VITEEE 2023 Question Paper is available  here. Candidates will be able to download the  VITEEE 2023 Question Paper PDF  using the link below.The exam was successfully organized by Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT). The question paper comprised a total of 125 questions divided among 5 sections. 

Latest Update: Download VITEEE 2024 Question Paper with Solution PDF

VITEEE 2023 Question Paper PDF With Answer Key

VITEEE 2023 Question Paper PDF With Answer Key download iconDownload Check Solution

VITEEE 2023 Question Paper With Solution

PHYSICS

Question 1:

Light of wavelength \( \lambda_A \) and \( \lambda_B \) falls on two identical metal plates A and B respectively. The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons is \( K_A \) and \( K_B \) respectively. Given that \( \lambda_A = 2\lambda_B \), which one of the following relations is true?

  • (A) \( K_A < \frac{K_B}{2} \)
  • (B) \( 2K_A = K_B \)
  • (C) \( K_A = 2K_B \)
  • (D) \( K_A > 2K_B \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( K_A < \frac{K_B}{2} \) View Solution

Question 2:

Which one of the following curves represents the variation of impedance \( (Z) \) with frequency \( f \) in a series LCR circuit?

  • (A)2a
  • (B) 2b
  • (C) 2c
  • (D) 2d
Correct Answer: (C) \text{Curve C}
View Solution

Question 3:

A Carnot engine takes \( 3 \times 10^6 \) cal of heat from a reservoir at \( 627^\circ C \), and gives it to a sink at \( 27^\circ C \). The work done by the engine is:

  • (A) \( 4.2 \times 10^6 \) J
  • (B) \( 8.4 \times 10^6 \) J
  • (C) \( 16.8 \times 10^6 \) J
  • (D) \( 0 \)
Correct Answer: (B) \( 8.4 \times 10^6 \) J
View Solution

Question 4:

An element of \( 0.05 \) m is placed at the origin, carrying a large current of \( 10 A \). The magnetic field at a perpendicular distance of \( 1 \) m is:
Q4

  • (A) \( 4.5 \times 10^{-8} \) T
  • (B) \( 5.5 \times 10^{-8} \) T
  • (C) \( 5.0 \times 10^{-8} \) T
  • (D) \( 7.5 \times 10^{-8} \) T
Correct Answer: (C) \( 5.0 \times 10^{-8} \) T
View Solution

Question 5:

A sinusoidal voltage of amplitude \( 25 \) V and frequency \( 50 \) Hz is applied to a half-wave rectifier using a P-N junction diode. No filter is used, and the load resistor is \( 1000\Omega \). The forward resistance \( R_f \) of the ideal diode is \( 10\Omega \). The percentage rectifier efficiency is:

  • (A) \( 40% \)
  • (B) \( 20% \)
  • (C) \( 30% \)
  • (D) \( 15% \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( 40% \)
View Solution

Question 6:

A flask contains a monoatomic and a diatomic gas in the ratio of \( 4:1 \) by mass at a temperature of \( 300K \). The ratio of average kinetic energy per molecule of the two gases is:

  • (A) \( 1:1 \)
  • (B) \( 2:1 \)
  • (C) \( 4:1 \)
  • (D) \( 1:4 \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( 1:1 \)
View Solution

Question 7:

The potential energy of a particle \( U(x) \) executing simple harmonic motion is given by:

  • (A) \( U(x) = \frac{k}{2} (x - a)^2 \)
  • (B) \( U(x) = k_1 x + k_2 x^2 + k_3 x^3 \)
  • (C) \( U(x) = A e^{-bx} \)
  • (D) \( U(x) = \text{a constant} \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( U(x) = \frac{k}{2} (x - a)^2 \)
View Solution

Question 8:

Consider an electric field \( \mathbf{E} = E_0 \hat{x} \), where \( E_0 \) is a constant. The flux through the shaded area (as shown in the figure) due to this field is:
Q8

  • (A) \( 2E_0 a^2 \)
  • (B) \( \sqrt{2} E_0 a^2 \)
  • (C) \( E_0 a^2 \)
  • (D) \( \frac{E_0 a^2}{\sqrt{2}} \)
Correct Answer: (C) \( E_0 a^2 \)
View Solution

Question 9:

The equation of a wave on a string of linear mass density \( 0.04 \) kg/m is given by:
\[ y = 0.02 \sin 2\pi \left( \frac{t}{0.04} - \frac{x}{0.50} \right) \] The tension in the string is:

  • (A) \( 4.0 N \)
  • (B) \( 12.5 N \)
  • (C) \( 0.5 N \)
  • (D) \( 6.25 N \)
Correct Answer: (D) \( 6.25 N \)
View Solution

Question 10:

Equipotential surfaces are shown in the figure. The electric field strength will be:
Q10a

  • (A) \( 100 \) V/m along X-axis
  • (B) \( 100 \) V/m along Y-axis
  • (C) \( 200 \) V/m at an angle \( 120^\circ \) with X-axis
  • (D) \( 50 \) V/m at an angle \( 120^\circ \) with X-axis
Correct Answer: (C) \( 200 \) V/m at an angle \( 120^\circ \) with X-axis
View Solution

Question 11:

Water falls from a \( 40 \) m high dam at the rate of \( 9 \times 10^4 \) kg per hour. Fifty percent of gravitational potential energy can be converted into electrical energy. The number of \( 100W \) lamps that can be lit is:

  • (A) \( 25 \)
  • (B) \( 50 \)
  • (C) \( 100 \)
  • (D) \( 18 \)
Correct Answer: (B) \( 50 \)
View Solution

Question 12:

An electron (mass = \( 9 \times 10^{-31} \) kg, charge = \( 1.6 \times 10^{-19} \) C) moving with a velocity of \( 10^6 \) m/s enters a magnetic field. If it describes a circle of radius \( 0.1 \) m, then the strength of the magnetic field must be:

  • (A) \( 4.5 \times 10^{-5} \) T
  • (B) \( 1.4 \times 10^{-5} \) T
  • (C) \( 5.5 \times 10^{-5} \) T
  • (D) \( 2.6 \times 10^{-5} \) T
Correct Answer: (C) \( 5.5 \times 10^{-5} \) T
View Solution

Question 13:

If \( V_1 \) is the velocity of a body projected from point A and \( V_2 \) is the velocity of a body projected from point B, which is vertically below the highest point C, and if both the bodies collide, then:
Q13a

  • (A) \( V_1 = \frac{1}{2} V_2 \)
  • (B) \( V_2 = \frac{1}{2} V_1 \)
  • (C) \( V_1 = V_2 \)
  • (D) \( V_1 = 3V_2 \)
Correct Answer: (B) \( V_2 = \frac{1}{2} V_1 \)
View Solution

Question 14:

A square frame of side \( 10 \) cm and a long straight wire carrying current \( 1A \) are in the plane of the paper. Starting from close to the wire, the frame moves towards the right with a constant speed of \( 10 \) m/s (see figure). The induced EMF at the time the left arm of the frame is at \( x = 10 \) cm from the wire is:
Q14

  • (A) \( 2 \mu V \)
  • (B) \( 1 \mu V \)
  • (C) \( 0.75 \mu V \)
  • (D) \( 0.5 \mu V \)
Correct Answer: (B) \( 1 \mu V \)
View Solution

Question 15:

For the circuit shown in the figure, the current through the inductor is \( 0.9A \) while the current through the condenser is \( 0.4A \). Then:
Q15

  • (A) Current drawn from source \( I = 1.13A \)
  • (B) \( \omega = \frac{1}{1.5LC} \)
  • (C) \( I = 0.5A \)
  • (D) \( I = 0.6A \)
Correct Answer: (C) \( I = 0.5A \)
View Solution

Question 16:

The ozone layer in the atmosphere absorbs:

  • (A) Only the radio waves
  • (B) Only the visible light
  • (C) Only the \( \gamma \)-rays
  • (D) X-rays and ultraviolet rays
Correct Answer: (D) X-rays and ultraviolet rays
View Solution

Question 17:

The P-V diagram of a diatomic ideal gas system undergoing a cyclic process is shown in the figure. The work done during the adiabatic process \( CD \) is (Use \( \gamma = 1.4 \)):
Q17

  • (A) \( -500J \)
  • (B) \( 200J \)
  • (C) \( -400J \)
  • (D) \( 400J \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( -500J \)
View Solution

Question 18:

In YDSE, how many maximas can be obtained on a screen, including central maxima, on both sides of the central fringe if \( \lambda = 3000\) Å, \( d = 5000\) Å?

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 5
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 1
Correct Answer: (C) 3
View Solution

Question 19:

A and B are two metals with threshold frequencies \( 1.8 \times 10^{14} \) Hz and \( 2.2 \times 10^{14} \) Hz. Two identical photons of energy \( 0.825 \) eV each are incident on them. Then photoelectrons are emitted in (Take \( h = 6.6 \times 10^{-34} \) Js):

  • (A) B alone
  • (B) A alone
  • (C) Neither A nor B
  • (D) Both A and B
Correct Answer: (B) A alone
View Solution

Question 20:

A sinusoidal voltage of amplitude 25 V and frequency 50 Hz is applied to a half-wave rectifier using a P-N junction diode. No filter is used, and the load resistor is \( 1000\Omega \). The forward resistance \( R_f \) of the ideal diode is \( 10\Omega \). The percentage rectifier efficiency is:

  • (A) \( 40% \)
  • (B) \( 20% \)
  • (C) \( 30% \)
  • (D) \( 15% \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( 40% \)
View Solution

Question 21:

The force between two short bar magnets with magnetic moments \( M_1 \) and \( M_2 \) whose centers are \( r \) meters apart is 8 N when their axes are in the same line. If the separation is increased to \( 2r \), the force between them is reduced to:

  • (A) \( 4N \)
  • (B) \( 2N \)
  • (C) \( 1N \)
  • (D) \( 0.5N \)
Correct Answer: (D) \( 0.5N \)
View Solution

Question 22:

In a Rutherford scattering experiment, when a projectile of charge \( Z_1 \) and mass \( M_1 \) approaches a target nucleus of charge \( Z_2 \) and mass \( M_2 \), the distance of closest approach is \( r_0 \). The energy of the projectile is:

  • (A) Directly proportional to \( Z_1Z_2 \)
  • (B) Inversely proportional to \( Z_1 \)
  • (C) Directly proportional to mass \( M_1 \)
  • (D) Directly proportional to \( M_1 \times M_2 \)
Correct Answer: (A) Directly proportional to \( Z_1Z_2 \)
View Solution

Question 23:

What will be the maximum speed of a car on a road turn of radius 30m if the coefficient of friction between the tyres and the road is 0.4? (Take \( g = 9.8 \text{ m/s}^2 \))

  • (A) \( 10.84 \text{ m/s} \)
  • (B) \( 9.84 \text{ m/s} \)
  • (C) \( 8.84 \text{ m/s} \)
  • (D) \( 6.84 \text{ m/s} \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( 10.84 \text{ m/s} \)
View Solution

Question 24:

A person aiming to reach the exactly opposite point on the bank of a stream is swimming with speed of \( 0.5 \) m/s at an angle of \( 120^\circ \) with the direction of flow of water. The speed of water in the stream is:

  • (A) \( 1 \) m/s
  • (B) \( 0.5 \) m/s
  • (C) \( 0.25 \) m/s
  • (D) \( 0.433 \) m/s
Correct Answer: (C) \( 0.25 \) m/s
View Solution

Question 25:

A car moves at a speed of \( 20 \text{ m/s} \) on a banked track and describes an arc of a circle of radius \( 40\sqrt{3} \) m. The angle of banking is: (Take \( g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2 \))

  • (A) \( 25^\circ \)
  • (B) \( 60^\circ \)
  • (C) \( 45^\circ \)
  • (D) \( 30^\circ \)
Correct Answer: (D) \( 30^\circ \)
View Solution

Question 26:

A force \( \mathbf{F} = \alpha \hat{i} + 3 \hat{j} + 6 \hat{k} \) is acting at a point \( \mathbf{r} = 2 \hat{i} - 6 \hat{j} - 12 \hat{k} \). The value of \( \alpha \) for which angular momentum about the origin is conserved is:

  • (A) \( 2 \)
  • (B) \( 0 \)
  • (C) \( 1 \)
  • (D) \( -1 \)
Correct Answer: (D) \( -1 \)
View Solution

Question 27:

A convex lens has power \( P \). It is cut into two halves along its principal axis. Further, one piece (out of the two halves) is cut into two halves perpendicular to the principal axis (as shown in figure). Choose the incorrect option for the reported pieces.
Q27

  • (A) Power of \( L_1 = \frac{P}{2} \)
  • (B) Power of \( L_2 = \frac{P}{2} \)
  • (C) Power of \( L_3 = \frac{P}{2} \)
  • (D) Power of \( L_1 = P \)
Correct Answer: (A) Power of \( L_1 = \frac{P}{2} \)
View Solution

Question 28:

A ball of radius \( r \) and density \( \rho \) falls freely under gravity through a distance \( h \) before entering water. The velocity of the ball does not change even on entering water. If the viscosity of water is \( \eta \), the value of \( h \) is given by:
Q28

  • (A) \( \frac{2}{9} \frac{r^2 (1 - \rho)}{\eta g} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{2}{81} \frac{r^2 (\rho - 1)}{\eta g} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{2}{81} \frac{r^4 (\rho - 1)}{\eta^2 g} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{2}{9} \frac{r^4 (\rho - 1)}{\eta^2 g} \)
Correct Answer: (C) \( \frac{2}{81} \frac{r^4 (\rho - 1)}{\eta^2 g} \)
View Solution

Question 29:

The pressure inside a tyre is 4 times that of the atmosphere. If the tyre bursts suddenly at temperature \( 300K \), what will be the new temperature?

  • (A) \( 300(4)^{7/2} \)
  • (B) \( 300(4)^{2/7} \)
  • (C) \( 300(2)^{7/2} \)
  • (D) \( 300(4)^{-27} \)
Correct Answer: (D) \( 300(4)^{-27} \)
View Solution

Question 30:

A parallel plate air capacitor of capacitance \( C \) is connected to a cell of emf \( V \) and then disconnected from it. A dielectric slab of dielectric constant \( K \), which can just fill the air gap of the capacitor, is now inserted in it. Which of the following is incorrect?

  • (A) The energy stored in the capacitor decreases \( K \) times.
  • (B) The change in energy stored is \( \frac{1}{2} C V^2 (1 - \frac{1}{K}) \).
  • (C) The charge on the capacitor is not conserved.
  • (D) The potential difference between the plates decreases \( K \) times.
Correct Answer: (C) The charge on the capacitor is not conserved.
View Solution

Question 31:

A given ray of light suffers minimum deviation in an equilateral prism \( P \). Additional prisms \( Q \) and \( R \) of identical shape and of the same material as \( P \) are now added as shown in the figure. The ray will now suffer:
Q31

  • (A) Greater deviation
  • (B) No deviation
  • (C) Same deviation as before
  • (D) Total internal reflection
Correct Answer: (C) Same deviation as before
View Solution

Question 32:

If \( m \) is magnetic moment and \( B \) is the magnetic field, then the torque is given by:

  • (A) \(\vec{m} \vec B \)
  • (B) \( \frac{\vec m}{\vec B} \)
  • (C) \(\vec m \times \vec B \)
  • (D) \( |\vec m||\vec B| \)
Correct Answer: (C) \( \vec m \times \vec B \)
View Solution

Question 33:

An \( \alpha \)-particle of 10 MeV collides head-on with a copper nucleus (\( Z = 29 \)) and is deflected back. The minimum distance of approach between the centers of the two is:

  • (A) \( 8.4 \times 10^{-15} \) cm
  • (B) \( 8.4 \times 10^{-15} \) m
  • (C) \( 4.2 \times 10^{-15} \) m
  • (D) \( 4.2 \times 10^{-15} \) cm
Correct Answer: (B) \( 8.4 \times 10^{-15} \) m
View Solution

Question 34:

A planet in a distant solar system is 10 times more massive than Earth and its radius is 10 times smaller. Given that the escape velocity from Earth's surface is 11 km/s, the escape velocity from the planet’s surface would be:

  • (A) \( 1.1 \) km/s
  • (B) \( 11 \) km/s
  • (C) \( 110 \) km/s
  • (D) \( 0.11 \) km/s
Correct Answer: (C) \( 110 \) km/s
View Solution

Question 35:

In the given figure, two equal positive point charges \( q_1 = q_2 = 2.0 \mu C \) interact with a third point charge \( Q = 4.0 \mu C \). The magnitude and direction of the net force on \( Q \) is:
Q35

  • (A) \( 0.23 N \) in the \( +x \)-direction
  • (B) \( 0.46 N \) in the \( +x \)-direction
  • (C) \( 0.23 N \) in the \( -x \)-direction
  • (D) \( 0.46 N \) in the \( -x \)-direction
Correct Answer: (B) \( 0.46 N \) in the \( +x \)-direction
View Solution

Question 36:

Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is correct for an electron in a 4f orbital?

  • (A) \( n = 4, \, l = 3, \, m = +1, \, s = +\frac{1}{2} \)
  • (B) \( n = 4, \, l = 4, \, m = -4, \, s = -\frac{1}{2} \)
  • (C) \( n = 4, \, l = 3, \, m = +4, \, s = +\frac{1}{2} \)
  • (D) \( n = 3, \, l = 2, \, m = -2, \, s = +\frac{1}{2} \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( n = 4, l = 3, m = +1, s = +\frac{1}{2} \)
View Solution

Question 37:

Arrange the following in increasing order of ionic radii: \( C^{4-}, N^{3-}, F^{-}, O^{2-} \).

  • (A) \( C^{4-} < N^{3-} < O^{2-} < F^{-} \)
  • (B) \( N^{3-} < C^{4-} < O^{2-} < F^{-} \)
  • (C) \( F^{-} < O^{2-} < N^{3-} < C^{4-} \)
  • (D) \( O^{2-} < F^{-} < N^{3-} < C^{4-} \)
Correct Answer: (C) \( F^{-} < O^{2-} < N^{3-} < C^{4-} \)
View Solution

Question 38:

The bond dissociation energies of \( X_2, Y_2, \) and \( XY \) are in the ratio of 1:0.5:1. If \( \Delta H \) for the formation of \( XY \) is -200 kJ mol\(^{-1}\), what is the bond dissociation energy of \( X_2 \)?

  • (A) \( 200 \) kJ mol\(^{-1} \)
  • (B) \( 100 \) kJ mol\(^{-1} \)
  • (C) \( 400 \) kJ mol\(^{-1} \)
  • (D) \( 800 \) kJ mol\(^{-1} \)
Correct Answer: (D) \( 800 \) kJ mol\(^{-1} \)
View Solution

Question 39:

Values of dissociation constant \( K_a \) are given as follows:
Q39
Correct order of increasing base strength of the conjugate bases \( \text{CN}^-, \text{F}^- \) and \( \text{NO}_2^- \) is:

  • (A) \( \text{F}^- < \text{CN}^- < \text{NO}_2^- \)
  • (B) \( \text{NO}_2^- < \text{CN}^- < \text{F}^- \)
  • (C) \( \text{F}^- < \text{NO}_2^- < \text{CN}^- \)
  • (D) \( \text{NO}_2^- < \text{F}^- < \text{CN}^- \)
Correct Answer: (C) \( \text{F}^- < \text{NO}_2^- < \text{CN}^- \)
View Solution

Question 40:

The product(s) formed when diborane (\( B_2H_6 \)) is hydrolyzed is/are:

  • (A) \( B_2O_3 \) and \( H_3BO_3 \)
  • (B) \( B_2O_3 \) only
  • (C) \( H_3BO_3 \) and \( H_2 \)
  • (D) \( H_3BO_3 \) only
Correct Answer: (C) \( H_3BO_3 \) and \( H_2 \)
View Solution

Question 41:

The compounds \( CH_3CH=CHCH_3 \) and \( CH_3CH_2CH=CH_2 \):

  • (A) are tautomers
  • (B) are position isomers
  • (C) contain the same number of sp\(^3\)-sp\(^3\), sp\(^3\)-sp\(^2\), and sp\(^2\)-sp\(^2\) carbon-carbon bonds
  • (D) are chain isomers
Correct Answer: (B) are position isomers
View Solution

Question 42:

Choose the correct option for the following reactions.
Q42

  • (A) \( A { and } B \text{ are both Markovnikov addition products.} \)
  • (B) \( A { is Markovnikov product and } B { is anti-Markovnikov product.} \)
  • (C) \( A { and } B { are both anti-Markovnikov products.} \)
  • (D) \( B { is Markovnikov and } A { is anti-Markovnikov product.} \)
Correct Answer: (B) \( A { is Markovnikov product and } B { is anti-Markovnikov product.} \)
View Solution

Question 43:

Which of the following exhibits Frenkel defects?

  • (A) Sodium chloride
  • (B) Silver bromide
  • (C) Graphite
  • (D) Diamond
Correct Answer: (B) Silver bromide
View Solution

Question 44:

An element X has a body-centred cubic (bcc) structure with a cell edge of 200 pm. The density of the element is 5 g cm\(^{-3}\). The number of atoms present in 300g of the element X is:
Given: Avogadro Constant, \( N_A = 6.0 \times 10^{23} \) mol\(^{-1} \).

  • (A) \( 5N_A \)
  • (B) \( 6N_A \)
  • (C) \( 15N_A \)
  • (D) \( 25N_A \)
Correct Answer: (D) \( 25N_A \)
View Solution

Question 45:

On passing current through two cells, connected in series, containing solutions of \( \text{AgNO}_3 \) and \( \text{CuSO}_4 \), 0.18 g of Ag is deposited. The amount of Cu deposited is:

  • (A) \( 0.529 \) g
  • (B) \( 10.623 \) g
  • (C) \( 0.0529 \) g
  • (D) \( 1.2708 \) g
Correct Answer: (C) \( 0.0529 \) g
View Solution

Question 46:

The limiting molar conductivities of \( HCl \), \( CH_3COONa \), and \( NaCl \) are respectively 425, 90, and 125 mho cm\(^2\) mol\(^{-1}\) at 25°C. The molar conductivity of 0.1M \( CH_3COOH \) solution is 7.8 mho cm\(^2\) mol\(^{-1}\) at the same temperature. The degree of dissociation of 0.1M acetic acid solution at the same temperature is:

  • (A) \( 0.10 \)
  • (B) \( 0.02 \)
  • (C) \( 0.15 \)
  • (D) \( 0.03 \)
Correct Answer: (B) \( 0.02 \)
View Solution

Question 47:

The rate law for a reaction between the substances A and B is given by: {Rate} = k[A]^m[B]^n On doubling the concentration of A and halving the concentration of B, the ratio of the new rate to the earlier rate of the reaction will be:

  • (A) \( (m + n) \)
  • (B) \( (n - m) \)
  • (C) \( 2^{(n - m)} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{1}{2^{(m + n)}} \)
Correct Answer: (C) \( 2^{(n - m)} \)
View Solution

Question 48:

In a reaction, the threshold energy is equal to:

  • (A) Activation energy + normal energy of reactants
  • (B) Activation energy - normal energy of reactants
  • (C) Normal energy of reactants - activation energy
  • (D) Average kinetic energy of molecules of reactants
Correct Answer: (A) Activation energy + normal energy of reactants
View Solution

Question 49:

Which property of white phosphorus is common to red phosphorus?

  • (A) It burns when heated in air.
  • (B) It reacts with hot caustic soda solution to give phosphine.
  • (C) It shows chemiluminescence.
  • (D) It is soluble in carbon disulphide.
Correct Answer: (A) It burns when heated in air.
View Solution

Question 50:

\( XeO_4 \) molecule is tetrahedral having:

  • (A) Two \( p\pi - d\pi \) bonds
  • (B) One \( p\pi - d\pi \) bond
  • (C) Four \( p\pi - d\pi \) bonds
  • (D) Three \( p\pi - d\pi \) bonds
Correct Answer: (C) Four \( p\pi - d\pi \) bonds
View Solution

Question 51:

Cuprous ion is colourless while cupric ion is coloured because:

  • (A) Both have half-filled p- and d-orbitals.
  • (B) Cuprous ion has an incomplete d-orbital and cupric ion has a complete d-orbital.
  • (C) Both have unpaired electrons in the d-orbitals.
  • (D) Cuprous ion has a complete d-orbital and cupric ion has an incomplete d-orbital.
Correct Answer: (D) Cuprous ion has a complete d-orbital and cupric ion has an incomplete d-orbital.
View Solution

Question 52:

The reason for the greater range of oxidation states in actinoids is attributed to:

  • (A) Actinoid contraction
  • (B) \( 5f, 6d \) and \( 7s \) levels having comparable energies
  • (C) \( 4f \) and \( 5d \) levels being close in energies
  • (D) The radioactive nature of actinoids
Correct Answer: (B) \( 5f, 6d \) and \( 7s \) levels having comparable energies
View Solution

Question 53:

The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the complex \([Ni(CO)_4]\) are:

  • (A) Square planar geometry and diamagnetic
  • (B) Tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic
  • (C) Tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic
  • (D) Square planar geometry and paramagnetic
Correct Answer: (B) Tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic
View Solution

Question 54:

Indicate the complex ion which shows geometrical isomerism.

  • (A) \([Cr(H_2O)_4Cl_2]^+\)
  • (B) \([Pt(NH_3)_3Cl]_2^-\)
  • (C) \([Co(NH_3)_6]^{3+}\)
  • (D) \([Co(CN)(NC)]^{3-}\)
Correct Answer: (A) \([Cr(H_2O)_4Cl_2]^+\)
View Solution

Question 55:

Reaction of \( C_6H_5CH_2Br \) with aqueous sodium hydroxide follows:

  • (A) SN1 mechanism
  • (B) SN2 mechanism
  • (C) Any of the above two depending upon the temperature of reaction
  • (D) Saytzeff rule
Correct Answer: (A) SN1 mechanism
View Solution

Question 56:

What is the correct order of reactivity of alcohols in the following reaction? \[ R - OH + HCl \rightarrow R - Cl + H_2O \]

  • (A) \( 1^\circ > 2^\circ > 3^\circ \)
  • (B) \( 3^\circ > 2^\circ > 1^\circ \)
  • (C) \( 1^\circ < 2^\circ < 3^\circ \)
  • (D) \( 3^\circ > 1^\circ > 2^\circ \)
Correct Answer: (C) \( 1^\circ < 2^\circ < 3^\circ \)
View Solution

Question 57:

Which of the following cannot be made by using Williamson's synthesis?

  • (A) Methoxybenzene
  • (B) Benzyl p-nitrophenyl ether
  • (C) Methyl tertiary butyl ether
  • (D) Di-tert-butyl ether
Correct Answer: (D) Di-tert-butyl ether
View Solution

Question 58:

Which of the following reactions will yield benzaldehyde as a product?
Q58
 Choose the correct answer from the following options:

Correct Answer: C. (A) and (D)
View Solution

Question 59:

In Clemmensen reduction, carbonyl compounds are treated with:

  • (A) Zinc amalgam + HCl
  • (B) Sodium amalgam + HCl
  • (C) Zinc amalgam + Nitric acid
  • (D) Sodium amalgam + HNO\(_3\)
Correct Answer: (A) Zinc amalgam + HCl
View Solution

Question 60:

The correct increasing order of basic strength for the following compounds is: 
Q60

  • (A) \( II < III < I \)
  • (B) \( III < I < II \)
  • (C) \( III < II < I \)
  • (D) \( II < I < III \)
Correct Answer: (D) \( II < I < III \)
View Solution

Question 61:

The major product of the following reaction is: 
Q61

  • (A) Q61a
  • (B) Q61b
  • (C) Q61c
  • (D) Q63d
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Question 62:

Blister copper is:

  • (A) Impure Cu
  • (B) Cu alloy
  • (C) Pure Cu
  • (D) Cu having 1% impurity
Correct Answer: (D) Cu having 1% impurity
View Solution

Question 63:

\( P_A \) and \( P_B \) are the vapor pressures of pure liquid components A and B, respectively, in an ideal binary solution. If \( X_A \) represents the mole fraction of component A, the total pressure of the solution will be:

  • (A) \( P_A + X_A (P_B - P_A) \)
  • (B) \( P_B + X_A (P_B - P_A) \)
  • (C) \( P_A + X_A (P_A - P_B) \)
  • (D) \( P_B + X_A (P_A - P_B) \)
Correct Answer: (D) \( P_B + X_A (P_A - P_B) \)
View Solution

Question 64:

Which of the following complexes shows \( sp^3d^2 \) hybridization?

  • (A) \([Cr(NO_2)_6]^{3-}\)
  • (B) \([Fe(CN)_6]^{4-}\)
  • (C) \([CoF_6]^{3-}\)
  • (D) \([Ni(CO)_4]\)
Correct Answer: (C) \([CoF_6]^{3-}\)
View Solution

Question 65:

2-Pentene contains:

  • (A) 15 \( \sigma \)- and one \( \pi \)-bond
  • (B) 14 \( \sigma \)- and one \( \pi \)-bond
  • (C) 15 \( \sigma \)- and two \( \pi \)-bonds
  • (D) 14 \( \sigma \)- and two \( \pi \)-bonds
Correct Answer: (B) 14 \( \sigma \)- and one \( \pi \)-bond
View Solution

Question 66:

For the below-given cyclic hemiacetal (X), the correct pyranose structure is: 
Q61

  • (A)Q66a
  • (B) Q66b
  • (C) Q66c
  • (D) Q66d
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Question 67:

Sucrose, which is dextrorotatory in nature, after hydrolysis gives glucose and fructose, among which: (i) Glucose is laevorotatory and fructose is dextrorotatory.
(ii) Glucose is dextrorotatory and fructose is laevorotatory.
(iii) The mixture is laevorotatory.
(iv) Both are dextrorotatory.

  • (A) (i) and (iii)
  • (B) (iii) and (iv)
  • (C) (ii) and (iii)
  • (D) (iii) only
Correct Answer: (B) (iii) and (iv)
View Solution

Question 68:

The Allyl cyanide molecule contains:

  • (A) 9 sigma bonds, 4 pi bonds, and no lone pair
  • (B) 9 sigma bonds, 3 pi bonds, and one lone pair
  • (C) 8 sigma bonds, 5 pi bonds, and one lone pair
  • (D) 8 sigma bonds, 3 pi bonds, and two lone pairs
Correct Answer: (B) 9 sigma bonds, 3 pi bonds, and one lone pair
View Solution

Question 69:

Which of the following pairs of compounds is isoelectronic and isostructural?

  • (A) \( TeI_2, XeF_2 \)
  • (B) \( IBr_2^-, XeF_2 \)
  • (C) \( IF_5, XeF_5 \)
  • (D) \( BeCl_2, XeF_2 \)
Correct Answer: (B) \( IBr_2^-, XeF_2 \)
View Solution

Question 70:

In which case does the change in entropy (\( \Delta S \)) become negative?

  • (A) Evaporation of water
  • (B) Expansion of a gas at constant temperature
  • (C) Sublimation of solid to gas
  • (D) \( 2H(g) \rightarrow H_2(g) \)
Correct Answer: (D) \( 2H(g) \rightarrow H_2(g) \)
View Solution

Question 71:

The argument of the complex number \[ \left( \frac{i}{2} - \frac{2}{i} \right) \] is equal to:

  • (A) \( \frac{\pi}{4} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{3\pi}{4} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{\pi}{12} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{\pi}{2} \)
Correct Answer: (D) \( \frac{\pi}{2} \)
View Solution

Question 72:

The lines \[ p(p^2 + 1)x - y + q = 0 \quad \text{and} \quad (p^2 + 1)^2 x + (p^2 + 1)y + 2q = 0 \] are perpendicular to a common line for:

  • (A) Exactly one value of \( p \)
  • (B) Exactly two values of \( p \)
  • (C) More than two values of \( p \)
  • (D) No value of \( p \)
Correct Answer: (A) Exactly one value of \( p \)
View Solution

Question 73:

The probability that a card drawn from a pack of 52 cards will be a diamond or a king is:

  • (A) \( \frac{1}{52} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{2}{13} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{4}{13} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{1}{13} \)
Correct Answer: (C) \( \frac{4}{13} \)
View Solution

Question 74:

If \( n(A) = 4 \) and \( n(B) = 7 \), then the difference between the maximum and minimum value of \( n(A \cup B) \) is:

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4
Correct Answer: (D) 4
View Solution

Question 75:

The domain of the function \[ f(x) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{9 - x^2}} \] is:

  • (A) \( -3 \leq x \leq 3 \)
  • (B) \( -3 < x < 3 \)
  • (C) \( -9 \leq x \leq 9 \)
  • (D) \( -9 < x < 9 \)
Correct Answer: (B) \( -3 < x < 3 \)
View Solution

Question 76:

If \[ \sin x + \cos x = \frac{1}{5} \] then \( \tan 2x \) is: \flushleft

  • (A) \( \frac{25}{17} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{7}{25} \)
  • (C) \( \sqrt{\frac{25}{7}} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{24}{7} \)
Correct Answer: (D) \( \frac{24}{7} \)
View Solution

Question 77:

For the binary operation defined on \( \mathbb{R} - \{1\} \) such that: \[ a b = \frac{a}{b + 1} \] which of the following is true?

  • (A) Not associative
  • (B) Commutative
  • (C) Not commutative
  • (D) Both (A) and (B)
Correct Answer: (D) Both (A) and (B)
View Solution

Question 78:

Evaluate: \[ \cos^{-1} \frac{1}{2} + \sin^{-1} (1) + \tan^{-1} \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}} \]

  • (A) \( \pi \)
  • (B) \( \frac{\pi}{3} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{4\pi}{3} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{3\pi}{4} \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( \pi \)
View Solution

Question 79:

If \[ A = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & -1
2 & -1 \end{bmatrix}, \quad B = \begin{bmatrix} x & 1
y & -1 \end{bmatrix} \] and \[ (A + B)^2 = A^2 + B^2 \] then \( x + y \) is:

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 5
Correct Answer: (D) 5
View Solution

Question 80:

The determinant of the matrix: \[ \begin{bmatrix} -a^2 & ab & ac
ab & -b^2 & bc
ac & bc & -c^2 \end{bmatrix} \] is:

  • (A) 0
  • (B) \( abc \)
  • (C) \( 4a^2b^2c^2 \)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) \( 4a^2b^2c^2 \)
View Solution

Question 81:

If \[ A = \begin{bmatrix} \alpha & \beta
\gamma & \alpha \end{bmatrix} \] then \( \text{Adj} (A) \) is equal to:

  • (A) \( \begin{bmatrix} \delta & -\gamma
    -\beta & \alpha \end{bmatrix} \)
  • (B) \( \begin{bmatrix} \delta & -\beta
    -\gamma & \alpha \end{bmatrix} \)
  • (C) \( \begin{bmatrix} -\delta & \beta
    \gamma & -\alpha \end{bmatrix} \)
  • (D) \( \begin{bmatrix} -\delta & -\beta
    \gamma & \alpha \end{bmatrix} \)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Question 82:

If \[ \left| \frac{\sec(x - y)}{\sec(x + y)} \right| = a \] then \( \frac{dy}{dx} \) is:

  • (A) \( -\frac{y}{x} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{x}{y} \)
  • (C) \( -\frac{x}{y} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{y}{x} \)
Correct Answer: (D) \( \frac{y}{x} \)
View Solution

Question 83:

The number of nonzero terms in the expansion of \[ (1 + 3\sqrt{2}x)^9 + (1 - 3\sqrt{2}x)^9 \] is:

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 5
Correct Answer: (D) 5
View Solution

Question 84:

If \[ \frac{a^n + b^n}{a^{n-1} + b^{n-1}} \] is the arithmetic mean (A.M.) between \( a \) and \( b \), then the value of \( n \) is:

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4
Correct Answer: (A) 1
View Solution

Question 85:

The sum of the series \[ \frac{1}{1 + \sqrt{2}} + \frac{1}{\sqrt{2} + \sqrt{3}} + \frac{1}{\sqrt{3} + \sqrt{4}} + \dots \] up to 15 terms is:

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4
Correct Answer: (C) 3
View Solution

Question 86:

The equation of the circle with centre (0,2) and radius 2 is \[ x^2 + y^2 - my = 0. \] The value of \( m \) is:

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 3
Correct Answer: (C) 4
View Solution

Question 87:

The integral \[ \int x^n (1 + \log x) \, dx \] is equal to: \flushleft

  • (A) \( x^n + C \)
  • (B) \( x^{2x} + C \)
  • (C) \( x^n \log x + C \)
  • (D) \( \frac{1}{2}(1 + \log x)^2 + C \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( x^n + C \)
View Solution

Question 88:

Evaluate the definite integral: \[ I = \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} (\sqrt{\tan x} + \sqrt{\cot x})dx \]

  • (A) \( \frac{\pi}{\sqrt{2}} \)
  • (B) \( \pi \sqrt{2} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{\pi}{2} \)
  • (D) \( \sqrt{2} \pi \)
Correct Answer: (B) \( \pi \sqrt{2} \)
View Solution

Question 89:

The area of the region bounded by the ellipse \[ \frac{x^2}{16} + \frac{y^2}{9} = 1 \] is:

  • (A) \( 12\pi \)
  • (B) \( 3\pi \)
  • (C) \( 24\pi \)
  • (D) \( \pi \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( 12\pi \)
View Solution

Question 90:

If the vertex of a parabola is \( (2, -1) \) and the equation of its directrix is \[ 4x - 3y = 21, \] then the length of its latus rectum is:

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 8
  • (C) 12
  • (D) 16
Correct Answer: (B) 8
View Solution

Question 91:

Eccentricity of ellipse \[ \frac{x^2}{a^2} + \frac{y^2}{b^2} = 1 \] if it passes through point (9, 5) and (12, 4) is: \flushleft

  • (A) \( \sqrt{\frac{3}{4}} \)
  • (B) \( \sqrt{\frac{4}{5}} \)
  • (C) \( \sqrt{\frac{5}{6}} \)
  • (D) \( \sqrt{\frac{6}{7}} \)
Correct Answer: (D) \( \sqrt{\frac{6}{7}} \)
View Solution

Question 92:

In \triangle ABC \text{ the mid-point of the sides AB, BC and CA are respectively (1, 0, 0), (0, m, 0) \text{ and (0, 0, n). \text{ Then, \[ \frac{AB^2 + BC^2 + CA^2}{1^2 + m^2 + n^2} \text{ is equal to:} \] \flushleft

  • (A) 8
  • (B) 16
  • (C) 9
  • (D) 25
Correct Answer: (A) 8
View Solution

Question 93:

If \[ f(x) = \frac{x + |x|}{x} \] then the value of \[ \lim_{x \to 0} f(x) \] is:

  • (A) 0
  • (B) 2
  • (C) Does not exist
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) Does not exist
View Solution

Question 94:

Negation of the Boolean expression \[ p \Leftrightarrow (q \Rightarrow p) \] is:

  • (A) \( \sim p \wedge q \)
  • (B) \( p \wedge \sim q \)
  • (C) \( \sim p \vee \sim q \)
  • (D) \( \sim p \wedge \sim q \)
Correct Answer: (D) \( \sim p \wedge \sim q \)
View Solution

Question 95:

If \[ R = \{ (x, y) : x \text{ is exactly 7cm taller than } y \} \] then \( R \) is:

  • (A) Not symmetric
  • (B) Reflexive
  • (C) Symmetric but not transitive
  • (D) An equivalence relation
Correct Answer: (A) Not symmetric
View Solution

Question 96:

The particular solution of \[ \log \frac{dy}{dx} = 3x + 4y, \quad y(0) = 0 \] is:

  • (A) \( e^{3x} + 3e^{-4y} = 4 \)
  • (B) \( 4e^{3x} - 3e^{-4y} = 3 \)
  • (C) \( 3e^{3x} + 4e^{4y} = 7 \)
  • (D) \( 4e^{3x} + 3e^{-4y} = 7 \)
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Question 97:

The general solution of the differential equation given by: \[ \tan^{-1} x + \tan^{-1} y = c \]

  • (A) \( \frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{1 + y^2}{1 + x^2} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{1 + x^2}{1 + y^2} \)
  • (C) \( (1 + x^2) dy + (1 + y^2) dx = 0 \)
  • (D) \( (1 + x^2) dx + (1 + y^2) dy = 0 \)
Correct Answer: (C) \( (1 + x^2) dy + (1 + y^2) dx = 0 \)
View Solution

Question 98:

If \( |\mathbf{a}| = 3 \), \( |\mathbf{b}| = 4 \), then the value of \( \lambda \) for which \( \mathbf{a} + \lambda \mathbf{b} \) is perpendicular to \( \mathbf{a} - \lambda \mathbf{b} \) is:

  • (A) \( \frac{9}{16} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{3}{4} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{3}{2} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{4}{3} \)
Correct Answer: (B) \( \frac{3}{4} \)
View Solution

Question 99:

The area of the parallelogram whose diagonals are \[ \mathbf{d_1} = \frac{3}{2} \hat{i} + \frac{1}{2} \hat{j} - \hat{k}, \quad \mathbf{d_2} = 2 \hat{i} - 6 \hat{j} + 8 \hat{k} \] is:

  • (A) \( 5\sqrt{3} \)
  • (B) \( 5\sqrt{2} \)
  • (C) \( 25\sqrt{3} \)
  • (D) \( 25\sqrt{2} \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( 5\sqrt{3} \)
View Solution

Question 100:

Bag P contains 6 red and 4 blue balls, and Bag Q contains 5 red and 6 blue balls. A ball is transferred from Bag P to Bag Q, and then a ball is drawn from Bag Q. What is the probability that the ball drawn is blue?

  • (A) \( \frac{7}{15} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{8}{15} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{4}{19} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{8}{19} \)
Correct Answer: (B) \( \frac{8}{15} \)
View Solution

Question 101:

The mean and variance of a random variable \( X \) having binomial distribution are 4 and 2, respectively. Find \( P(X = 1) \).

  • (A) \( \frac{1}{4} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{1}{32} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{1}{16} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{1}{8} \)
Correct Answer: (B) \( \frac{1}{32} \)
View Solution

Question 102:

Evaluate: \[ \tan (\cos^{-1} \frac{4}{5}) + \tan^{-1} \frac{2}{3} \]

  • (A) \( \frac{6}{17} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{7}{16} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{16}{7} \)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (D) None of these
View Solution

Question 103:

If the function \[ f(x) = \begin{cases} 1, & x \leq 2
ax + b, & 2 < x < 4
7, & x \geq 4 \end{cases} \] is continuous at \( x = 2 \) and \( x = 4 \), then the values of \( a \) and \( b \) are:

  • (A) \( a = 3, b = -5 \)
  • (B) \( a = -5, b = 3 \)
  • (C) \( a = -3, b = 5 \)
  • (D) \( a = 5, b = -3 \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( a = 3, b = -5 \)
View Solution

Question 104:

The derivative of \[ \sin^{-1} \left(\frac{2x}{1 + x^2} \right) \] with respect to \[ \cos^{-1} \left(\frac{1 - x^2}{1 + x^2} \right) \] is equal to:

  • (A) \( 1 \)
  • (B) \( -1 \)
  • (C) \( 2 \)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) \( 1 \)
View Solution

Question 105:

The number of distinct real roots of the equation: \[ x^7 - 7x - 2 = 0 \] is:

  • (A) 5
  • (B) 7
  • (C) 1
  • (D) 3
Correct Answer: (D) \( 3 \)
View Solution

Question 106:

The minimum value of the function \[ y = x^4 - 2x^2 + 1 \] in the interval \( \left[\frac{1}{2}, 2 \right] \) is:

  • (A) \( 0 \)
  • (B) \( 2 \)
  • (C) \( 8 \)
  • (D) \( 9 \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( 0 \)
View Solution

Question 107:

Evaluate the integral: \[ I = \int \frac{\sin^2 x - \cos^2 x}{\sin^2 x \cos^2 x} dx \]

  • (A) \( \tan x + \cot x + C \)
  • (B) \( \csc x + \sec x + C \)
  • (C) \( \tan x + \sec x + C \)
  • (D) \( \tan x + \csc x + C \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( \tan x + \cot x + C \)
View Solution

Question 108:

Consider a curve \( y = y(x) \) in the first quadrant as shown in the figure. Let the area \( A_1 \) be twice the area \( A_2 \). The normal to the curve perpendicular to the line \[ 2x - 12y = 15 \] does NOT pass through which point?
Q108

  • (A) \( (6, 21) \)
  • (B) \( (8, 9) \)
  • (C) \( (10, -4) \)
  • (D) \( (12, -15) \)
Correct Answer: (C) \( (10, -4) \)
View Solution

Question 109:

The shortest distance between the lines \( x = y + 2 = 6z - 6 \) and \( x + 1 = 2y = -12z \) is:

  • (A) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 1
  • (D) \( \frac{3}{2} \)
Correct Answer: (B) 2
View Solution

Question 110:

The angle between the two lines: \[ \frac{x + 1}{2} = \frac{y + 3}{2} = \frac{z - 4}{-1} \] \[ \frac{x - 4}{1} = \frac{y + 4}{2} = \frac{z + 1}{2} \] is:

  • (A) \( \cos^{-1} \frac{1}{9} \)
  • (B) \( \cos^{-1} \frac{4}{9} \)
  • (C) \( \cos^{-1} \frac{2}{9} \)
  • (D) \( \cos^{-1} \frac{3}{9} \)
Correct Answer: (B) \( \cos^{-1} \frac{4}{9} \)
View Solution

Question 111:

What is the approximate percentage increase in the production of Monopoly from 1993 to 1995?

  • (A) \( 10 \)
  • (B) \( 20 \)
  • (C) \( 30 \)
  • (D) \( 25 \)
Correct Answer: (B) \( 20 \)
View Solution

Question 112:

For which toy category has there been a continuous increase in production over the years?

  • (A) Ludo
  • (B) Chess
  • (C) Monopoly
  • (D) Carrom
Correct Answer: (C) Monopoly
View Solution

Question 113:

What is the percentage drop in the production of Ludo from 1992 to 1994?

  • (A) \( 30 \)
  • (B) \( 50 \)
  • (C) \( 20 \)
  • (D) \( 10 \)
Correct Answer: (D) \( 10 \)
View Solution

Question 114:

Find the missing number in the sequence: \[ 285, 253, 221, 189, ? \]

  • (A) \( 150 \)
  • (B) \( 182 \)
  • (C) \( 157 \)
  • (D) \( 156 \)
Correct Answer: (C) \( 157 \)
View Solution

Question 115:

In a certain code language, PRESENTATION is written as ENESTAITPRON. How would INTELLIGENCE be written in that code?

  • (A) \( \text{TETGLLTNENCE} \)
  • (B) \( \text{LUENLINTETG} \)
  • (C) \( \text{LLKKTGTEEBTB} \)
  • (D) \( \text{LLTEIGENINCE} \)
Correct Answer: (D) \( \text{LLTEIGENINCE} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Analyzing the pattern in the given transformation.
Observing PRESENTATION → ENESTAITPRON: - The first three letters move to the last. - The middle section remains the same. - The last three letters shift to the front. Step 2: Applying the same pattern to INTELLIGENCE.
- Moving the first three letters "INT" to the end. - Keeping the middle letters in order. - Moving the last three letters to the beginning. Rewriting the letters, we get LLTEIGENINCE. Thus, the correct answer is (D) LLTEIGENINCE. Quick Tip: For coding patterns, check for shifting groups of letters systematically.


Question 116:

Ram moves from a point \( X \) to 20 metres towards North. Then he moves 40 metres towards West. Then he moves 20 metres North. Then he moves 40 metres towards East and then 10 metres towards right and he reaches a point \( Y \). Find the distance and direction of \( Y \) from \( X \)?

  • (A) \( 30 \) metres, North
  • (B) \( 40 \) metres, North
  • (C) \( 30 \) metres, South
  • (D) \( 40 \) metres, South
Correct Answer: (A) \( 30 \) metres, North
View Solution

Step 1: Breaking down the movements.
- Ram starts at \( X \).
- Moves 20m North → Position: \( (0, 20) \).
- Moves 40m West → Position: \( (-40, 20) \).
- Moves 20m North → Position: \( (-40, 40) \).
- Moves 40m East → Position: \( (0, 40) \).
- Moves 10m to the right (South) → Position: \( (0, 30) \).
Step 2: Finding the distance from \( X \) to \( Y \).
Since \( Y \) is at \( (0,30) \) and \( X \) is at \( (0,0) \), \[ \text{Distance} = |30 - 0| = 30 \text{ metres} \] Step 3: Finding the direction.
Since \( Y \) is directly above \( X \) on the Y-axis, the direction is North.
Thus, the correct answer is (A) 30 metres, North.
Quick Tip: For direction problems, break movements into coordinate changes and use absolute distances.


Question 117:

If the 5th date of a month is Tuesday, what date will be 3 days after the 3rd Friday in the month?

  • (A) \( 17 \)
  • (B) \( 22 \)
  • (C) \( 19 \)
  • (D) \( 18 \)
Correct Answer: (D) \( 18 \)
View Solution

Step 1: Identifying the weekday of the 1st of the month.
Since 5th is a Tuesday, counting backward:
4th - Monday, 3rd - Sunday, 2nd - Saturday, 1st - Friday
Step 2: Finding the 3rd Friday.
- 1st Friday = 1st
- 2nd Friday = 8th
- 3rd Friday = 15th
Step 3: Adding 3 days to the 3rd Friday.
\[ 15 + 3 = 18 \] Thus, the correct answer is (D) 18.
Quick Tip: To determine a specific weekday, count forward using the known weekday of a fixed date.


Question 118:

Statements:
I. Some cats are dogs.
II. No dog is a toy.
Conclusions:
I. Some dogs are cats.
II. Some toys are cats.
III. Some cats are not toys.
IV. All toys are cats.

  • (A) Only Conclusions I and either II or III.
  • (B) Only Conclusions II and III follow.
  • (C) Only Conclusions I and II follow.
  • (D) Only Conclusion I follows.
Correct Answer: (A) Only Conclusions I and either II or III.
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding the given statements.
- Some cats are dogs → Partial overlap between Cats and Dogs.
- No dog is a toy → No intersection between Dogs and Toys.
Step 2: Checking conclusions.
- Conclusion I: Some dogs are cats → True, directly given.
- Conclusion II: Some toys are cats → Not necessarily true, not given in statements.
- Conclusion III: Some cats are not toys → True by possibility, as some cats might not be toys.
- Conclusion IV: All toys are cats → False, as no relation is established.
Thus, the correct answer is (A) Only Conclusions I and either II or III.
Quick Tip: Use Venn diagrams to verify syllogistic reasoning conclusions.


Question 119:

How is \( H \) related to \( B \)?
Statements:
I. \( H \) is married to \( P \). \( P \) is the mother of \( T \). \( T \) is married to \( D \). \( D \) is the father of \( B \).
II. \( B \) is the daughter of \( T \). \( T \) is the sister of \( N \). \( H \) is the father of \( N \).

  • (A) Statement I alone is sufficient.
  • (B) Statement II alone is sufficient.
  • (C) Either statement I or II is sufficient.
  • (D) Both statements together are necessary.
Correct Answer: (C) Either statement I or II is sufficient.
View Solution

Step 1: Analyzing Statement I.
- \( H \) is married to \( P \).
- \( P \) is the mother of \( T \), making \( H \) the father of \( T \).
- \( T \) is married to \( D \), and \( D \) is the father of \( B \), making \( T \) the mother of \( B \).
- Since \( H \) is \( T \)'s father, \( H \) is B’s grandfather.
Step 2: Analyzing Statement II.
- \( B \) is the daughter of \( T \).
- \( T \) is the sister of \( N \).
- \( H \) is the father of \( N \), which means \( H \) is also the father of \( T \).
- Since \( T \) is \( B \)'s mother, \( H \) is \( B \)'s grandfather.
Thus, either statement alone is sufficient.
Quick Tip: For family tree problems, construct a hierarchical diagram to verify relationships.


Question 120:

Among five persons \( D, E, F, G, H \), each having different heights, who is the second tallest? Statements:
I. \( D \) is taller than only \( G \) and \( E \). \( F \) is not the tallest.
II. \( H \) is taller than \( F \). \( G \) is taller than \( E \) but shorter than \( D \).

  • (A) If the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient.
  • (B) If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient.
  • (C) If the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
  • (D) If the data in both the Statements I and II together are not sufficient.
  • (E) If the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Analyzing Statement I.
- \( D \) is taller than only \( G \) and \( E \), meaning \( G \) and \( E \) are the shortest.
- So, the height order of these three is: \[ E < G < D \] - Since there are five persons, the remaining two must be \( F \) and \( H \).
- \( F \) is not the tallest, which means \( H \) must be the tallest.
- Therefore, the order from shortest to tallest is: \[ E < G < D < F < H \] - The second tallest person is \( F \).
- Thus, Statement I alone is sufficient to determine the second tallest person.
Step 2: Analyzing Statement II.
- \( H \) is taller than \( F \), so \( H \) is not the second tallest.
- \( G \) is taller than \( E \) but shorter than \( D \), so \( G \) is not the second tallest either.
- Since no information is given about whether \( F \) is taller than \( D \), we cannot determine the second tallest person.
- Statement II alone is insufficient to answer the question.
Step 3: Conclusion.
- Statement I alone is sufficient, but Statement II alone is not sufficient.
- Thus, the correct answer is (A).
Quick Tip: To determine ranking problems, arrange elements in ascending or descending order based on given conditions.


Question 121:

If someone else's opinion makes us angry, it means that

  • (A) we are subconsciously aware of having no good reason for becoming angry
  • (B) there may be good reasons for his opinion but we are not consciously aware of them
  • (C) our own opinion is not based on good reason and we know this subconsciously
  • (D) we are not consciously aware of any reason for our own opinion
Correct Answer: (C) our own opinion is not based on good reason and we know this subconsciously
View Solution

Question 122:

"Your own contrary conviction" refers to

  • (A) the fact that you feel pity rather than anger
  • (B) the opinion that two and two are four and that Iceland is a long way from the Equator
  • (C) the opinion that two and two are five and that Iceland is on the Equator
  • (D) the fact that you know so little about arithmetic or geography
Correct Answer: (A) the fact that you feel pity rather than anger
View Solution

Question 123:

Conviction means

  • (A) persuasion
  • (B) disbelief
  • (C) strong belief
  • (D) ignorance
Correct Answer: (C) strong belief
View Solution

Question 124:

The writer says if someone maintains that two and two are five, you feel pity because you

  • (A) have sympathy
  • (B) don't agree with him
  • (C) want to help the person
  • (D) feel sorry for his ignorance
Correct Answer: (D) feel sorry for his ignorance
View Solution

Question 125:

The second sentence in the passage

  • (A) builds up the argument of the first sentence by restating it from the opposite point of view
  • (B) makes the main point which has only been introduced by the first sentence
  • (C) simply adds a further point to the argument already stated in the first sentence
  • (D) illustrates the point made in the first sentence
Correct Answer: (D) illustrates the point made in the first sentence
View Solution

VITEEE Previous Year Question Paper with Answer Key PDFs

For more such memory-based question papers check VITEEE Previous Year Question Paper PDFs here.

Similar B.Tech Exam Question Papers