, L_2 = 0\)
  • (D) \(L_1 > L_2 > L_3\)

Question 39:

Light travels with a speed of \(2\times 10^{8}\,m/s\) in crown glass of refractive index 1.5. What is the speed of light in 1.8?

  • (A) \(1.33\times 10^{8}\,m/s\)
  • (B) \(1.67\times 10^{8}\,m/s\)
  • (C) \(2.0\times 10^{8}\,m/s\)
  • (D) \(3.0\times 10^{8}\,m/s\)

Question 40:

A parallel beam of fast moving electrons is incident normally on a narrow slit. A screen is placed at a large distance from the slit. If the speed of the electrons is increased, which of the following statement is correct?

  • (A) diffraction pattern is not observed on the screen in the case of electrons
  • (B) the angular width of the central maximum of the diffraction pattern will increase
  • (C) the angular width of the central maximum will decrease
  • (D) the angular width of the central maximum will remain the same

Question 41:

CH\(_3\)CH\(_3\) + HNO\(_3\) \(\xrightarrow{675\,K}\)

  • (A) CH\(_3\)CH\(_2\)NO\(_2\)
  • (B) CH\(_3\)CH\(_2\)NO\(_2\) + CH\(_3\)NO\(_2\)
  • (C) 2CH\(_3\)NO\(_2\)
  • (D) CH\(_2\)=CH\(_2\)

Question 42:

When acetamide is hydrolysed by boiling with acid, the product obtained is

  • (A) acetic acid
  • (B) ethyl amine
  • (C) ethanol
  • (D) acetamide

Question 43:

Which will not go for diazotization?


Question 44:

Secondary nitroalkanes can be converted into ketones by using Y. Identify Y from following

  • (A) Aqueous HCl
  • (B) Aqueous NaOH
  • (C) KMnO\(_4\)
  • (D) CO

Question 45:

Alkyl cyanides undergo Stephen reduction to produce

  • (A) aldehyde
  • (B) secondary amine
  • (C) primary amine
  • (D) amide

Question 46:

The continuous phase contains the dispersed phase throughout, Example is

  • (A) Water in milk
  • (B) Fat in milk
  • (C) Water droplets in mist
  • (D) Oil in water

Question 47:

The number of hydrogen atoms present in 25.6 g of sucrose (C\(_{12}\)H\(_{22}\)O\(_{11}\)) which has a molar mass of 342.3 g is

  • (A) \(22 \times 10^{23}\)
  • (B) \(9.91 \times 10^{23}\)
  • (C) \(11 \times 10^{23}\)
  • (D) \(44 \times 10^{23}\)

Question 48:

Milk changes after digestion into:

  • (A) cellulose
  • (B) fructose
  • (C) glucose
  • (D) lactose

Question 49:

Which of the following sets consists only of essential amino acids?

  • (A) Alanine, tyrosine, cystine
  • (B) Leucine, lysine, tryptophan
  • (C) Alanine, glutamine, lysine
  • (D) Leucine, proline, glycine

Question 50:

Which of the following is ketohexose ?

  • (A) Glucose
  • (B) Sucrose
  • (C) Fructose
  • (D) Ribose

Question 51:

The oxidation number of oxygen in KO\(_3\), Na\(_2\)O\(_2\) is

  • (A) 3, 2
  • (B) 1, 0
  • (C) 0, 1
  • (D) -0.33, -1

Question 52:

Reaction of PCl\(_3\) and PhMgBr would give

  • (A) bromobenzene
  • (B) chlorobenzene
  • (C) triphenylphosphine
  • (D) dichlorobenzene

Question 53:

Which of the following is not a characteristic of transition elements ?

  • (A) Variable oxidation states
  • (B) Formation of coloured compounds
  • (C) Formation of interstitial compounds
  • (D) Natural radioactivity

Question 54:

Cl--P--Cl bond angles in PCl\(_5\) molecule are

  • (A) \(120^\circ\) and \(90^\circ\)
  • (B) \(60^\circ\) and \(90^\circ\)
  • (C) \(60^\circ\) and \(120^\circ\)
  • (D) \(120^\circ\) and \(30^\circ\)

Question 55:

The magnetic moment of a salt containing Zn\(^{2+}\) ion is

  • (A) 0
  • (B) 1.87
  • (C) 5.92
  • (D) 2

Question 56:

The number of formula units of calcium fluoride CaF\(_2\) present in 146.4 g of CaF\(_2\) are (molar mass of CaF\(_2\) is 78.08 g/mol)

  • (A) \(1.129\times 10^{24}\) CaF\(_2\)
  • (B) \(1.146\times 10^{24}\) CaF\(_2\)
  • (C) \(7.808\times 10^{24}\) CaF\(_2\)
  • (D) \(1.877\times 10^{24}\) CaF\(_2\)

Question 57:

The IUPAC name of the given compound \([Co(NH_3)_5Cl]Cl_2\) is

  • (A) pentaamino cobalt chloride chlorate
  • (B) cobalt pentaamine chloro chloride
  • (C) pentaamine chloro cobalt(III) chloride
  • (D) pentaamino cobalt(III) chlorate

Question 58:

When SCN\(^{-}\) is added to an aqueous solution containing Fe(NO\(_3\))\(_3\), the complex produced is

  • (A) \([Fe(H_2O)_2(SCN^-) ]^{2+}\)
  • (B) \([Fe(H_2O)_5(SCN^-) ]^{2+}\)
  • (C) \([Fe(H_2O)_8(SCN^-) ]^{2+}\)
  • (D) \([Fe(H_2O)(SCN^-) ]^{6+}\)

Question 59:

Hair dyes contain

  • (A) copper nitrate
  • (B) gold chloride
  • (C) silver nitrate
  • (D) copper sulphate

Question 60:

Schottky defects occurs mainly in electrovalent compounds where

  • (A) positive ions and negative ions are of different size
  • (B) positive ions and negative ions are of same size
  • (C) positive ions are small and negative ions are big
  • (D) positive ions are big and negative ions are small

Question 61:

The number of unpaired electrons calculated in \(\{Co(NH_3)_6\}^{3+}\) and \(\{CoF_6\}^{3-}\) are

  • (A) 4 and 4
  • (B) 0 and 2
  • (C) 2 and 4
  • (D) 0 and 4

Question 62:

The standard free energy change of a reaction is \(\Delta G^\circ = -115\) kJ at 298 K. Calculate equilibrium constant \(K_p\) in \(\log K_p\). (R = 8.314 J k\(^{-1}\) mol\(^{-1}\))

  • (A) 20.16
  • (B) 2.303
  • (C) 2.016
  • (D) 13.83

Question 63:

If an endothermic reaction occurs spontaneously at constant temperature \(T\) and pressure \(P\), then which of the following is true?

  • (A) \(\Delta G > 0\)
  • (B) \(\Delta H < 0\)
  • (C) \(\Delta S > 0\)
  • (D) \(\Delta S < 0\)

Question 64:

If a plot of \(\log C_0\) versus \(t\) gives a straight line for a given reaction, then the reaction is

  • (A) zero order
  • (B) first order
  • (C) second order
  • (D) third order

Question 65:

A spontaneous process is one in which the system suffers :

  • (A) no energy change
  • (B) a lowering of free energy
  • (C) a lowering of entropy
  • (D) an increase in internal energy

Question 66:

The half life period of a first order reaction is 1 min 40 sec. Calculate its rate constant.

  • (A) \(6.93\times 10^{-3}\) min\(^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(6.93\times 10^{-3}\) sec\(^{-1}\)
  • (C) \(6.93\times 10^{-3}\) sec
  • (D) \(6.93\times 10^{-3}\) min

Question 67:

The molar conductivities of KCl, NaCl and KNO\(_3\) are 152, 128 and 111 S cm\(^2\) mol\(^{-1}\) respectively. What is the molar conductivity of NaNO\(_3\)?

  • (A) 101 S cm\(^2\) mol\(^{-1}\)
  • (B) 87 S cm\(^2\) mol\(^{-1}\)
  • (C) -101 S cm\(^2\) mol\(^{-1}\)
  • (D) -391 S cm\(^2\) mol\(^{-1}\)

Question 68:

The electrochemical cell stops working after sometime because :

  • (A) electrode potential of both the electrodes becomes zero
  • (B) electrode potential of both the electrodes becomes equal
  • (C) one of the electrodes is eaten away
  • (D) the cell reaction gets reversed

Question 69:

The amount of electricity required to produce one mole of copper from copper sulphate solution will be

  • (A) 1 Faraday
  • (B) 2.33 Faraday
  • (C) 2 Faraday
  • (D) 1.33 Faraday

Question 70:

Dipping iron article into a strongly alkaline solution of sodium phosphate

  • (A) does not affect the article
  • (B) forms Fe\(_2\)O\(_3\cdot xH_2O\) on the surface
  • (C) forms iron phosphate film
  • (D) forms ferric hydroxide

Question 71:

Hydroboration oxidation of 4-methyl-octene would give

  • (A) 4-methyl octanol
  • (B) 2-methyl decane
  • (C) 4-methyl heptanol
  • (D) 4-methyl-2-octanone

Question 72:

When ethyl alcohol is heated with conc. H\(_2\)SO\(_4\), product obtained is

  • (A) CH\(_3\)COOC\(_2\)H\(_5\)
  • (B) C\(_2\)H\(_2\)
  • (C) C\(_2\)H\(_6\)
  • (D) C\(_2\)H\(_4\)

Question 73:

Anisole is the product obtained from phenol by the reaction known as

  • (A) coupling
  • (B) etherification
  • (C) oxidation
  • (D) esterification

Question 74:

Ethylene glycol gives oxalic acid on oxidation with

  • (A) acidified K\(_2\)Cr\(_2\)O\(_7\)
  • (B) acidified KMnO\(_4\)
  • (C) alkaline KMnO\(_4\)
  • (D) periodic acid

Question 75:

Diamond is hard because

  • (A) all the four valence electrons are bonded to each carbon atoms by covalent bonds
  • (B) it is a giant molecule
  • (C) it is made up of carbon atoms
  • (D) it cannot be burnt

Question 76:

A wittig reaction with an aldehyde gives

  • (A) ketone compound
  • (B) a long chain fatty acid
  • (C) olefin compound
  • (D) epoxide

Question 77:

Cannizzaro reaction is given by

  • (A) HCHO
  • (B) CH\(_3\)COCH\(_3\)
  • (C) CH\(_3\)CHO
  • (D) CH\(_3\)CH\(_2\)OH

Question 78:

Identify the reactant

  • (A) H\(_2\)O
  • (B) HCHO
  • (C) CO
  • (D) CH\(_3\)CHO

Question 79:

Maleic acid and Fumaric acid are

  • (A) Position Isomers
  • (B) Geometric Isomers
  • (C) Enantiomers
  • (D) Functional Isomers

Question 80:

The gas evolved on heating alkali formate with soda-lime is

  • (A) CO
  • (B) CO\(_2\)
  • (C) Hydrogen
  • (D) water vapor

Question 81:

If \(\vec{a},\vec{b},\vec{c}\) be three unit vectors such that \(\vec{a}\times(\vec{b}\times\vec{c})=\frac{1}{2}\vec{b}\), \(\vec{b}\) and \(\vec{c}\) being non-parallel. If \(\theta_1\) is the angle between \(\vec{a}\) and \(\vec{b}\) and \(\theta_2\) is the angle between \(\vec{a}\) and \(\vec{c}\), then

  • (A) \(\theta_1=\frac{\pi}{6},\theta_2=\frac{\pi}{3}\)
  • (B) \(\theta_1=\frac{\pi}{3},\theta_2=\frac{\pi}{6}\)
  • (C) \(\theta_1=\frac{\pi}{2},\theta_2=\frac{\pi}{3}\)
  • (D) \(\theta_1=\frac{\pi}{2},\theta_2=\frac{\pi}{2}\)

Question 82:

The equation \(r^2 - 2\vec{r}\cdot\vec{c} + h = 0,\ |\vec{c}|>\sqrt{h}\), represents

  • (A) circle
  • (B) ellipse
  • (C) cone
  • (D) sphere

Question 83:

The simplified expression of \(\sin(\tan^{-1}x)\), for any real number \(x\) is given by

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{1+x^2}}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{x}{\sqrt{1+x^2}}\)
  • (C) \(-\frac{1}{\sqrt{1+x^2}}\)
  • (D) \(-\frac{x}{\sqrt{1+x^2}}\)

Question 84:

If \(\left|\frac{z-25}{z-1}\right|=5\), the value of \(|z|\)

  • (A) 3
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 5
  • (D) 6

Question 85:

Argument of the complex number \(\left(\frac{-1-3i}{2+i}\right)\) is

  • (A) \(45^\circ\)
  • (B) \(135^\circ\)
  • (C) \(225^\circ\)
  • (D) \(240^\circ\)

Question 86:

In a triangle ABC, the sides \(b\) and \(c\) are the roots of the equation \(x^2-61x+820=0\) and \(A=\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{4}{3}\right)\), then \(a^2\) is equal to

  • (A) 1098
  • (B) 1096
  • (C) 1097
  • (D) 1095

Question 87:

The shortest distance between the straight lines through the points \(A_1=(6,2,2)\) and \(A_2=(-4,0,-1)\), in the directions of \((1,-2,2)\) and \((3,-2,-2)\) is

  • (A) 6
  • (B) 8
  • (C) 12
  • (D) 9

Question 88:

The center and radius of the sphere \(x^2+y^2+z^2-3x-4z+1=0\) are

  • (A) \(\left(-\frac{3}{2},0,-2\right),\frac{\sqrt{21}}{2}\)
  • (B) \(\left(\frac{3}{2},0,2\right),\sqrt{21}\)
  • (C) \(\left(\frac{3}{2},0,2\right),\frac{\sqrt{21}}{2}\)
  • (D) \(\left(-\frac{3}{2},0,2\right),\frac{21}{2}\)

Question 89:

Let A and B are two fixed points in a plane then locus of another point C on the same plane then CA+CB = constant, \(>AB\) is

  • (A) circle
  • (B) ellipse
  • (C) parabola
  • (D) hyperbola

Question 90:

The directrix of the parabola \(y^2 + 4x + 3 = 0\) is

  • (A) \(x-\frac{4}{3}=0\)
  • (B) \(x+\frac{1}{4}=0\)
  • (C) \(x-\frac{3}{4}=0\)
  • (D) \(x-\frac{1}{4}=0\)

Question 91:

If \(g(x)\) is a polynomial satisfying \(g(x)g(y)=g(x)+g(y)+g(xy)-2\) for all real \(x\) and \(y\) and \(g(2)=5\), then \(\lim_{x\to 3} g(x)\) is

  • (A) 9
  • (B) 10
  • (C) 25
  • (D) 20

Question 92:

The value of \(f(0)\) so that \(\frac{-e^x+2^x}{x}\) may be continuous at \(x=0\) is

  • (A) \(\log\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)\)
  • (B) 0
  • (C) 4
  • (D) \(-1+\log 2\)

Question 93:

Let \([\,]\) denote the greatest integer function and \(f(x)=[\tan^2 x]\). Then

  • (A) \(\lim_{x\to 0} f(x)\) does not exist
  • (B) \(f(x)\) is continuous at \(x=0\)
  • (C) \(f(x)\) is not differentiable at \(x=0\)
  • (D) \(f(x)=1\)

Question 94:

A spherical balloon is expanding. If the radius is increasing at the rate of 2 centimeters per minute, the rate at which the volume increases (in cubic centimeters per minute) when the radius is 5 centimeters is

  • (A) \(10\pi\)
  • (B) \(100\pi\)
  • (C) \(200\pi\)
  • (D) \(50\pi\)

Question 95:

The length of the parabola \(y^2=12x\) cut off by the latus-rectum is

  • (A) \(6\left(\sqrt{2}+\log(1+\sqrt{2})\right)\)
  • (B) \(3\left(\sqrt{2}+\log(1+\sqrt{2})\right)\)
  • (C) \(6\left(\sqrt{2}-\log(1+\sqrt{2})\right)\)
  • (D) \(3\left(\sqrt{2}-\log(1+\sqrt{2})\right)\)

Question 96:

If \(I=\int \frac{x^5}{\sqrt{1+x^3}}\,dx\), then \(I\) is equal to

  • (A) \(\frac{2}{9}(1+x^3)^{\frac{5}{2}}+\frac{2}{3}(1+x^3)^{\frac{3}{2}}+C\)
  • (B) \(\log\left|\sqrt{x}+\sqrt{1+x^3}\right|+C\)
  • (C) \(\log\left|\sqrt{x}-\sqrt{1+x^3}\right|+C\)
  • (D) \(\frac{2}{9}(1+x^3)^{\frac{3}{2}}-\frac{2}{3}(1+x^3)^{\frac{1}{2}}+C\)

Question 97:

Area enclosed by the curve \(\pi\left[4(x-\sqrt{2})^2+y^2\right]=8\) is

  • (A) \(\pi\)
  • (B) 2
  • (C) \(3\pi\)
  • (D) 4

Question 98:

The value of \(\int_{0}^{a}\sqrt{\frac{a-x}{x}}\,dx\) is

  • (A) \(\frac{a}{2}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{a}{4}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\pi a}{2}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{\pi a}{4}\)

Question 99:

Let \(y\) be the number of people in a village at time \(t\). Assume that the rate of change of the population is proportional to the number of people in the village at any time and further assume that the population never increases in time. Then the population of the village at any fixed time \(t\) is given by

  • (A) \(y=ekt+c,\) for some constants \(c\le 0\) and \(k\ge 0\)
  • (B) \(y=cek^t,\) for some constants \(c\ge 0\) and \(k\le 0\)
  • (C) \(y=ect+k,\) for some constants \(c\le 0\) and \(k\ge 0\)
  • (D) \(y=ke^{ct},\) for some constants \(c\ge 0\) and \(k\le 0\)

Question 100:

The differential equation of all straight lines touching the circle \(x^2+y^2=a^2\) is

  • (A) \(\left(y-\frac{dy}{dx}\right)^2=a^2\left[1+\left(\frac{dy}{dx}\right)^2\right]\)
  • (B) \(\left(y-x\frac{dy}{dx}\right)^2=a^2\left[1+\left(\frac{dy}{dx}\right)^2\right]\)
  • (C) \(\left(y-x\frac{dy}{dx}\right)=a^2\left[1+\left(\frac{dy}{dx}\right)\right]\)
  • (D) \(\left(y-\frac{dy}{dx}\right)=a^2\left[1-\frac{dy}{dx}\right]\)

Question 101:

The differential equation \(\left|\frac{dy}{dx}\right|+|y|+3=0\) admits

  • (A) infinite number of solutions
  • (B) no solution
  • (C) a unique solution
  • (D) many solutions

Question 102:

Solution of the differential equation \(xdy-ydx-\sqrt{x^2+y^2}\,dx=0\) is

  • (A) \(y-\sqrt{x^2+y^2}=Cx^2\)
  • (B) \(y+\sqrt{x^2+y^2}=Cx^2\)
  • (C) \(x+\sqrt{x^2+y^2}=Cy^2\)
  • (D) \(x-\sqrt{x^2+y^2}=Cy^2\)

Question 103:

Let P, Q, R and S be statements and suppose that \(P\to Q \to R \to P\); if \(\sim S \to R\), then

  • (A) \(S \to \sim Q\)
  • (B) \(\sim Q \to S\)
  • (C) \(S \to \sim Q\)
  • (D) \(Q \to \sim S\)

Question 104:

In how many number of ways can 10 students be divided into three teams, one containing four students and the other three?

  • (A) 400
  • (B) 700
  • (C) 1050
  • (D) 2100

Question 105:

If \(R\) be a relation defined as \(aRb\) iff \(|a-b|>0\), then the relation is

  • (A) reflexive
  • (B) transitive
  • (C) symmetric and transitive
  • (D) symmetric

Question 106:

Let \(S\) be a finite set containing \(n\) elements. Then the total number of commutative binary operation on \(S\) is

  • (A) \(n^{\left[\frac{n(n+1)}{2}\right]}\)
  • (B) \(n^{\left[\frac{n(n-1)}{2}\right]}\)
  • (C) \((n^2)^n\)
  • (D) \(2^{(n^2)}\)

Question 107:

A manufacturer of cotter pins knows that 5% of his product is defective. He sells pins in boxes of 100 and guarantees that not more than one pin will be defective in a box. In order to find the probability that a box will fail to meet the guaranteed quality, the probability distribution he should use is

  • (A) Binomial
  • (B) Poisson
  • (C) Normal
  • (D) Exponential

Question 108:

The probability that a certain kind of component will survive a given shock test is \(\frac{3}{4}\). The probability that exactly 2 of the next 4 components tested survive is

  • (A) \(\frac{9}{41}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{25}{128}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{5}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{27}{128}\)

Question 109:

Mean and standard deviation of marks obtained in some particular subject by four classes are given below. Report the class with the best performance

  • (A) 80, 18
  • (B) 75, 5
  • (C) 80, 21
  • (D) 76, 7

Question 110:

A random variable \(X\) follows binomial distribution with mean \(\alpha\) and variance \(\beta\). Then

  • (A) \(0<\alpha<\beta\)
  • (B) \(0<\beta<\alpha\)
  • (C) \(\alpha < 0 < \beta\)
  • (D) \(\beta < 0 < \alpha\)

Question 111:

The system of equations
\[ x+y+z=0 \] \[ 2x+3y+z=0 \] \[ x+2y=0 \]
has

  • (A) a unique solution; \(x=0,y=0,z=0\)
  • (B) infinite solutions
  • (C) no solution
  • (D) finite number of non-zero solutions

Question 112:

If \(\begin{vmatrix} 0 & a^4
b & 0 \end{vmatrix}=1\), then

  • (A) \(a=1=2b\)
  • (B) \(a=b\)
  • (C) \(a=b^2\)
  • (D) \(ab=1\)

Question 113:

If \(D=diag(d_1,d_2,\ldots,d_n)\), where \(d_i\neq 0\), for \(i=1,2,\ldots,n\), then \(D^{-1}\) is equal to

  • (A) \(D^T\)
  • (B) \(D\)
  • (C) \(Adj(D)\)
  • (D) \(diag(d_1^{-1},d_2^{-1},\ldots,d_n^{-1})\)

Question 114:

If \(x,y,z\) are different from zero and
\[ \Delta= \begin{vmatrix} a & b-y & c-z
a-x & b & c-z
a-x & b-y & c \end{vmatrix}=0 \]
then the value of the expression \(\frac{a}{x}+\frac{b}{y}+\frac{c}{z}\) is

  • (A) 0
  • (B) -1
  • (C) 1
  • (D) 2

Question 115:

Probability of getting positive integral roots of the equation \(x^2-n=0\) for the integer \(n,\ 1\le n \le 40\) is

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{5}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{10}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{3}{20}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{20}\)

Question 116:

The number of real roots of the equation \(x^4+\sqrt{x^4+20}=22\) is

  • (A) 4
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 0
  • (D) 1

Question 117:

Let \(\alpha,\beta\) be the roots of the equation \(x^2-ax+b=0\) and \(A_n=\alpha^n+\beta^n\). Then \(A_{n+1}-aA_n+bA_{n-1}\) is equal to

  • (A) \(-a\)
  • (B) \(b\)
  • (C) 0
  • (D) \(a-b\)

Question 118:

If the sides of a right-angle triangle form an A.P., the `Sin' of the acute angles are

  • (A) \(\left(\frac{3}{5},\frac{4}{5}\right)\)
  • (B) \(\left(\sqrt{3},\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\right)\)
  • (C) \(\left(\sqrt{\frac{\sqrt5-1}{2}},\sqrt{\frac{\sqrt5-1}{2}}\right)\)
  • (D) \(\left(\sqrt{\frac{\sqrt3-1}{2}},\sqrt{\frac{\sqrt3-1}{2}}\right)\)

Question 119:

The plane through the point \((-1,-1,-1)\) and containing the line of intersection of the planes \(\vec{r}\cdot(\hat{i}+3\hat{j}-\hat{k})=0\) and \(\vec{r}\cdot(\hat{i}+2\hat{k})=0\) is

  • (A) \(\vec{r}\cdot(\hat{i}+2\hat{j}-3\hat{k})=0\)
  • (B) \(\vec{r}\cdot(\hat{i}+4\hat{j}+\hat{k})=0\)
  • (C) \(\vec{r}\cdot(\hat{i}+5\hat{j}-5\hat{k})=0\)
  • (D) \(\vec{r}\cdot(\hat{i}+\hat{j}+3\hat{k})=0\)

Question 120:

If \(\vec{a}=\hat{i}-\hat{j}+\hat{k}\) and \(\vec{b}=2\hat{i}+4\hat{j}+3\hat{k}\) are one of the sides and medians respectively, through the same vertex, then area of the triangle is

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{2}\sqrt{83}\)
  • (B) \(\sqrt{83}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{2}\sqrt{85}\)
  • (D) \(\sqrt{86}\)