AIBE 14 Question Paper with Answer Key (Set A)

Which one of the following sentence is correctly method?

• (A) In India, consideration must follow from promisee only.
• (B) In India, consideration must follow from only promisor or only promisee.
• (C) In India, consideration must follow from promisor or any other person.
• (D) In India, consideration must follow from promisee or any other person

Assertion (A): Collateral transactions to wagering are valid.
Reason (R): only wagering agreements are declared void under section 30 of the Indian contract Act.

• (A) (a) is true, but (r) is false.
• (B) (a) is false, but (r) is true.
• (C) Both (a) and (r) are true, but (r) is not correct explanation of (a)
• (D) Both (a) and (r) are true, and (r) is correct explanation of (a)

Term 'holder' include

• (A) The payee
• (B) The bearer
• (C) The endorsed
• (D) All of the above

Under the Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act,1939 a Muslim wife can seek Dissolution of marriage if the husband fails to perform marital obligation for :

• (A) 2 year
• (B) 3 year
• (C) 4 year
• (D) 5 year

The Concept of 'Curative' Petition was introduced by the Supreme Court of India in the case of

• (A) Rupa Ashok Hura V/s Ashok Hura,AIR 2002 SC 1771
• (B) M.C.Mehta V/s Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1087
• (C) Krishna Swami V/s Union of India, (1992) 45 CC 605
• (D) Sheela Barse V/s Union of India, (1986) 35 CC 5962

Right to Fare Legal Aid was recognised as a Fundamental Right under Act 21 of Indian Constitution in the case of

• (A) Hussaainara Khatoon V/s State of Bihar, AIR 1979 SC 1360
• (B) M.H Hoskot V/s State of Maharashtra, AIR 1978 SC 1548
• (C) Madhu Mehta V/s Union of India (1989) 4 SC 1548
• (D) Rudal Shah V/s State of Bihar (1983) 45 SC 14

The case of Muhammad Allahdad Khan Vs Muhammad Ismail Khan is related to:

• (A) Pre-emption
• (B) Gift
• (C) Mahr
• (D) Acknowledgement of paternity

In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court was in 2017 declared pronouncements of talaq three times at a time by a Muslim husband as unconstitutional?

• (A) Shayara Bano V/s Union of India
• (B) Shassnim Ara V/s State of U.P
• (C) Baitahira V/s Ali Hasan
• (D) Danial latifi V/s Union of India

'Meshe profits' of property means:

• (A) Those profits by which the person in wrongful possession of such property actually received or might have received there from, together with interest on such profits.
• (B) The profits due to improvements made by person in wrongful possession.
• (C) Both A & B
• (D) None of the above.

Which of the following is not a legal representative?

• (A) Executor and administrators.
• (B) Hindu coparceners.
• (C) Creditor
• (D) Intermeddler

PublicInterest litigation is relaxation of which of the following requirements:

• (A) Jurisdiction
• (B) Locus Standi
• (C) Both A & B
• (D) None of the Above

Which of the following is not a case of Public Interest Litigation:

• (A) Kesavananda Bharti. v. State of Kerala AIR 1973 SC 1461
• (B) Vincent Narayan v. Union of India, AIR 1988 SC 889
• (C) Union of India v. Association for Democratic Reforms, AIR 2002 SC 2112
• (D) Vincent Panikurlangara v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 990.

Which of the following can be done by a Senior Advocate in accordance with the Rules of Bar Council of India:

• (A) Make concessions on behalf of client on instructions from junior advocate.
• (B) Accept instructions to draft a pleading
• (C) Accept brief directly from a client
• (D) None of the Above

Which one of the following is true about Latin Maxim 'Ubi Jus Ibi Remedium'?

• (A) Where there is right, there is remedy.
• (B) Where there is remedy, there is right.
• (C) Both A & B
• (D) None of the Above

The Latin word 'Injuria Sine Damnum' Literally means:

• (A) Infringement of legal right without damages.
• (B) Damages without Infringement of legal right.
• (C) Both A & B
• (D) All of the above

The Provision relating to claims Tribunal is given under Motor Vehicles Act:

• (A) Section 165-175
• (B) Section 175-180
• (C) Section 170-175
• (D) Section 171-177

'Rule of Law' means

• (A) Equality before the Law
• (B) Supremacy of the Law
• (C) Predominance of legal spirit
• (D) All of the above

The purpose of writ of 'Quo Warranto' is?

• (A) To compel public authority to perform duty
• (B) To restraint public authority to do illegal act
• (C) To oust illegal occupant of a public post
• (D) All of the above

Writ of Certiorari can be issued against

• (A) Judicial and Quasi-Judicial bodies
• (B) Quasi Judicial and Administrative bodies
• (C) Administrative Bodies only
• (D) None of the above .

Supreme Court of India held that it is permanent obligation of every member of medical profession either government or private to give medical aid to every injured person brought for treatment immediately without waiting for procedural formalities in the case of-

• (A) Common Cause V/s Union of India (1996) 1 SC 753
• (B) Peoples Union of India, AIR 1983 SC 339
• (C) Parmanand Katara V/s Union of India ,AIR 1989 SC 2039
• (D) Lakshmi Kant Pandey V/s Union of India (1984) 25 SC 244

The Supreme Court of India has issued the direction to make the CBI independent agency so that it can function more effectively and investigate Crimes and Corruptions at high places in public life in the Case of-

• (A) Union of India V/s Association For democratic reforms, AIR 2002 SC 2112
• (B) Bangalore medical Trust V/s B.S Muddappa (1991) 45 SC 54
• (C) Vincent Panikurlangra V/s Union of India (1987) 2 SC 165
• (D) Vincent Narayan V/s Union of India, AIR 1998 SC 889

One of the following statements is not true, which one is that:

• (A) A confession by one co accused implicating other co accused would be proved.
• (B) A confession to a police-officer cannot be proved.
• (C) A confession by a person in the custody of a police officer to any person in the presence of magistrate can be proved.
• (D) If the confession of a person leads to recovery of a thing it can be proved.

The Kashmira Singh Vs State of MP is a leading case on:

• (A) Dying declaration
• (B) Admission
• (C) Confession to police officer
• (D) Confession of a co-accused

Which of the following fact is not relevant in civil and criminal cases under Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act

• (A) Motive
• (B) Attempt
• (C) Conduct
• (D) Preparation

BATNA Stands for:

• (A) Bilateral agreement to negotiation and arbitration
• (B) Best alternative to a negotiated agreement
• (C) Bilateral Trade negotiated agreement
• (D) None of the above

Section 9 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 deals with

• (A) Interim measures by the court
• (B) Discretionary powers of the court
• (C) Both A & B
• (D) None of the above

For the first time in India Income Tax was introduced by Sir James Wilson in the year:

• (A) 1886
• (B) 1868
• (C) 1860
• (D) None of the Above

In which case Justice J.C. Shah of S.C. observed "Since by the exercise of the power a serious invasion is made upon the rights, privacy and freedom of the tax payer, the power must be exercised strictly in accordance with law and only for the purpose for which law authorises it to be exercised"

• (A) Director of Inspection Vs Pooranmal
• (B) ITO Vs Seth Brothers
• (C) P.R. Metrani Vs CIT
• (D) None of the above

Which of the following statements are true?
i. Minor's contract can be ratified on attaining majority
ii. Minor's contact be ratified on attaining majority
iii. Minor's contract can be ratified jointly by both the parties to the contract.
iv. Minor is not liable under minor's contract

• (A) (i) and (iii)
• (B) (ii) and (iv)
• (C) (i) and (ii)
• (D) (ii) and (iii)

Which one of the following sections of CrPC deals with irregularities which vitiate proceeding?

• (A) Section 460
• (B) Section 461
• (C) Section 462
• (D) Section 468

Which of the following is not an essential element of a decree:

• (A) Conclusive determination of the rights of the parties.
• (B) Formal expression of adjudication.
• (C) An adjudication from which an appeal lies as an appeal from an order.
• (D) The adjudication must have been given in a suit before the court.

Which of the following is not a duty of an Advocate to Court:

• (A) To not commit breach of section 126 of Evidence Act.
• (B) To not to appear on behalf of any organisation 'of whose Executive Committee, he is a member.
• (C) To not appear before a Court, Tribunal or Authority in which his near relation is a member.
• (D) To conduct himself with dignity self-respect, presentation of a case before a Court and otherwise acting before a Court.

Which of the following rules of Chapter II of Part VI of the Bar Council Rules deal with the duty of an Advocate in respect of any moneys received by him from Client:

• (A) Rule 25
• (B) Rule 33
• (C) Rule 24
• (D) None of the Above

Under which of the following sections of CrPC provisions relating to police report is given?

• (A) Section 173 (2) (i)
• (B) Section 177
• (C) Section 174 (2) (i)
• (D) Section 175

Which one of the following provisions of CrPC deals with anticipatory bail?

• (A) Section 437
• (B) Section 438
• (C) Section 439
• (D) None of the above

The provision relating to cancellation of bond and bail bond is given under:

• (A) Section 446-A
• (B) Section 446
• (C) Section 447
• (D) Section 450

The provisions relating to dowry is given under:

• (A) Section 304-B of the I.P.C
• (B) Section 304-A of the I.P.C
• (C) Section 304 of the I.P.C
• (D) Section 305-B of the I.P.C

Which of the following section is designed to curb infanticide:

• (A) Section 317 of the I.P.C
• (B) Section 313 of the I.P.C
• (C) Section 318 of the I.P.C
• (D) Section 315 of the I.P.C

Which order has been specially enacted to protect the interest of Minors and Unsound Mind:

• (A) Order 31
• (B) Order 32
• (C) Order 33
• (D) Order 34

Which order of the CPC lays down general rules governing pleadings in a court?

• (A) Order 6
• (B) Order 7
• (C) Order 8
• (D) Order 9

Second appeal under section 100 is applicable:

• (A) Substantial question of law as formulated by the High Court.
• (B) Substantial question of law as not formulated by the High Court.
• (C) An appellate decree passed Ex Parte.
• (D) All of the above

Which of the following is an infringement of a Registered Trade mark:

• (A) Use of a mark identical to the Trade mark in relation to goods without authorisation.
• (B) Advertising of that Trade mark such that the advertisement is against the reputation of the Trade Mark
• (C) Use of that Trade mark as a business authorisation.
• (D) All of the above.

A imprisonment, if attempts to commit murder and hurt is caused thereby, he may be punished with:

• (A) Life Imprisonment
• (B) Death
• (C) Imprisonment
• (D) All of the above

Residuary Powers in India may be exercised by

• (A) Parliament
• (B) State Legislatures
• (C) Precidont
• (D) Both A & B

The Punishments to which offenders are liable under the provision of I.P.C are:

• (A) Death and imprisonment for life
• (B) Rigorous imprisonment and simple imprisonment
• (C) Forfeiture of property and fine
• (D) All of the above

M' Naghten Rules form the basis of the law of:

• (A) Infancy
• (B) Insanity
• (C) Ignorance of fact
• (D) Mistake

The authentication to be affected by the use of asymmetric crypto system and hash function is known as:

• (A) Public key
• (B) Private key
• (C) Digital Signature
• (D) Electronic Governance

Punishment for Cyber Terrorism under Section 66F shall be punishable:

• (A) With Imprisonment which may extend to three year or with fine not exceeding two lakh rupees or with both.
• (B) With imprisonment for a term which may extend to seven years and shall also be liable to fine.
• (C) With imprisonment which may extend to imprisonment for life.
• (D) With imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to ten years and shall also be liable to fine.

Section 2(j) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 define "Industry" means any
i.Business trade, undertaking
ii.Manufacture or calling of
iii. Included any calling, service, employment, handicraft
iv. Industrial occupation of workmen

• (A) (i) and (ii)
• (B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
• (C) (iii)and (iv)
• (D) All of the above

Which of the following provisions of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 incorporates the fault theory of divorce?

• (A) Section 13(1)
• (B) Section 11
• (C) Section 13B
• (D) Section 13(2)

Under the Hindu Maintenance and Adoption Act, 1956, which of the both following circumstances can a dependent enforce his right to maintenance against a transferee of an estate out of which he has a right to receive maintenance:

• (A) Only when the Transferee has notice of such right.
• (B) Only when the transfer gratuitous.
• (C) Both A & B
• (D) None of the above.

Which of the following Courts/ Tribunals cannot entertain a Public Interest Litigation:

• (A) Supreme Court
• (B) High Court
• (C) Central Administrative Tribunal
• (D) None of the Above

'A' places men with firearms at the outlets of a building and tells 'Z' that they will fire at 'Z' if 'Z' attempts to leave the building 'A' is:

• (A) Wrong fully restrains Z
• (B) Wrong fully confine Z
• (C) Both A & B
• (D) None of the above

'A' incites a dog to spring upon 'Z', without Zs' consent. If 'A' intenids to cause injury, fear or annoyance to ‘Z’

• (A) 'A' uses force to 'Z'
• (B) 'A' assaulted 'Z'
• (C) 'A' uses criminal force to 'Z'
• (D) None of the above

'A' causes cattle to enter upon the field belonging to 'Z', intending to cause and knowing that he is likely to cause damage to 'Z's' crop. 'A' has committed:

• (A) Mischief
• (B) Criminal trespassing
• (C) Criminal breach of trust
• (D) Extortion

From which of the following countries, the Constitution of India has borrowed the 'Power of Judicial Review'?

• (A) Canada
• (B) United Kingdom
• (C) USA
• (D) Ireland

Enforcement of which of the following articles of the Constitution of India cannot be suspended even during the proclamation of emergency?

• (A) 14 & 19
• (B) 20& 21
• (C) 23 &24
• (D) 21 & 22

Which of the following provisions of the Advocates Act, 1961 provides for the power of Bar Council of India to withdraw to itself, any proceedings for disciplinary action pending before any State Bar Council:

• (A) Section 35
• (B) Section 37
• (C) Section 36(2)
• (D) None of the Above

Which Court or Authority has the power to punish any person for contempt of the National Company Law Tribunal:

• (A) Supreme Court
• (B) High Court
• (C) National Company Law Appellate Tribunal
• (D) National Company Law Tribunal

Which of the following is not a vested interest:

• (A) 'A' stipulates that title in a property shall pass to 'C' on his death.
• (B) 'A' stipulates that title in a property shall pass to 'C' on the death of 'B'
• (C) 'A' stipulates that title in a property shall pass to 'C' if he marries ʻBʼ
• (D) 'A' stipulates that title in a property shall pass to 'C' after ten years.

Under Section 13 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, which of the following grounds is available to a wife only:

• (A) Adultery
• (B) Desertion
• (C) Cruelty
• (D) Rape, sodomy or bestiality

Which of the following sections of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, deals with the doctrine of election?

• (A) Section 35
• (B) Section 36
• (C) Section 37
• (D) Section 38

Which of the following is not a ground for cancellation of registration of a Trade Mark under Section 57 of the Trade Marks Act, 1999?

• (A) The mark was registered without sufficient cause.
• (B) The mark has become a generic term due to the acts of the registered proprietor.
• (C) The mark is likely to deceive or cause confusion.
• (D) The mark has been used continuously for five years without any objection.

Which of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, defines 'Dishonest Misappropriation of Property'?

• (A) Section 403
• (B) Section 404
• (C) Section 405
• (D) Section 406

Under which Article of the Constitution of India, the Governor of a State has the power to promulgate ordinances during recess of the State Legislature?

• (A) Article 123
• (B) Article 213
• (C) Article 356
• (D) Article 357

Which of the following writs is issued by a court to enforce the performance of a public duty?

• (A) Habeas Corpus
• (B) Mandamus
• (C) Certiorari
• (D) Quo Warranto

Which of the following sections of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, deals with the power of the Magistrate to order a person to execute a bond for keeping peace?

• (A) Section 106
• (B) Section 107
• (C) Section 108
• (D) Section 109

Which of the following is not a ground for rejection of a plaint under Order VII Rule 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?

• (A) The plaint does not disclose a cause of action.
• (B) The suit is barred by limitation.
• (C) The plaintiff fails to pay the court fees.
• (D) The defendant agrees to settle the dispute out of court.

Which of the following is a condition for a valid gift under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?

• (A) Acceptance by the donee after the donor's death.
• (B) Delivery of possession or right to possession.
• (C) Registration of the gift deed with the local authority.
• (D) Payment of consideration by the donee.

Which of the following cases laid down the principle that the right to life under Article 21 of the Constitution includes the right to a clean environment?

• (A) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
• (B) Subhash Kumar v. State of Bihar
• (C) Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan
• (D) Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation

Which of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, defines 'Theft'?

• (A) Section 378
• (B) Section 379
• (C) Section 380
• (D) Section 381

Under which Article of the Constitution of India, the President can declare a National Emergency?

• (A) Article 352
• (B) Article 356
• (C) Article 360
• (D) Article 365

Which of the following writs is issued to secure the release of a person who is illegally detained?

• (A) Mandamus
• (B) Habeas Corpus
• (C) Prohibition
• (D) Quo Warranto

Which of the following sections of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, deals with the transfer of suits?

• (A) Section 24
• (B) Section 25
• (C) Section 26
• (D) Section 27

Which of the following is a ground for divorce under the Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act, 1939?

• (A) Husband's failure to perform marital obligations for two years.
• (B) Husband's failure to perform marital obligations for three years.
• (C) Husband's failure to maintain the wife for two years.
• (D) Husband's failure to maintain the wife for three years.

Which of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, deals with the relevancy of facts forming part of the same transaction?

• (A) Section 6
• (B) Section 7
• (C) Section 8
• (D) Section 9

Which of the following is not a type of bail under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?

• (A) Regular Bail
• (B) Interim Bail
• (C) Anticipatory Bail
• (D) Conditional Bail

Which of the following cases established the principle of 'Basic Structure' of the Constitution?

• (A) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
• (B) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
• (C) Minerva Mills v. Union of India
• (D) Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain

Which of the following sections of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, deals with the termination of arbitral proceedings?

• (A) Section 32
• (B) Section 33
• (C) Section 34
• (D) Section 35

Which of the following is a ground for setting aside an arbitral award under Section 34 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996?

• (A) The award is against public policy of India.
• (B) The arbitral tribunal exceeded its jurisdiction.
• (C) The party was unable to present its case.
• (D) All of the above

Which of the following sections of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, deals with the procedure for summary trials?

• (A) Section 260
• (B) Section 261
• (C) Section 262
• (D) Section 263

Under which Article of the Constitution of India, the High Court has the power to issue writs?

• (A) Article 32
• (B) Article 226
• (C) Article 227
• (D) Article 228

Which of the following is not a fundamental duty under the Constitution of India?

• (A) To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals.
• (B) To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood.
• (C) To pay taxes promptly.
• (D) To protect and improve the natural environment.

Which of the following cases laid down the principle that the right to education is a fundamental right under Article 21A of the Constitution?

• (A) Unni Krishnan v. State of Andhra Pradesh
• (B) Mohini Jain v. State of Karnataka
• (C) T.M.A. Pai Foundation v. State of Karnataka
• (D) P.A. Inamdar v. State of Maharashtra

Which of the following sections of the Indian Succession Act, 1925, deals with the rules of intestate succession for Hindus?

• (A) Section 29
• (B) Section 30
• (C) Section 31
• (D) Section 32

Which of the following is a ground for divorce under the Special Marriage Act, 1954?

• (A) Mutual consent
• (B) Cruelty
• (C) Desertion for a continuous period of two years
• (D) All of the above

Which of the following sections of the Limitation Act, 1963, prescribes the limitation period for filing a suit for recovery of movable property?

• (A) Article 91
• (B) Article 92
• (C) Article 93
• (D) Article 94

Which of the following is not a form of decree under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?

• (A) Preliminary decree
• (B) Final decree
• (C) Interlocutory decree
• (D) Ex parte decree

Which of the following cases established the principle of 'absolute liability' in India?

• (A) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India (Oleum Gas Leak Case)
• (B) Rylands v. Fletcher
• (C) Donoghue v. Stevenson
• (D) Bhopal Gas Tragedy Case

Which of the following sections of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, deals with the establishment of the Central Consumer Protection Authority?

• (A) Section 10
• (B) Section 11
• (C) Section 12
• (D) Section 13

Which of the following sections of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, deals with the power of the High Court to transfer cases?

• (A) Section 406
• (B) Section 407
• (C) Section 408
• (D) Section 409

Under which Article of the Constitution of India, the Union Public Service Commission is constituted?

• (A) Article 315
• (B) Article 316
• (C) Article 317
• (D) Article 318

Which of the following is a ground for rejection of a trademark application under the Trade Marks Act, 1999?

• (A) The mark is distinctive and well-known.
• (B) The mark is likely to deceive or cause confusion.
• (C) The mark has been used continuously for five years.
• (D) The mark is registered in a foreign country.

Which of the following sections of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, deals with the communication of acceptance?

• (A) Section 3
• (B) Section 4
• (C) Section 5
• (D) Section 6

Which of the following cases established the principle of 'vicarious liability' of the State in India?

• (A) State of Rajasthan v. Vidyawati
• (B) Kasturi Lal Ralia Ram Jain v. State of Uttar Pradesh
• (C) Rudul Sah v. State of Bihar
• (D) Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa

Which of the following sections of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, deals with the dishonor of a cheque?

• (A) Section 138
• (B) Section 139
• (C) Section 140
• (D) Section 141

Which of the following is a condition for a valid adoption under the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956?

• (A) The adopter must be of sound mind.
• (B) The adoptee must be a minor.
• (C) The adoption must be registered with the local authority.
• (D) Both A and B

Which of the following sections of the Information Technology Act, 2000, deals with the punishment for tampering with computer source documents?

• (A) Section 65
• (B) Section 66
• (C) Section 67
• (D) Section 68

Which of the following is not a part of the 'triple test' for determining the validity of a reservation policy under Article 16(4) of the Constitution?

• (A) Backwardness of the class
• (B) Inadequacy of representation
• (C) Overall administrative efficiency
• (D) Extent of reservation

Which of the following cases held that the right to privacy is a fundamental right under Article 21 of the Constitution?

• (A) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
• (B) Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India
• (C) Kharak Singh v. State of Uttar Pradesh
• (D) Govind v. State of Madhya Pradesh