AIBE 19 question paper with answer key pdf (Set C) is available for download here. AIBE 19 was successfully conducted by Bar Council of India (BCI) on March 6, 2024. The question paper comprised a total of 100 questions.
AIBE 19 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF (Set C)
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Aarti and Rajesh have been married for five years. Over time, Aarti has been subjected to continuous cruelty by Rajesh, which has led to emotional and mental distress. Aarti decided to file for divorce on the grounds of cruelty under Section 13(1)(ia) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955.
Which of the following statements is true regarding the grounds for divorce under the Hindu Marriage Act?
On matters where Dayabhaga is silent, what prevails?
Nisha and Aakash are separated, and they both seek custody of their minor child, Aarav. Nisha has been the primary caregiver, while Aakash claims that he can provide better financial stability for Aarav. They both approach the court under the Guardian and Wards Act, 1890.
Which of the following factors will the court primarily consider in determining the custody of Aarav?
Match the following:
\begin{tabular{|c|l|l|
\hline
a. & Spoken words & i. Sunnat-ul-Qaul
\hline
b. & Deepika vs. CAT & ii. Customary Law
\hline
c. & Silence & iii. Sunnat-ul-Taqrir
\hline
d. & Aas Kaur vs. Kartar Singha & iv. Atypical Relationships
\hline
e. & Shayara Bano vs. UOI & v. Triple Talaq
\hline
& & vi. Maintenance
\hline
\end{tabular
Choose the correct option:
Which sections discuss "Sapinda relationships" under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
Under Section 15 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, the divorced person, to marry again ...........
In which case a prison inmate sent a letter to the Supreme Court, describing physical torture, which became a pioneer in public interest litigation, though the court later abandoned the practice of considering letters?
In the early 1980s, a social activist group discovered severe exploitation of labourers working in stone quarries near Delhi. The workers, including many children, were working in extremely hazardous conditions, living in makeshift shelters, and were effectively trapped in a cycle of debt and forced labour. The conditions revealed systematic violations of fundamental human rights. The Supreme Court was approached to look into the dire circumstances of the working persons there, and one of the following views of the Court was sustained in the said case. Identify from the following -
Read the given statements and choose the correct option:
Statement 1: In PIL cases, the Court plays a passive role similar to traditional cases.
Statement 2: PIL is primarily focused on individual disputes.
Fatima, a Muslim woman, has been divorced by her husband, Imran, through Talaq. Fatima is now seeking maintenance from Imran for herself and her two minor children. Imran argues that Fatima has remarried and, therefore, is not entitled to any maintenance.
Under Muslim law, which of the following statements is true regarding Fatima’s claim for maintenance?
The remedy of restitution of conjugal rights is given in Section .......... of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955.
In 2020 at Dhorodo village, the Panchayat elections could not happen due to the Covid pandemic while the tenure of the Panchayat was getting over that year itself. Mr. Haribansh represented the people that year at the Panchayat post-dissolution of the Panchayat tenure and made a law exercising the delegated power vide the Panchayati Raj Act of the state to restrict their economic activities per day to 100 only. In which of the following cases is this allowed or restricted?
Which of the following is/are not grounds for judicial review of administrative action?
(1) Illegality
(2) Irrationality
(3) Proportionality
(4) Public opinion
What does "conflict of interest" refer to in professional ethics?
Advocate Mr. X was representing a client, Mr. Y, in a property dispute case. During the proceedings, Advocate Mr. X accepted a bribe from the opposing party to delay the case, causing significant harm to Mr. Y’s interests. Moreover, Mr. X failed to inform his client about critical hearing dates, leading to adverse judgments.
On the basis of the above problem, select the correct option:
The nature of proceedings in cases of professional misconduct:
(1) Criminal in nature
(2) Neither civil nor criminal
(3) Quasi-criminal in nature
(4) Civil in nature
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The concept of "locus standi" is relaxed in PIL cases.
Reason (R): PIL allows any public-spirited person to approach the court on behalf of those who cannot represent themselves.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
Which of the following best defines delegated legislation?
Section 43 of the Companies Act, 2013 provides for ...........
A manufacturing company in the city of Surat named as "X" has been discharging untreated industrial waste into a nearby river, violating the provisions of the Environment Protection Act, 1986 and the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. This has resulted in severe pollution, making the river water unsafe for drinking and harming aquatic life. Local farmers and residents, who rely on the river for irrigation and daily needs, have started facing health issues and crop failures due to the contaminated water. Despite multiple complaints to the local pollution control board, no action has been taken against the company.
Based on the above problem, select the correct answer:
Which of the following Acts is popularly known as Umbrella Legislation?
Which of the following is/are included under Section 2(1)(w) of the Information Technology Act, 2000 describing the Intermediary?
(1) Cyber Cafes
(2) Telecom Regulators
(3) Social Media Platforms
(4) Internet Service Providers
Appropriate procedural safeguards help reduce threats to objectivity and counter any perception of possible bias. Which of the following is/are not procedural safeguard(s)?
(1) Act in a fraudulent manner
(2) Providing peer-review of valuation, if necessary
(3) Non-disclosure of any prior association with the client
(4) Non-disclosure of any possible source of conflict of interest
As per Section 2(84), “Share” means share in the share capital of a company and includes ..........
(1) Debentures
(2) Preference Shares
(3) Stocks
(4) Bonds
Which of the following legislations has been included under the Social Security Code, 2020?
(1) The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961
(2) The Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972
(3) The Payment of Bonus Act, 1965
(4) The Employment Exchanges (Compulsory Notification of Vacancies) Act, 1959
.......... have not been set up under the provisions of the Industrial Dispute Act, 1947 for adjudication of industrial disputes in an organization.
XYZ Textiles Ltd., a manufacturing company, recently terminated 4 workers without providing any compensation. The termination was because of misconduct on the part of the workers. The company issued a show-cause notice and conducted a disciplinary enquiry against them. On the basis of the recommendations of the committee, the services were rejected by the management. Aggrieved by the rejection, the workers filed a complaint in the Labour Court under the provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, claiming retrenchment compensation.
Based on the above problem, select the correct answer:
Malti, a small business owner, runs an online clothing store. Recently, she noticed that her website had been hacked, and her customers' personal information, including names, addresses, and payment details, was stolen. Shortly after, some of her customers reported unauthorized transactions on their accounts. Malti wishes to file a complaint against the incident.
On the basis of the above problem, select the correct option:
Which of the following is/are included under the definition of employer given under The Industrial Relations Code, 2020?
(1) Occupier of the factory
(2) Contractor
(3) Manager of the factory
(4) Managing Director of the factory
Ms J, knowing while taking the lift that driver Mr T was under the influence of alcohol, met with an accident and sustained major injuries. She has filed a case for compensation. Which defence could be claimed by Mr T?
Mr. K is the owner of a building containing a large number of rooms and had derived a considerable income by letting them. Mr. Y is the owner of an adjacent cotton mill which was erected after the occupation by Mr. K. Owing to noise and smoke from the mill, several rooms remain vacated, resulting in loss for Mr. K. Examine the relevant tort for the case.
There was a collision between two buses, one owned by the government and another was a private bus. The private bus was coming from the wrong side, and the government bus was coming rashly, neither slowing down nor stopping after seeing the other bus. Determine the tortious act.
The term “Income” is described in the Income Tax Act, 1961 under ...........
Mr. X deposits ₹65,000 in a term deposit of 5 years with the Post Office to avail tax deduction under Section 80C. Assuming Mr. X does not opt for the concessional tax regime under Section 115BAC of the Income Tax Act, 1961.
On the basis of the above problem, select the correct option:
Read the given statements and choose the correct option.
Statement 1: Agricultural Income is Exempt from Tax under Section 10(1) of the Income Tax Act, 1961.
Statement 2: Tax on Non-Agricultural Income in case of Non-Agricultural Income exceeding the Basic Exemption limit and Agricultural Income exceeding ₹5000 is determined by the Scheme of Partial Integration of Non-Agricultural Income with Agricultural Income.
Ms J, a banker, refuses to honour a cheque of Ms F, though Ms F had a sufficient balance. Yet, Ms F does not suffer any monetary loss. Ms F can file a case under which scenario?
Mr B told Mr A to leave the premises in occupation of Mr A. When Mr A refused, Mr B collected some workmen who surrounded Mr A and threatened to break his neck if he did not leave. Under which tortious act can Mr A file the case?
The concept of invalid guarantee is covered under Sections .........
"A", a real estate developer, entered into a contract with "B", the owner of a piece of prime land, for the purchase of her property. The contract stipulated that "A" would pay ₹50 lakhs in advance and the remaining ₹1 crore within six months. In return, "B" agreed to transfer the title to the land.
However, after receiving the advance payment, "B" refused to execute the sale deed, claiming that she received a better offer from another buyer. "A" demanded enforcement of the contract under the Specific Relief Act, 1963, but "B" denied his claim. "A" has to file a suit in a court of law.
On the basis of the above problem, select the correct answer:
"A" transfers a piece of land to "B" on the condition that "B" shall not transfer the land to anyone else for the next 10 years. In this case, "B" has no right to transfer the land to someone else for the next 10 years.
On the basis of the above problem, select the correct option:
Mr. Rajesh issued a cheque of ₹2,50,000 to his supplier, Mr. Sharma, for the payment of goods purchased. When Mr. Sharma deposited the cheque, it was returned by the bank with the remark “Insufficient Funds.”
On the basis of the above problem, select the correct option:
Rent-free accommodation provided by an employer to an employee is ............
An agreement not enforceable by law is stated to be void under ..........
Which section of the Law of Contract defines, "A proposal may be revoked at any time before the communication of its acceptance is complete as against the proposer, but not afterwards"?
According to the Land Acquisition Act (Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement), 2013, governments can acquire land for:
(i) Strategic purpose.
(ii) Projects for Families Affected by Projects.
(iii) For public-private partnership projects, where government ownership of land will remain with the government.
The Land Acquisition Act, 2013 in India has replaced which earlier legislation?
Soham, an independent software developer, created a mobile app called "FitLife" that provides personalized fitness plans. He registered the app's name and logo under trademark law and copyrighted the app's source code. However, six months after its launch, Soham discovered a competing app called "FitLyfe", with a similar logo and features, being marketed by a large tech company. Soham believes the competing app copied elements of his source code and intentionally used a confusingly similar name and logo to mislead customers.
On the basis of the above problem, select the correct option.
Under trademark law, can Soham claim infringement for the use of a similar name and logo by the competing app?
What is the duration of copyright protection for literary works in India?
Section 31 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 is related to ............
How the recovery of specific immovable property may be enforced?
By which Constitutional Amendment was clause (4B) inserted into Article 16?
Which of the following statement is correct about 106th Constitutional Amendment Act?
(i) It introduces Article 239A by which seats are reserved for women in legislative assembly of the national capital territory of Delhi.
(ii) It introduces Article 338 providing for the reservation of seats for women in the house of people.
(iii) It also adds Article 334A which states that the said amendment will commence after the first census taken after the commencement of the act.
(iv) The above-stated shall cease to have effect on the expiration of a period of 15 years from commencement.
The Parliament enacts the "Fair Housing Act, 2024," which includes the following provisions:
(1) Section 3: Prohibits discrimination in renting or selling houses based on religion, caste, or gender.
Section 6: Imposes a penalty of ₹10,000 for discrimination.
Section 10: Makes it mandatory for landlords to disclose the religious background of all tenants in the previous 10 years.
A citizen challenges Section 10, arguing that it violates the right to privacy under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution.
The Supreme Court declares Section 10 unconstitutional but upholds the other provisions of the law.
What principle did the court apply in this decision?
The reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India relating to the accounts of a State shall be submitted to the ______.
Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India declares that the Supreme Court shall be a court of record?
In which case was a registered society held to be an "authority" for the purpose of Article 12?
In which case did the Supreme Court of India hold that fundamental rights cannot be waived?
Who can initiate impeachment proceedings against the President of India?
Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 considers force to be "Criminal Force":
According to Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, what is the maximum fine for making or using a document that resembles a currency note or a bank note under section 182(1)?
According to the provisions of the Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the right of private defence of property extends to the voluntary causing of death or of any other harm to the wrong-doer in which of the offences committed or attempting to be committed?
1. Robbery
2. House-breaking after sunset
3. Theft, mischief or house trespass
Rajesh, in a heated argument with Sunil, strikes him with a heavy iron rod. The blow fractures Sunil's arm, and he is unable to use it for several weeks. The medical report confirms that the fracture amounts to grievous hurt.
Which of the following offences has Rajesh committed?
Amit, intending to cause the death of Vijay, attacks him with a knife. Vijay sustains severe injuries and dies on the spot. The investigation reveals that Amit acted with the knowledge that his actions were likely to cause death. However, there is no evidence of premeditation or intent to murder Vijay.
Which of the following offences has Amit committed?
Which article deals with the powers, privileges, and immunities of Parliament and its members?
Which Constitutional Amendment Act inserted provisions related to GST?
A new offense of 'Snatching' has been introduced by the Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS). Which section of the BNS defines 'Snatching' as an offense?
Consider the following statements and answer the question given below:
Mr. Patel, being a police officer, receives a complaint and information that Raju was involved in a bank robbery and has helped hide the stolen valuables in his farm, as stated by two villagers.
The Police Officer Mr. Patel may arrest Raju without a warrant when –
(1) Raju can be arrested only if he commits a non-cognizable offence in the presence of Mr. Patel.
(2) Since a reasonable complaint has been received and there is strong suspicion based on villagers' testimony, he can be immediately arrested.
(3) Raju can be arrested only when he tries to escape or run away.
(4) Raju can be arrested so as to prevent him from making any inducement, threat or promise to any person acquainted with facts and circumstances.
Which of the above is/are correct statement(s)?
BNSS introduced the provision of registration of FIR relating to commission of cognizable offense irrespective of area where the offense is committed. This FIR is known as _____.
The BNSS mandates a forensic team to visit the crime scenes to collect evidence for offenses punishable with imprisonment for at least how many years?
Which section of the BNSS allows for trials in absentia of proclaimed offenders?
Which section of BNSS facilitates trials and proceedings to be held in electronic mode?
Which section of BNSS repeals the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
Amit and Rani decide to break into a house at night with the intent of stealing valuables. They use a crowbar to force open the door, but before they can take anything, the owner of the house, Vikram, unexpectedly arrives home. Amit and Rani panic and run away without stealing anything. The police arrest them the following morning based on a complaint from Vikram. Which of the following offenses under the BNS have Amit and Rani committed?
Punishment for rape in cases where the victim is a woman below the age of 16 or 12 is included in which section of the BNS?
Which section of BNSS introduces provisions for identifying, attaching, and forfeiting the property of proclaimed offenders located outside India?
Which section of BNSS places restrictions on the adjournment of trials, ensuring the expeditious resolution of cases?
A suit is pending in District Court A, but one of the parties, Meera, requests its transfer to District Court B, claiming that the judge in Court A is biased. The opposing party, Ravi, objects, stating that the request is baseless. Who has the authority to decide whether the suit can be transferred?
Maya files a suit in Court A for the recovery of a sum of money from her neighbour, Neha. During the proceedings, Neha requests that a third party, Seema, be added to the suit, as Seema is allegedly liable for the debt. Maya objects, claiming that Seema is not a necessary party. Court A then reviews the application and decides that Seema should indeed be included as a defendant.
Which principle of the CPC is applied in this situation?
Which section of the CPC allows for the appeal from original decrees?
Under the CPC, what is the maximum time limit for filing a written statement in a suit?
Which section of the CPC provides exemption of the President of India and the Governors of states from personal appearance in court?
What is the term used for a court's power to transfer a case from one court to another under the Code of Civil Procedure?
Under which order of the CPC the procedure for summary suits is provided?
Which section mandates State Government prepare and notify a witness protection scheme for the state with a view to ensure the protection of witnesses?
Which section of BNSS mandates the appointment of a designated police officer in each district and police station to provide information about arrested individuals to the general public?
Which section of the CPC provides for the payment of compensatory costs?
Which word is inserted in Section 22 of the BSA that was not present in Section 24 of the Evidence Act?
Existence of course of business when relevant is discussed in ........
In a criminal trial, Rajesh is accused of theft. During the investigation, the police recover a stolen laptop from a location known to be frequented by Rajesh. His fingerprints are found on the laptop. According to the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, how should the court interpret this piece of evidence?
Where a document is executed in several parts like printing, lithography or photography, video recording, computer resource as electronic or digital records, the BSA 2023 classifies each part as a .........
Which section of BSA provides that no court shall require any communication between the Ministers and the President of India to be produced before it?
According to Section 46 of Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, when is character evidence relevant in civil cases?
Which section of the CPC deals with the principle of "res judicata"?
........... of the CPC provides for an interpleader suit.
Which of the following is a characteristic of mediation?
A dispute arises between ABC Ltd. and XYZ Pvt. Ltd. regarding a contract that both parties had entered into. The agreement includes an arbitration clause, which states that any disputes shall be referred to arbitration. However, the parties fail to agree on the appointment of an arbitrator.
Which of the following provisions of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 would be applicable to resolve the issue of the appointment of an arbitrator?
Which of the following is not an advantage of using ADR?
Kiran and Meera are involved in an arbitration, where Kiran was awarded Rs. 10 lakhs as compensation. Meera refuses to pay the amount, arguing that the award was not enforceable because of certain procedural irregularities in the arbitration process. Kiran decides to approach the court to enforce the arbitral award.
Which of the following provisions of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 governs the enforcement of an arbitral award?
As per Section 78(2) of the BSA 2023, presumption about the officer signing or certifying a document is:
Under Section 146 of the BSA 2023, when are leading questions permissible in the court proceedings?
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