AIBE 20 Question Paper with Answer key and Solution PDF is available to download here. AIBE 20 was successfully conducted by Bar Council of India (BCI) on November 30, 2025. The AIBE question paper comprised a total of 100 questions according to AIBE Syllabus.
The BCI has officially released the AIBE Provisional Answer key 2025 on the official website, allindiabarexamination.com.
AIBE 20 Question Paper with Answer Key and Solution PDF (Set A)
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AIBE 20 Questions with Solutions – Set A
If a bailiff executes an eviction based on a civil court order later declared void for lack of jurisdiction, what protection does Section 78 of the Indian Penal Code provide?
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, what is the maximum number of consecutive days an offender may be kept in solitary confinement at a time?
According to the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, what is the fixed amount of compensation payable in the event of death caused by a motor vehicle accident under no-fault liability?
Assertion (A): An employee can be deemed to be in continuous service for one year only if he has worked for 365 days in the preceding twelve months without any interruption.
Reason (R): Under the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972, continuous service may also include periods of interruption due to sickness, accident, leave, lay-off, strike, or lock-out not caused by the employee's fault.
Statement 1: Under the Indian Penal Code, if a person harbours an offender who has escaped custody for an offence punishable with imprisonment up to 3 years, he shall be punished with imprisonment up to 7 years.
Statement 2: The law provides an exception for harbouring or concealing by the husband or wife of the offender.
If a person attempts an offence punishable with a maximum of 10 years imprisonment, what is the maximum years of imprisonment that can be imposed under Section 62 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
A juvenile aged 14 years is brought before the court for an offence not punishable with death or imprisonment for life. Under which provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, will the case primarily fall?
Under Section 290(1) of Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, within how many days from the date of framing of charge can an accused file an application for plea bargaining?
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, if a person is ordered to pay a fine of ₹4,000 but fails to do so, what is the maximum simple imprisonment the court may impose on the defaulter?
According to Section 18 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, what is the minimum period of practice as an advocate required to be considered eligible for appointment as a Public Prosecutor or Additional Public Prosecutor?
Under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, when can facts that are otherwise irrelevant be considered relevant?
What condition must be satisfied for prior evidence to be relevant under Section 33 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
During a court trial, the defence lawyer objects to certain papers being admitted as evidence. The judge states that only public documents under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 can be accepted without strict proof. Which category of documents falls under public documents?
Which condition must be satisfied for things said or done by one conspirator to be admissible against another under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?
As per Section 30 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, if a Magistrate sentenced a person to two years’ imprisonment and a fine, what is the maximum imprisonment he may impose in default of payment of the fine?
As per the Constitution of India, after the 86th Constitutional Amendment, which directive principle was modified to ensure early childhood care and education below the age of six?
According to the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, who can direct the Court that passed the decree to take security when an execution order is challenged in appeal?
Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, how many High Court Judges constitute the judicial membership of the Rule Committee?
According to the Copyright Act, 1957, what is ordinarily the maximum punishment for copyright infringement under Section 63?
As per the Constitution of India, a linguistic community in India seeks to preserve its unique script and literature. Which constitutional provision guarantees the right to conserve the same?
Under Section 58 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, what is the maximum period of detention in civil prison for a decree amount exceeding ₹5,000?
Which of the following situations falls within Section 58(1)(b) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
A civil suit is filed against Ajay, and the court issues summons requiring him to appear. After receiving the summons, Ajay consults his lawyer to understand the timeline for filing his written statement of defence under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. Within how many days from the date of service of summons must he submit his written statement?
How long does the registered address furnished under Section 14A(1) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, remain valid if not changed?
According to Section 25(a) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, what happens if the claimant fails to submit his statement of claim without sufficient cause?
If a case is transmitted to the Central Government under Section 10 of the Special Marriage Act, 1954, what is the time limit for solemnizing the marriage after its decision?
What is the maximum term of imprisonment prescribed under Section 31 of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 for breach of protection order?
Under which provision of the Indian Constitution can a Public Interest Litigation (PIL) be filed directly in the Supreme Court?
Under the Land Acquisition Act, 1894, what is the minimum period that must elapse between the publication of notice and the appearance of persons interested before the Collector?
Under which provision can a citizen file a public case in the Court of Magistrate regarding issues of public interest?
According to Section 44AA(2)(i) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, a person carrying on business must maintain books of account if income from business or profession exceeds:
Under the Patents Act, 1970, which situation prevents a patent application from being published even after expiry of the prescribed period?
Given below are two statements — Assertion (A) and Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Any person having an interest in a newspaper declared forfeited may apply to the High Court to set aside the declaration within two months of its publication in the Official Gazette.
Reason (R): The Special Bench of the High Court to hear such applications must always consist of exactly three judges, regardless of the strength of that High Court.
In the context of the above assertion and reason under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, which one is correct?
Read the statements below and choose the correct option:
Statement 1: Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, admissions are generally relevant and may be proved against the person making them, but cannot ordinarily be proved by or on behalf of that person.
Statement 2: An admission can still be proved on behalf of the person making it if it relates to the existence of a state of mind or body, made at or about the time when such condition existed, and is supported by conduct showing its truthfulness.
Which type of allowance qualifies for deduction under Section 16(ii) of the Income-tax Act, 1961?
Read the given statements and choose the correct option.
Statement 1: Under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, a negotiable instrument made, drawn, accepted, or transferred without consideration creates no obligation of payment between the parties to the transaction.
Statement 2: According to the same Act, if the consideration for which a negotiable instrument was issued fails in part, the holder in immediate relation is entitled to recover only the proportionate amount corresponding to the consideration actually received.
Under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, when an offence is committed by a company, every person in charge and responsible at the time is deemed guilty, unless he proves lack of knowledge or due diligence.
Conclusions:
I. A company as well as its responsible officers may be held liable for environmental offences under the Act.
II. An officer of a company can never escape liability once the company is found guilty of an offence.
Which one of the following is correct?
Under Section 24(a) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, what percentage of the annual value of an income from house property is allowed as a standard deduction?
After a government notification is issued for acquiring farmland under the Land Acquisition Act, 1894, the owner notices decreasing income from crops until possession is taken. What type of loss is compensable?
According to Section 35A of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, what is the maximum amount a Court can award as compensatory costs in ordinary cases?
According to the Indian Contract Act, 1872, when is the communication of an acceptance complete against the proposer?
Rahul rents a shop in the city for running a retail business. The landlord decides to terminate the lease. As the lease is not for agriculture or manufacturing and there is no special contract, how many days' notice is required under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
According to the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, what is the maximum sentence of imprisonment that a Magistrate may pass in a summary trial under Section 143?
A Statement is followed by Conclusions I and II.
Statement: Under Section 157 of the Companies Act, 2013, a company must, within fifteen days of receiving intimation under Section 156, furnish the Director Identification Number (DIN) of its directors to the Registrar. Failure attracts penalties.
Conclusions:
I. If a company fails to furnish the DIN, it can be penalized.
II. Every officer of the company in default is also liable for penalties.
Which one is correct?
Read the statements related to the Information Technology Act, 2000 and choose the correct option.
Statement 1: A Digital Signature Certificate may be suspended by the Certifying Authority on the request of the subscriber, authorized representative, or in public interest.
Statement 2: A Digital Signature Certificate can remain suspended indefinitely without giving the subscriber any opportunity of being heard.
A Statement is followed by two Conclusions, I and II.
Statement: According to the Child and Adolescent Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, the Government credits ₹15,000 to the Rehabilitation Fund for each child or adolescent for whom fine has been recovered from the employer. This amount may be deposited or invested, and the interest is also payable to the child or adolescent.
Conclusions:
I. The child or adolescent is entitled not only to the credited amount but also to the interest accrued on it.
II. The Government is not required to deposit any money other than what is collected as fines from the employer.
Which one is correct?
Given below are two statements, labelled Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 prescribes the death penalty for certain forms of gang rape.
Reason (R): The purpose of this provision is to make all sexual offences non-bailable.
Which one is correct?
Given below are two statements, labelled Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, if the proclaimed person appears within the period specified in the proclamation, the Court shall release the attached property.
Reason (R): Under the same law, attachment is intended to compel appearance, not to permanently deprive a person of his property.
Which one is correct?
Read the given Statements and choose the correct option.
Statement 1: An arbitration agreement must be in writing and may exist in contracts, letters, telex, telegrams, or electronic communications.
Statement 2: An arbitration agreement may be implied solely from conduct without any written record.
A Statement is followed by two Conclusions, I and II.
Statement: Under the Advocates Act, 1961, if the term of a State Bar Council expires without an election, the Bar Council of India forms a Special Committee that functions until a new Council is elected. Elections must be held within six months unless extended by the Bar Council of India.
Conclusions:
I. The Special Committee can handle pending disciplinary matters of the State Bar Council.
II. The Bar Council of India may extend the six-month period for holding elections for recorded reasons.
Which one is correct?
Read the given statements and choose the correct option.
Statement 1: Under the Income-tax Act, 1961, a deduction equal to 30% of the annual value is allowed while computing income from house property.
Statement 2: Where the property has been acquired or constructed with borrowed capital, the maximum deduction for interest payable on such capital is capped at ₹2,00,000, subject to conditions.
Given below are two statements, labelled Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Under the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, a daughter in a Joint Hindu Family governed by Mitakshara Law becomes a coparcener by birth in her own right, just like a son.
Reason (R): This provision grants daughters the same rights, liabilities, and disabilities in coparcenary property as those of sons.
As per the Indian Contract Act, 1872, an acceptance must be absolute and unqualified. What is the legal effect if an offeree's response introduces a new term?
The Indian Contract Act, 1872, provides for specific situations where an agreement without consideration is not void. Which of the following is valid despite lack of consideration?
In the context of delegated legislation, which judicial doctrine prevents a legislature from conferring “uncontrolled legislative power” on the administration?
For a petition for nullity of marriage under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, on the ground that consent was obtained by fraud, what is a statutory bar to granting the decree?
In the absence of an agreement between the parties, the arbitration proceedings are said to have commenced under Section 21 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996:
Which of the following public interest litigations expanded Article 21 of the Indian Constitution to include the right to enjoyment of pollution-free water and air?
Which Public Interest Litigation case resulted in the Supreme Court of India laying down the principle of 'Absolute Liability'?
In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court of India hold that the rule of nemo judex in causa sua is subject to the doctrine of necessity?
As per Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 for Res Judicata to be applicable on a subsequent suit, the former suit must satisfy the following conditions:
I. has been finally decided.
II. can only be instituted prior to the subsequent suit.
III. relates to the same matter directly and substantially in issue in the subsequent suit.
IV. is between the same parties, or between parties under whom they or any of them claim.
Select the correct answer.
Where the decree is for payment of money, execution by detention in prison shall not be ordered unless the Court is satisfied that:
I. the judgment-debtor is likely to abscond or leave jurisdiction.
II. the judgment-debtor has dishonestly transferred property before the suit.
III. the decree is for a sum for which the judgment-debtor was in a fiduciary capacity to account.
IV. the judgment-debtor has or had the means to pay substantial amount but neglected to pay.
Select the correct answer.
As per the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a decree ex parte can be set aside against a defendant if:
I. summons was not duly served.
II. defendant was prevented by sufficient cause from appearing when suit was called on.
III. there was irregularity in summons though defendant had notice of hearing date.
IV. without notice being served on the opposite party.
Select the correct answer.
When is a confession made by a person in police custody admissible under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?
Which Section of The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 pertains to opinions of experts?
Which of the following statements is incorrect as per The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?
As per the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, two persons are said to be within the “degrees of prohibited relationship” if:
I. one is a lineal ascendant of the other, including relationship by adoption.
II. one was the wife or husband of a lineal ascendant or descendant of the other, including relationship by half blood or full blood.
III. one was the wife of the brother or of the father’s or mother’s brother or of the grandfather’s or grandmother’s brother of the other.
IV. the two are brother and sister, uncle and niece, aunt and nephew, or children of two brothers and sisters.
Select the correct answer.
Which Article of the Constitution of India lays down the fundamental duty of every citizen to protect and improve the natural environment?
The grounds for decree for dissolution of marriage under Section 2 of the Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act, 1939 are:
I. whereabouts of the husband have not been known for two years.
II. husband has been sentenced to imprisonment for a period of five years.
III. husband has failed to perform marital obligations for two years without reasonable cause.
IV. husband has neglected or failed to maintain his wife for one year.
Select the correct answer.
As per the Information Technology Act, 2000, an “intermediary” means any person who receives, stores, transmits, or provides service with respect to electronic records on behalf of another person, and includes:
I. telecom service providers.
II. search engines.
III. cyber cafes.
IV. online-auction sites.
Select the correct answer.
Under Section 37 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, which of the following orders is not appealable?
Under Section 9A of the Advocates Act, 1961, a legal aid committee constituted by a Bar Council shall consist of:
Which Section of the Advocates Act, 1961 provides for the disciplinary powers of the Bar Council of India?
Match List I (General Defences in Tort) with List II (Leading Cases) and select the correct answer:
The Central Consumer Protection Council, as provided under Section 3(2) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, shall consist of:
In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court of India hold that the Preamble is not part of the Constitution?
Which Article of the Constitution of India relates to laws made by Parliament to give effect to treaties and international agreements?
In which of the following judgments was the issue of ‘Right to Privacy’ discussed by the Supreme Court of India?
I. Kharak Singh v. State of Uttar Pradesh (1963)
II. PUCL v. Union of India (1997)
III. Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017)
IV. M.P. Sharma v. Satish Chandra (1954)
Which action is required if territory is ceded to any other country by the Union of India?
Can the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court under Article 143 be considered a judicial precedent?
In a criminal trial of defamation, the trial court (High Court in this case) has restrained the publication of any news about the case. Which of the following constitutional powers has the High Court exercised while passing the given order?
Which provision was used by the Supreme Court to declare ‘Right to Information’ a fundamental right for all citizens of India?
Which Schedule of the Constitution deals with ‘Validation of certain Acts & Regulations’?
Consider the following statements about Article 32 of the Constitution and select the correct answer:
I. The Article is silent about the locus standi regarding who may approach the Court.
II. The Article is silent about the opposite party against whom relief may be granted.
III. The Article creates scope for even a sixth type of writ.
Under Articles 129 and 215, Supreme Court and High Courts are Courts of Record with contempt powers. What is true about the lower judiciary in this context?
The Supreme Court of India in R.K. Anand v. Registrar, Delhi High Court (2009) 8 SCC 106 held an advocate guilty of misconduct for:
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, what happens if the principal debtor leaves part of the debt unpaid and there are two or more co-sureties?
Under the Specific Relief Act, 1963, when can a defendant in possession of movable property be compelled to deliver it to the plaintiff?
Read the following statements and choose the correct option:
Statement 1: Under the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, a Joint Administrative Tribunal for two or more States exercises the same jurisdiction, powers, and authority as an Administrative Tribunal for those States.
Statement 2: For the purposes of contempt, a Tribunal exercises powers similar to those of a High Court, and references to “High Court” in the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 are construed to include such Tribunals.
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): A Money Bill can be introduced only in the House of the People (Lok Sabha) and not in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha).
Reason (R): The Council of States may only make recommendations on a Money Bill within 14 days, but the House of the People may accept or reject them, and in either case, the Bill is deemed to be passed.
A company registered under the Companies Act, 2013, is required to file a declaration of commencement of business before starting operations. The directors ignore this obligation, and the firm commences business without filing the declaration. How much penalty can be imposed on the company by the Registrar for such non-compliance?
If multiple offences carry different punishments but it is unclear which one has been committed, how does Section 72 of the Indian Penal Code ensure proportional justice?
Mr. X owns a bakery where he employs Y, a 16-year-old adolescent. At first, X gives Y every Sunday off as his weekly holiday. After two months, X decides to change the weekly holiday to Wednesday and pastes a notice about this change in the bakery wall. According to the Child and Adolescent Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, this change is:
Which person will not be treated as a consumer under the definition of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019?
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The President of India has the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment, or to suspend, remit, or commute the sentence of any person convicted of an offence in cases where the punishment is by a Court Martial or where the sentence is death.
Reason (R): This power under Article 72 overrides and completely nullifies the powers of the Governor to commute or remit a death sentence under State law.
Under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, a Magistrate may issue a protection order to prevent the respondent from committing acts of domestic violence. Which of the following conclusions follow?
According to the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, which factor determines the jurisdiction of the licensing authority in applying for a driving license?
If a convict sentenced to life imprisonment is being considered for remission under Section 57 of the Indian Penal Code, what equivalent term of years is applied by the Court?
According to the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972, under what circumstance is the completion of five years of continuous service not mandatory for payment of gratuity to an employee?
AIBE 2025 Difficulty Level Analysis (Expected)
| AIBE Subject | Expected No. of Questions | Difficulty Level | Section Analysis |
| Constitutional Law | 10–12 | Moderate | Conceptual questions; some analytical. |
| IPC (Indian Penal Code) | 8–10 | Easy–Moderate | Mostly direct, section-based questions. |
| CrPC | 8–10 | Moderate | Procedural and chronology-based questions. |
| Evidence Act | 6–8 | Moderate–Tough | Application-heavy; trickier than other sections. |
| Contract Act | 8–10 | Easy–Moderate | Straightforward principles and examples. |
| Tort Law | 4–5 | Easy | Direct, theory-based and scoring. |
| Family Law | 6–8 | Easy | Basic concepts; repeated patterns. |
| Professional Ethics | 6–8 | Easy–Moderate | High-scoring; predictable rules-based questions. |
| Environmental Law | 4–5 | Easy | Mostly factual questions. |
| Public International Law | 4–5 | Easy–Moderate | Mostly basic and memory-based. |
| Cyber Law | 2–3 | Easy | Very direct and predictable. |
| Labour Law | 4–6 | Easy | Simple act-based questions. |
| Property Law | 3–5 | Moderate | Requires conceptual clarity. |
| Company Law | 2–3 | Easy–Moderate | Very straightforward. |
| Administrative Law | 2–3 | Easy | Basic theory questions. |
| Human Rights | 2–3 | Easy | Memory-based, mostly direct. |
| Arbitration & Conciliation | 2–3 | Easy–Moderate | Direct provisions; scoring. |
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