BITSAT 2012 Question Paper PDF is available for download. BITSAT 2012 was conducted in online CBT mode by BITS Pilani. BITSAT 2012 Question Paper had 150 questions to be attempted in 3 hours.

BITSAT 2012 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

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Question 1:

What is the moment of inertia of a solid sphere of density \( \rho \) and radius \( R \) about its diameter?

  • (1) \( \frac{105}{176} R^5 \rho \)
  • (2) \( \frac{105}{176} R^2 \rho \)
  • (3) \( \frac{176}{105} R^2 \rho \)
  • (4) \( \frac{176}{105} R^5 \rho \)

Question 2:

A body moves with uniform acceleration, then which of the following graph is correct?




Question 3:

A projectile can have the same range \( R \) for two angles of projection. If \( t_1 \) and \( t_2 \) are the times of flight in two cases, then what is the product of two times of flight?

  • (1) \( t_1 t_2 \propto R \)
  • (2) \( t_1 t_2 \propto R^2 \)
  • (3) \( t_1 t_2 \propto R^3 \)
  • (4) \( t_1 t_2 \propto R^4 \)

Question 4:

A horizontal overhead powerline is at a height of 4m from the ground and carries a current of 100A from east to west. The magnetic field directly below it on the ground is \( \mu_0 I / 2 \pi r \). What is the magnetic field at this point?

  • (1) \( 2 \times 10^{-7} \, T \) southward
  • (2) \( 5 \times 10^{-7} \, T \) northward
  • (3) \( 5 \times 10^{-7} \, T \) southward
  • (4) \( 2 \times 10^{-7} \, T \) northward

Question 5:

A man of mass 100 kg is standing on a platform of mass 200 kg, which is kept on a smooth ice surface. If the man starts moving on the platform with a speed 30 m/sec relative to the platform, calculate with what velocity relative to the ice the platform will recoil?

  • (1) 5 m/sec
  • (2) 10 m/sec
  • (3) 15 m/sec
  • (4) 20 m/sec

Question 6:

If the unit of force and length be each increased by four times, then the unit of energy is increased by:

  • (1) 16 times
  • (2) 8 times
  • (3) 2 times
  • (4) 4 times

Question 7:

Which of the following must be known in order to determine the power output of an automobile?

  • (1) Final velocity and height
  • (2) Mass and amount of work performed
  • (3) Force exerted and distance of motion
  • (4) Work performed and elapsed time of work

Question 8:

If the force is given by \( F = at + bt^2 \) with \( t \) as time, then the dimensions of \( a \) and \( b \) are:

  • (1) [MLT\(^-4\)] and [MLT\(^-3\)]
  • (2) [MLT\(^-3\)] and [MLT\(^-4\)]
  • (3) [MLT\(^-3\)] and [MLT\(^-2\)]
  • (4) [MLT\(^-2\)] and [MLT\(^-3\)]

Question 9:

A wheel of radius \( R \) rolls on the ground with a uniform velocity \( v \). The relative acceleration of topmost point of the wheel with respect to the bottom most point is:

  • (1) \( \frac{v^2}{R} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{v^2}{2R} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{4v^2}{R} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{v^2}{R} \)

Question 10:

If the radius of the earth were to shrink by one percent, its mass remaining the same, the value of \( g \) on the earth’s surface would:

  • (1) increase by 0.5%
  • (2) increase by 2%
  • (3) decrease by 0.5%
  • (4) decrease by 2%

Question 11:

The Young's modulus of a perfectly rigid body is:

  • (1) unity
  • (2) zero
  • (3) infinity
  • (4) some finite non-zero constant

Question 12:

An ice block floats in a liquid whose density is less than water. A part of block is outside the liquid. When whole of ice has melted, the liquid level will:

  • (1) rise
  • (2) go down
  • (3) remain same
  • (4) first rise then go down

Question 13:

A large drop of oil (density 0.8 g/cm³ and viscosity \( \eta_0 \)) floats up through a column of another liquid (density 1.2 g/cm³ and viscosity \( \eta_L \)). Assuming that the two liquids do not mix, the velocity with which the oil drop rises will depend on:

  • (1) \( \eta_0 \) only
  • (2) \( \eta_L \) only
  • (3) both on \( \eta_0 \) and \( \eta_L \)
  • (4) neither \( \eta_0 \) nor \( \eta_L \)

Question 14:

A solid body of constant heat capacity 1 J/°C is being heated by keeping it in contact with reservoirs in two ways:

  • (1) Sequentially keeping in contact with 2 reservoirs such that each reservoir supplies same amount of heat.
  • (2) Sequentially keeping in contact with 8 reservoirs such that each reservoir supplies same amount of heat.
  • (3) Sequentially keeping in contact with 2 reservoirs such that each reservoir supplies different amount of heat.
  • (4) Sequentially keeping in contact with 8 reservoirs such that each reservoir supplies different amount of heat.

Question 15:

Which of the following process is possible according to the first law of thermodynamics?

  • (1) \( W > 0, Q < 0, \Delta U = 0 \)
  • (2) \( W > 0, Q < 0, \Delta U > 0 \)
  • (3) \( W > 0, Q > 0, \Delta U < 0 \)
  • (4) \( W < 0, Q > 0, \Delta U < 0 \)

Question 16:

For an isothermal expansion of a perfect gas, the value of \( \frac{\Delta P}{P} \) is equal to:

  • (1) \( -\gamma^{1/2} \frac{\Delta V}{V} \)
  • (2) \( -\gamma \frac{\Delta V}{V} \)
  • (3) \( \gamma \frac{\Delta V}{V} \)
  • (4) \( -\gamma^{1/2} \frac{\Delta V}{V} \)

Question 17:

A sample of ideal monoatomic gas is taken round the cycle ABCA as shown in the figure. The work done during the cycle is:

  • (1) \( 3P \Delta V \)
  • (2) \( 3P V \)
  • (3) \( 9P \Delta V \)
  • (4) \( 6P \Delta V \)

Question 18:

The average translational kinetic energy of \( O_2 \) (molar mass 32) molecules at a particular temperature is 0.048 eV. The translational kinetic energy of \( N_2 \) (molar mass 28) molecules in eV at the same temperature is:

  • (1) 0.0015 eV
  • (2) 0.003 eV
  • (3) 0.048 eV
  • (4) 0.768 eV

Question 19:

For a gas if ratio of specific heats at constant pressure and volume is \( \gamma \), then value of degrees of freedom is:

  • (1) \( 3\gamma - 1 \)
  • (2) \( 2\gamma - 1 \)
  • (3) \( \frac{9}{2} (\gamma - 1) \)
  • (4) \( \frac{5}{2} (\gamma - 1) \)

Question 20:

One end of a long metallic wire of length \( L \) tied to the ceiling. The other end is tied with a massless spring of spring constant \( K \). A mass hangs freely from the free end of the spring. The area of cross section and the Young’s modulus of the wire are \( A \) and \( Y \) respectively. If the mass slightly pulled down and released, it will oscillate with a time period \( T \) equal to:

  • (1) \( 2\pi \sqrt{\frac{m}{K}} \)
  • (2) \( 2\pi \sqrt{\frac{m(YA + KL)}{YAK}} \)
  • (3) \( 2\pi \sqrt{\frac{mYA}{KL}} \)
  • (4) \( 2\pi \sqrt{\frac{m}{L}} \)

Question 21:

The transverse displacement \( y(x, t) \) of a wave on a string is given by \( y(x,t) = e^{-(x^2 + t^2)} \sin(kx - \omega t) \). This represents a:

  • (1) wave moving in \( -x \) direction, speed \( \sqrt{\frac{b}{a}} \)
  • (2) standing wave of frequency \( \sqrt{b} \)
  • (3) standing wave of frequency \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{b}} \)
  • (4) wave moving in \( +x \) direction, speed \( \sqrt{\frac{a}{b}} \)

Question 22:

A sound source is moving towards a stationary listener with \( \frac{1}{10} \)th of the speed of sound. The ratio of apparent to read frequency is:

  • (1) \( \left( \frac{9}{10} \right)^2 \)
  • (2) \( \left( \frac{10}{9} \right) \)
  • (3) \( \left( \frac{11}{10} \right)^2 \)
  • (4) \( \left( \frac{10}{9} \right)^2 \)

Question 23:

In a region of space having a uniform electric field \( E \), a hemispherical bowl of radius \( r \) is placed. The electric flux \( \Phi \) through the bowl is:

  • (1) \( 2 \pi r^2 E \)
  • (2) \( 4 \pi r^2 E \)
  • (3) \( 2 r^2 E \)
  • (4) \( \pi r^2 E \)

Question 24:

The electric field intensity just sufficient to balance the earth’s gravitational attraction on an electron will be:

  • (1) \( -5.6 \times 10^{-11} \, N/C \)
  • (2) \( -4.8 \times 10^{-15} \, N/C \)
  • (3) \( -1.6 \times 10^{-19} \, N/C \)
  • (4) \( -3.2 \times 10^{-19} \, N/C \)

Question 25:

Two capacitors \( C_1 \) and \( C_2 \) are charged to 120 V and 200 V respectively. It is found that by connecting them together the potential on each one can be made zero. Then:

  • (1) \( 5 C_1 = 3 C_2 \)
  • (2) \( 3 C_1 = 5 C_2 \)
  • (3) \( C_1 + C_2 = 0 \)
  • (4) \( 9 C_1 = 4 C_2 \)

Question 26:

Three voltmeters \( A \), \( B \), and \( C \) having resistances \( R \), \( 1.5R \), and \( 3R \), respectively, are connected as shown. When some potential difference is applied between X and Y, the voltmeter readings are \( V_A \), \( V_B \), and \( V_C \) respectively. Then:

  • (1) \( V_A \neq V_B = V_C \)
  • (2) \( V_A = V_B = V_C \)
  • (3) \( V_A \neq V_B \neq V_C \)
  • (4) \( V_A = V_B \neq V_C \)

Question 27:

The range of the particle when launched at an angle of 15° with the horizontal is 1.5 km. What is the range of the projectile when launched at an angle of 45° to the horizontal?

  • (1) 1.5 km
  • (2) 3.0 km
  • (3) 6.0 km
  • (4) 0.75 km

Question 28:

If \( m \) is magnetic moment and \( B \) is the magnetic field, then the torque is given by:

  • (1) \( \mathbf{m} \cdot \mathbf{B} \)
  • (2) \( \mathbf{m} \times \mathbf{B} \)
  • (3) \( \left| \mathbf{m} \right| \left| \mathbf{B} \right| \)
  • (4) \( \frac{\mathbf{m}}{\left| \mathbf{B} \right|} \)

Question 29:

Magnetic moment of bar magnet is \( M \). The work done to turn the magnet by 90° of magnet in direction of magnetic field \( B \) will be:

  • (1) zero
  • (2) \( \frac{1}{2} MB \)
  • (3) \( 2 MB \)
  • (4) \( MB \)

Question 30:

The laws of electromagnetic induction have been used in the construction of a:

  • (1) galvanometer
  • (2) voltmeter
  • (3) electric motor
  • (4) generator

Question 31:

The impedance of a circuit consists of 3 \( \Omega \) resistance and 4 \( \Omega \) reactance. The power factor of the circuit is:

  • (1) 0.4
  • (2) 0.6
  • (3) 0.8
  • (4) 1.0

Question 32:

The r.m.s. value of potential difference \( V \) shown in the figure is:

  • (1) \( V_0 \)
  • (2) \( \frac{V_0}{\sqrt{2}} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{V_0}{2} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{V_0}{\sqrt{3}} \)

Question 33:

A ray of light is incident at the glass-water interface at an angle \( i \), it emerges finally parallel to the surface of water, then the value of \( \mu_g \) would be:

  • (1) \( \frac{4}{3} \sin i \)
  • (2) \( \frac{1}{\sin i} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{4}{3} \)
  • (4) 1

Question 34:

A mica slit of thickness t and refractive index \( \mu \) is introduced in the ray from the first source \( S_1 \). By how much distance of fringes pattern will be displaced?

  • (1) \( \frac{D}{\mu - 1} t \)
  • (2) \( \frac{D}{\mu} t \)
  • (3) \( \frac{D}{\mu - 1} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{D}{\mu} \)

Question 35:

In a Young's double slit experiment the angular width of a fringe formed on a distant screen is \( 1^\circ \). The wavelength of the light used is \( 6280 \, Å \). What is the distance between the two coherent sources?

  • (1) 0.036 mm
  • (2) 0.12 mm
  • (3) 6 mm
  • (4) 4 mm

Question 36:

A light having wavelength 300 nm falls on a metal surface. The work function of metal is 2.54 eV, what is stopping potential?

  • (1) 23 V
  • (2) 2.59 V
  • (3) 1.59 V
  • (4) 1.29 V

Question 37:

If the total binding energies of \( ^{235}U \) and \( ^{233}U \) nuclei are 2.22, 28.3, 392 and 1786 MeV respectively, identify the most stable nucleus of the following.

  • (1) \( ^{56}Fe \)
  • (2) \( ^{1}H \)
  • (3) \( ^{235}U \)
  • (4) \( ^{4}He \)

Question 38:

An oscillator is nothing but an amplifier with:

  • (1) positive feedback
  • (2) negative feedback
  • (3) large gain
  • (4) no feedback

Question 39:

In an experiment on photoelectric effect photons of wavelength 300 nm eject electrons from a metal of work function 2.25 eV. A photon of energy equal to that of the most energetic electron corresponds to the following transition in the hydrogen atom:

  • (1) \( n = 2 \) to \( n = 1 \) state
  • (2) \( n = 3 \) to \( n = 1 \) state
  • (3) \( n = 3 \) to \( n = 2 \) state
  • (4) \( n = 4 \) to \( n = 3 \) state

Question 40:

A letter 'A' is constructed of a uniform wire with resistance 1.0 \( \Omega \) per cm. The sides of the letter are 20 cm and the cross piece in the middle is 10 cm long. The apex angle is 60°. The resistance between the ends of the legs is close to:

  • (1) 50.0 \( \Omega \)
  • (2) 10 \( \Omega \)
  • (3) 36.7 \( \Omega \)
  • (4) 26.7 \( \Omega \)

Question 41:

Number of atoms of He in 100 amu of He (atomic wt. of He is 4) are:

  • (1) 25
  • (2) 100
  • (3) 50
  • (4) \( 10^6 \times 10^{-23} \)

Question 42:

If the radius of \( H \) is 0.53 Å, then what will be the radius of \( Li^{2+} \)?

  • (1) 0.17 Å
  • (2) 0.36 Å
  • (3) 0.53 Å
  • (4) 0.59 Å

Question 43:

Which of the following does not have valence electron in 3d-subshell?

  • (1) Fe(III)
  • (2) Mn(II)
  • (3) Cr(III)
  • (4) P(O)

Question 44:

The vapor pressure of

  • (1) NO\(_2\) is higher than \( O_2N^- \) due to
  • (1) Dipole moment
  • (2) Dipole-dipole interaction
  • (3) H-bonding
  • (4) Lattice structure

Question 45:

An ideal gas can’t be liquefied because

  • (1) its critical temperature is always above 0°C
  • (2) its molecules are relatively smaller in size
  • (3) it solidifies before becoming a liquid
  • (4) forces operated between its molecules are negligible

Question 46:

In which of the following reactions, standard entropy change (\( \Delta S^\circ \)) is positive and standard Gibbs’s energy change (\( \Delta G^\circ \)) decreases sharply with increasing temperature?

  • (1) \( C(g) + \frac{1}{2} O_2(g) \to CO(g) \)
  • (2) \( CO(g) + \frac{1}{2} O_2(g) \to CO_2(g) \)
  • (3) \( Mg(s) + \frac{1}{2} O_2(g) \to MgO(s) \)
  • (4) \( \frac{1}{2} C(graphite) + \frac{1}{2} O_2(g) \to \frac{1}{2} CO_2(g) \)

Question 47:

Bond enthalpies of \( H_2 \), \( X_2 \), and \( HX \) are in the ratio 2:1:2. If enthalpy of formation of \( HX \) is -50 kJ/mol\(^{-1}\), the bond enthalpy of \( X_2 \) is:

  • (1) 100 kJ/mol\(^{-1}\)
  • (2) 300 kJ/mol\(^{-1}\)
  • (3) 200 kJ/mol\(^{-1}\)
  • (4) 400 kJ/mol\(^{-1}\)

Question 48:

The pOH value of a solution whose hydroxide ion concentration is \( 6.2 \times 10^{-9} \, mol/litre \) is:

  • (1) 8.21
  • (2) 6.21
  • (3) 7.75
  • (4) 7.21

Question 49:

Which of the following combinations would not result in the formation of a buffer solution?

  • (1) \( NH_3 + HCl \)
  • (2) \( NH_4 Cl + NH_3 \)
  • (3) \( CH_3 COOH + NaOH \)
  • (4) \( NaOH + CH_3 COOH \)

Question 50:

The reaction, \( SO_2 + Cl_2 \to SO_2 Cl_2 \), is exothermic and reversible. A mixture of \( SO_2 \), \( Cl_2 \), and \( SO_2 Cl_2 \) is at equilibrium in a closed container. Now a certain quantity of extra \( SO_2 \) is introduced into the container, the volume remaining the same. Which of the following is/are true?

  • (1) The pressure inside the container will not change.
  • (2) The temperature will not change.
  • (3) The temperature will increase.
  • (4) The temperature will decrease.

Question 51:

In the reaction \[ Br_2 + 6 CO \to 3 H_2 + Br^+ + 3 CO_3 \]

  • (1) Bromine is reduced and oxidised.
  • (2) Bromine is reduced and water is oxidised.
  • (3) Bromine is neither reduced nor oxidised.
  • (4) Bromine is both reduced and oxidised.

Question 52:

The boiling point of water is exceptionally high because

  • (1) There is a covalent bond between H and O.
  • (2) Water molecule is linear.
  • (3) Water molecules associate due to hydrogen bonding.
  • (4) Water molecule is not linear.

Question 53:

Which of the following has correct increasing basic strength?

  • (1) \( MgO < BeO < CaO < BaO \)
  • (2) \( BeO < MgO < CaO < BaO \)
  • (3) \( BaO < CaO < MgO < BeO \)
  • (4) \( CaO < BaO < BeO < MgO \)

Question 54:

The following two compounds are:

  • (1) enantiomers
  • (2) diastereomers
  • (3) identical
  • (4) epimers

Question 55:

In paper chromatography:

  • (1) Mobile phase is liquid and stationary phase is solid.
  • (2) Mobile phase is solid and stationary phase is liquid.
  • (3) Both phases are liquids.
  • (4) Both phases are solids.

Question 56:

In which case the \( NO_2 \) will attack at the meta position?

  • (1) I, II, III
  • (2) II, IV
  • (3) I and III only
  • (4) II only

Question 57:

Which alkene on ozonolysis gives \( CH_2 CHO \) and \( CH_3 CO \)?

  • (1) \( CH_3 CH_2 CH = CH_3 \)
  • (2) \( CH_3 CH_2 CH = CH_2 \)
  • (3) \( CH_3 CH_2 C = CH_3 \)
  • (4) \( CH_3 C = C CH_3 \)

Question 58:

Formation of ozone in the upper atmosphere from oxygen takes place by the action of:

  • (1) Nitrogen oxides
  • (2) Ultraviolet rays
  • (3) Cosmic rays
  • (4) Free radicals

Question 59:

\( CO_2 \) goes to air, causes greenhouse effect and gets dissolved in water. What will be the effect on soil fertility and pH of the water?

  • (1) Increases
  • (2) Decreases
  • (3) Remain same
  • (4) None of these

Question 60:

The van’t Hoff factor i for an electrolyte which undergoes dissociation and association in solvents are respectively:

  • (1) greater than 1 and greater than 1
  • (2) less than 1 and greater than 1
  • (3) less than 1 and less than 1
  • (4) greater than 1 and less than 1

Question 61:

If the elevation in boiling point of a solution of 10 g of solute (mol. wt. = 100) in 100 g of water is \( \Delta T_b \), the ebullioscopic constant of water is:

  • (1) \( \frac{\Delta T_b}{10} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{\Delta T_b}{100} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{10 \Delta T_b}{100} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{\Delta T_b}{\mu} \)

Question 62:

The ionic conductance of \( Ba^{2+} \) and \( Cl^- \) respectively are 127 and 76 \( S \, cm^{-1} \) at infinite dilution. The equivalent conductance of \( BaCl_2 \) at infinite dilution will be:

  • (1) 330 \( \Omega^{-1} cm^2 \)
  • (2) 203 \( \Omega^{-1} cm^2 \)
  • (3) 139 \( \Omega^{-1} cm^2 \)
  • (4) 51 \( \Omega^{-1} cm^2 \)

Question 63:

\( 2N_2O_5 \to 4NO_2 + O_2 \)
If rate and rate constant for above reaction are \( 2.40 \times 10^{-5} \, mol L^{-1} s^{-1} \) and \( 3 \times 10^{-5} \, s^{-1} \), respectively, then calculate the concentration of \( N_2O_5 \):

  • (1) 14
  • (2) 1.2
  • (3) 0.04
  • (4) 0.8

Question 64:

Which of the following gives maximum value of enthalpy of physiolysis?

  • (1) \( C_2H_6 \)
  • (2) \( Ne \)
  • (3) \( H_2 O \)
  • (4) \( H_2 \)

Question 65:

Which of the following will be most effective in the coagulation of \( Fe(OH)_3 \) (soil)?

  • (1) \( Mg_3 (PO_4)_2 \)
  • (2) \( BaCl_2 \)
  • (3) \( NaCl \)
  • (4) \( KCN \)

Question 66:

When chlorine water is exposed to sunlight, \( O_2 \) is liberated. Hence,

  • (1) hydrogen has little affinity to \( O_2 \)
  • (2) hydrogen has more affinity to \( O_2 \)
  • (3) hydrogen has more affinity to chlorine
  • (4) it is a reducing agent

Question 67:

An extremely hot copper wire reacts with steam to give:

  • (1) \( CuO \)
  • (2) \( Cu_2O \)
  • (3) \( Cu_2O_3 \)
  • (4) \( Cu_3 \)

Question 68:

Among the following, the lowest degree of paramagnetism per mole of the compound at 298 K will be shown by:

  • (1) \( MnSO_4 \cdot 4H_2O \)
  • (2) \( CuSO_4 \cdot 5H_2O \)
  • (3) \( FeSO_4 \cdot 6H_2O \)
  • (4) \( NiSO_4 \cdot 6H_2O \)

Question 69:

The following reaction is known as:



\[ C_6 H_5 COOH + CO_2 \xrightarrow{120-140^\circ C, 1.5 \, atm} C_6 H_4 COONa \xrightarrow{NaOH} C_6 H_5 COOH \]

  • (1) Friedel-Craft’s reaction
  • (2) Kolbe reaction
  • (3) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
  • (4) Witting reaction

Question 70:

Which of the following processes is used for the preparation of acetone?

  • (1) Haber process
  • (2) Wacker process
  • (3) Wolff-Kishner reduction
  • (4) Gattermann-Koch synthesis

Question 71:

The preparation of ethyl acetoacetate involves:

  • (1) Witting reaction
  • (2) Cannizzaro’s reaction
  • (3) Reformatsky reaction
  • (4) Claisen condensation

Question 72:

Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

  • (1) \( > C = O \to CH_2 \) (Clemmensen reduction)
  • (2) \( > C = O \to CHOH \) (Wolf-Kishner reduction)
  • (3) \( > COCl \to CHO \) (Rosenmund reduction)
  • (4) \( > C = N \to CHO \) (Stephen reduction)

Question 73:

Identify ‘C’ in the following reaction:

  • (1) Benzamide
  • (2) Benzoic acid
  • (3) Chlorobenzene
  • (4) Aniline

Question 74:

The helical structure of protein is stabilized by:

  • (1) peptide bonds
  • (2) dipetide bonds
  • (3) hydrogen bonds
  • (4) van der Waals forces

Question 75:

Complete hydrolysis of cellulose gives:

  • (1) D-ribose
  • (2) D-glucose
  • (3) L-glucose
  • (4) D-fructose

Question 76:

Alizarin is an example of:

  • (1) Trial dye
  • (2) Azo dye
  • (3) Vat dye
  • (4) Anthraquinone dye

Question 77:

2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid is used as:

  • (1) Fungicide
  • (2) Insecticide
  • (3) Herbicide
  • (4) Moth repellant

Question 78:

0.45 g of acid molecular weight 90 is neutralized by 20 mL of 0.5N caustic potash. The basicity of the acid is:

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 4

Question 79:

In the reaction of KMnO\(_4\) with an oxalate in acidic medium, MnO\(_4^-\) is reduced to Mn\(^{2+}\) and C\(_2\)O\(_4^{2-}\) is oxidized to CO\(_2\). Hence, 50 mL of 0.02 M KMnO\(_4\) is equivalent to:

  • (1) 100 mL of 0.05 M \( MH_2 C_2 O_4 \)
  • (2) 50 mL of 0.05 M \( MH_2 C_2 O_4 \)
  • (3) 25 mL of 0.2 M \( MH_2 C_2 O_4 \)
  • (4) 50 mL of 0.10 M \( MH_2 C_2 O_4 \)

Question 80:

Which of the following is soluble in yellow ammonium sulphide?

  • (1) CuS
  • (2) CdS
  • (3) SnS
  • (4) PbS

Question 81:

Let A and B be two sets then \( (A \cup B) \cup (A \cap B) \) is equal to:

  • (1) \( A' \)
  • (2) \( B' \)
  • (3) A
  • (4) None of these

Question 82:

Let \( x \) and \( y \) be two natural numbers such that \( x \cdot y = 12(x + y) \) and \( x \leq y \). Then the total number of pairs \( (x, y) \) is:

  • (1) 8
  • (2) 6
  • (3) 4
  • (4) 16

Question 83:

In \( \sin \theta + \sin^2 \theta = 1/2 \), cos\( 2\theta + \) cos\( \theta = 3/2 \), then cos\( \theta - \phi \) is equal to:

  • (1) 3/8
  • (2) 3/4
  • (3) 5/8
  • (4) 5/4

Question 84:

Let \( T(k) \) be the statement \( 1 + 3 + 5 + \dots + (2k - 1) = k^2 + 10 \). Which of the following is correct?

  • (1) \( T(1) \) is true
  • (2) \( T(k) \) is true \( \Rightarrow T(k+1) \) is true
  • (3) \( T(k) \) is true for all \( n \in N \)
  • (4) All above are correct

Question 85:

The amplitude of \( \sin \frac{\pi}{5} + i \left( 1 - \cos \frac{\pi}{5} \right) \) is:

  • (1) \( \frac{\pi}{5} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{2\pi}{5} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{\pi}{6} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{\pi}{4} \)

Question 86:

If \( x \to \infty \), then the value of \( x^4 + 3x^3 + 2x^2 - 11x - 6 \) is:

  • (1) \( \infty \)
  • (2) 1
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 0

Question 87:

In how many ways can 5 prizes be distributed among 4 boys when every boy can take one or more prizes?

  • (1) 1024
  • (2) 625
  • (3) 120
  • (4) 600

Question 88:

The number of positive integral solutions of \( abc = 30 \) is:

  • (1) 30
  • (2) 27
  • (3) 8
  • (4) None of these

Question 89:

The coefficient of \( x^{20} \) in the expansion of \( (1 + x^2)^{40} \left( x^2 + 2 + \frac{1}{x^2} \right)^{-5} \) is:

  • (1) \( \binom{30}{10} \)
  • (2) \( \binom{30}{25} \)
  • (3) 1
  • (4) None of these

Question 90:

If \( x \) is positive then the sum to infinity of the series
\[ \frac{1}{1+3x} - \frac{1}{1+3x^2} + \frac{1}{1+3x^3} - \dots \, \infty \]

is:

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{6x(1+3x)} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{1}{6x} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{2(1+3x)} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{1}{(1+3x)^3} \)

Question 91:

The nearest point on the line \( 3x + 4y = 12 \) from the origin is:

  • (1) \( \left( \frac{36}{25}, \frac{48}{25} \right) \)
  • (2) \( \left( \frac{3}{5}, \frac{3}{4} \right) \)
  • (3) \( \left( \frac{2}{3}, \frac{3}{2} \right) \)
  • (4) None of these

Question 92:

The length of the tangent drawn from any point on the circle \( x^2 + y^2 + 2\lambda x + \mu = 0 \) to the circle \( x^2 + y^2 + 2\gamma x + \lambda = 0 \), where \( \mu \geq \lambda \), is:

  • (1) \( \sqrt{\mu - \lambda} \)
  • (2) \( \sqrt{\mu^2 - \lambda^2} \)
  • (3) \( \sqrt{\mu - \lambda^2} \)
  • (4) \( \mu + \lambda \)

Question 93:

Find the eccentricity of the conic represented by \( x^2 - y^2 - 4x + 4y + 16 = 0 \):

  • (1) 2
  • (2) \( \sqrt{2} \)
  • (3) \( 2\sqrt{2} \)
  • (4) \( \sqrt{3} \)

Question 94:

\( \lim_{x \to \infty} \frac{1 - \tan \left( \frac{x}{2} \right)}{1 + \tan \left( \frac{x}{2} \right)}\) = ?

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{8} \)
  • (2) 0
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{32} \)
  • (4) \( \infty \)

Question 95:

Let \( f(x + y) = f(x) \cdot f(y) \) for all \( x, y \), where \( f(0) = 0 \). If \( f(5) = 2 \) and \( f'(0) = 3 \), then \( f'(5) \) is equal to:

  • (1) 6
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 1
  • (4) None of these

Question 96:

If sample A contains 100 observations 101, 102, .... 200 and sample B contains 100 observations 151, 152, .... 250, then the ratio of variance \( \frac{V_A}{V_B} \) is:

  • (1) \( \frac{9}{4} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{4}{9} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{2}{3} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{2}{5} \)

Question 97:

The probability of simultaneous occurrence of at least one of two events A and B is \( p \). If the probability that exactly one of A, B occurs is \( q \), then \( P(A' \cup B') \) is equal to:

  • (1) \( 2 - 2p + q \)
  • (2) \( 2 + 2p - q \)
  • (3) \( 3 - 3p + q \)
  • (4) \( 2p - p + q \)

Question 98:

If \( f(x) \) is an even function and \( g(x) \) is an odd function, then the function \( f \circ g \) is:

  • (1) an even function
  • (2) an odd function
  • (3) neither even nor odd
  • (4) a periodic function

Question 99:

\( \tan^{-1} \left( \frac{1}{4} \right) + \tan^{-1} \left( \frac{1}{9} \right) \) equals to:

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{2} \cos^{-1} \left( \frac{3}{5} \right) \)
  • (2) \( \frac{1}{2} \sin^{-1} \left( \frac{3}{5} \right) \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{2} \tan^{-1} \left( \frac{3}{5} \right) \)
  • (4) \( \tan^{-1} \left( \frac{1}{5} \right) \)

Question 100:

If \( k \leq \sin^{-1} x + \cos^{-1} x + \tan^{-1} x \leq 5 \), then:

  • (1) \( k = 0, K = \pi \)
  • (2) \( k = 0, K = \frac{\pi}{2} \)
  • (3) \( k = 0, K = \frac{\pi}{2} \)
  • (4) None of these

Question 101:

The equations \( 2x + 3y + 4 = 0, 3x + 4y + 6 = 0 \) and \( 4x + 5y + 8 = 0 \) are:

  • (1) consistent with unique solution
  • (2) inconsistent
  • (3) consistent with infinitely many solutions
  • (4) None of the above

Question 102:

The value of the determinant
\[ \begin{vmatrix} 265 & 240 & 219
240 & 225 & 198
191 & 198 & 181 \end{vmatrix} \]

is:

  • (1) 1000
  • (2) 779
  • (3) 679
  • (4) 0

Question 103:

If \( x = a \sin \theta \) and \( y = b \cos \theta \), then \( \frac{d^2y}{dx^2} \) is:

  • (1) \( \frac{a}{b^2} \sec^2 \theta \)
  • (2) \( \frac{-b}{a^2} \sec^3 \theta \)
  • (3) \( \frac{-a}{b^2} \sec^3 \theta \)
  • (4) \( \frac{b}{a^2} \sec^3 \theta \)

Question 104:

If \( f(x) = x^\alpha \log x \) and \( f(0) = 0 \), then the value of \( \alpha \) for which Rolle's theorem can be applied in \( [0, 1] \) is:

  • (1) -2
  • (2) -1
  • (3) 0
  • (4) \( \frac{1}{2} \)

Question 105:

If the function \( f(x) = ax + b \), \( 2 < x < 4 \), is continuous at \( x = 2 \) and 4, then the values of \( a \) and \( b \) are:

  • (1) \( a = 3, b = 5 \)
  • (2) \( a = 0, b = 3 \)
  • (3) \( a = 0, b = 5 \)
  • (4) \( a = 3, b = 0 \)

Question 106:

If \( f(x) = a^2 - 1 \), \( x^3 - 3x + 5 \) is a decreasing function of \( x \in R \), then the set of possible values of \( a \) (independent of \( x \)) is:

  • (1) \( [1, \infty) \)
  • (2) \( (-1, \infty) \)
  • (3) \( [-1, 1] \)
  • (4) \( (-\infty, 1] \)

Question 107:

The diagonal of a square is changing at the rate of \( 0.5 \, cm/sec \). Then the rate of change of area, when the area is 400 \( cm^2 \), is equal to:

  • (1) \( 20 \sqrt{2} \, cm^2/sec \)
  • (2) \( 10 \sqrt{2} \, cm^2/sec \)
  • (3) \( 1 \sqrt{2} \, cm^2/sec \)
  • (4) \( 5 \sqrt{2} \, cm^2/sec \)

Question 108:

If the normal to the curve \( y = f(x) \) at the point \( (3, 4) \) makes an angle \( 3\pi/4 \) with the positive x-axis, then \( f'(3) \) is:

  • (1) -1
  • (2) -3/4
  • (3) 4/3
  • (4) 3/4

Question 109:

Evaluate:
\[ \int_0^{\pi/2} \frac{x}{\sqrt{4 - x^2}} \, dx \]

  • (1) \( \frac{2}{3} \sin \left( \frac{x^2}{2} \right) \)
  • (2) \( \frac{3}{2} \sin \left( \frac{x^2}{3} \right) \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{2} \sin \left( \frac{x^2}{2} \right) \)
  • (4) None of these

Question 110:

\( \lim_{x \to \infty} \frac{1 - \tan \left( \frac{x}{2} \right)}{1 + \tan \left( \frac{x}{2} \right)}\) = ?

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{8} \)
  • (2) 0
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{32} \)
  • (4) \( \infty \)

Question 111:

The area bounded by the curve \( y = \sin x \), x-axis and the ordinates \( x = 0 \) and \( x = \pi/2 \) is:

  • (1) \( \pi \)
  • (2) \( \pi/2 \)
  • (3) \( \pi/4 \)
  • (4) None of these

Question 112:

The differential equation whose solution is \( Ax^2 + Bx + C = 1 \) where A and B are arbitrary constants is of:

  • (1) second order and second degree
  • (2) first order and second degree
  • (3) first order and first degree
  • (4) second order and first degree

Question 113:

The unit vector perpendicular to the vectors \( 6i + 2j + 3k \) and \( 3i - 6j - 2k \) is:

  • (1) \( \frac{2i - 3j - 6k}{7} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{2i - 3j + 6k}{7} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{2i + 3j - 6k}{7} \)
  • (4) None of these

Question 114:

If \( \mathbf{a} = \mathbf{c} \) and \( \mathbf{b} = \mathbf{a} \times \mathbf{c} \), then the correct statement is:

  • (1) \( \mathbf{a} \parallel (\mathbf{b} - \mathbf{c}) \)
  • (2) \( \mathbf{a} = 0 \) or \( \mathbf{b} = \mathbf{c} \)
  • (3) \( \mathbf{a} = \mathbf{b} \)
  • (4) None of these

Question 115:

What is the value of \( n \) so that the angle between the lines having direction ratios \( (1, 1, 1) \) and \( (1, 1, n) \) is \( 60^\circ \)?

  • (1) \( \sqrt{3} \)
  • (2) \( \sqrt{6} \)
  • (3) \( \sqrt{2} \)
  • (4) \( \sqrt{5} \)

Question 116:

The foot of the perpendicular from the point \( (7, 14, 5) \) to the plane \( 2x + 4y - z = 7 \) is:

  • (1) \( (8, 2, 3) \)
  • (2) \( (8, 3, 2) \)
  • (3) \( (2, 5, 6) \)
  • (4) None of these

Question 117:

Find the coordinates of the point where the line joining the points \( (2, -3, 1) \) and \( (3, -4, -5) \) cuts the plane \( 2x + y + z = 7 \):

  • (1) \( (1, 2, -7) \)
  • (2) \( (2, 7, 4) \)
  • (3) \( (-1, 2, 7) \)
  • (4) \( (1, 7, 4) \)

Question 118:

A boy is throwing stones at a target. The probability of hitting the target at any trial is \( \frac{1}{2} \). The probability of hitting the target 5th time at the 10th throw is:

  • (1) \( \frac{5}{210} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{63}{210} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{10 C_5}{2^{10}} \)
  • (4) None of these

Question 119:

Two dice are thrown together 4 times. The probability that both dice will show same numbers twice is:

  • (1) \( \frac{25}{36} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{25}{216} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{3} \)
  • (4) None of these

Question 120:

In a triangle ABC, if \( A = a \), \( B = 60^\circ \), and \( C = 75^\circ \), then \( b \) equals:

  • (1) \( \sqrt{3} \)
  • (2) \( \sqrt{6} \)
  • (3) \( \sqrt{9} \)
  • (4) \( 1 + \sqrt{2} \)

Question 121:

Prabhat wants to invest the total amount of ₹15,000 in saving certificates and national saving bonds. According to rules, he has to invest at least ₹2,000 in saving certificates and ₹2,500 in national saving bonds. The interest rate is 8% on saving certificates and 10% on national saving bonds per annum. He invests \( x \) in saving certificate and \( y \) in national saving bonds. Then the objective function for this problem is:

  • (1) \( 0.08x + 0.10y \)
  • (2) \( 2000x + 2500y \)
  • (3) \( \frac{x}{2000} + \frac{y}{2500} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{x}{8} + \frac{y}{10} \)

Question 122:

For the function \[ f(x) = \frac{x^{100}}{100} + \frac{x^{99}}{99} - x^2 + x + 1, \] \( f'(1) = mf'(0) \), where \( m \) is equal to:

  • (1) 50
  • (2) 0
  • (3) 100
  • (4) 200

Question 123:

Let \( A = \begin{bmatrix} 0 & \alpha
0 & 0 \end{bmatrix} \) and \( (A + I)^5 - 50A = \begin{bmatrix} a & b
c & d \end{bmatrix} \). Find \( abc + abd + bcd + acd \):

  • (1) 0
  • (2) 1
  • (3) -1
  • (4) None of these

Question 124:

If the line \( x \cos \alpha + y \sin \alpha = p \) represents the common chord of the circles \( x^2 + y^2 = a^2 \) and \( x^2 + y^2 + b^2 = 2b \), where \( a > b \), where A and B lie on the first circle and P and Q lie on the second circle, then \( AP \) is equal to:

  • (1) \( \sqrt{a^2 + p^2} + \sqrt{b^2 + p^2} \)
  • (2) \( \sqrt{a^2 - p^2} + \sqrt{b^2 - p^2} \)
  • (3) \( \sqrt{a^2 + p^2} - \sqrt{b^2 + p^2} \)
  • (4) \( \sqrt{a^2 - p^2} - \sqrt{b^2 - p^2} \)

Question 125:

Let \( a_1, a_2, a_3, \dots \) be terms on A.P. If
\[ a_1 + a_2 + \dots + a_p = p^2, \, p \neq q, \, then \, a_q = \frac{p^2}{q^2} \]

Then \( a_q \) equals:

  • (1) \( \frac{41}{11} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{7}{2} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{2}{7} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{11}{41} \)

Question 126:

Florid means:

  • (1) Weak
  • (2) Pale
  • (3) Monotonous
  • (4) Ugly

Question 127:

Verity means:

  • (1) Sanctity
  • (2) Reverence
  • (3) Falsehood
  • (4) Rarity

Question 128:

Perspicuity means:

  • (1) Vagueness
  • (2) Dullness
  • (3) Unfairness
  • (4) Unwillingness

Question 129:

Disgrace means:

  • (1) Disrespect
  • (2) Jealousy
  • (3) Disregard
  • (4) Shame

Question 130:

Striking means:

  • (1) Attractive
  • (2) Violent
  • (3) Funny
  • (4) Hateful

Question 131:

Fiasco means:

  • (1) Festival
  • (2) Failure
  • (3) Fortune
  • (4) Feast

Question 132:

Power got with money is the most craved for today:

  • (1) sought after
  • (2) wished for
  • (3) welcomed for
  • (4) No improvement

Question 133:

You are asked to copy this letter word by word:

  • (1) word by word
  • (2) word with word
  • (3) word to word
  • (4) No improvement

Question 134:

Let us quickly:

  • (1) muddle
  • (2) huddle
  • (3) hurdle
  • (4) puddle

Question 135:

Rajesh's car wasn’t __________ Ramesh's, so we were too exhausted by the time we reached home:

  • (1) such comfortable
  • (2) as comfortable as
  • (3) comfortable enough
  • (4) so comfortable that

Question 136:

1. The most vulnerable section of the society are the students.
P. Revolutionary and new fledged ideas have a great appeal to them.
Q. Agitations may be non-violent methods of protest.
R. They cannot resist the charm of persuasion.
S. They are to be taught that without discipline they cannot get proper education.
6. However if these become violent, the antisocial elements get encouraged and they pull all proper working out of gear.
Which of the following is correct?

  • (1) PRSQ
  • (2) RSQP
  • (3) SRPQ
  • (4) RPQS

Question 137:

Venice is a strange city.
P. There are about 400 odd bridges connecting the islands of Venice.
Q. There are no motor cars, no horses and no buses there.
R. These small islands are close to one another.
S. It is not one island but a hundred islands.
6. This is because Venice has no streets.
Which of the following is correct?

  • (1) SRPQ
  • (2) PSRQ
  • (3) RPQS
  • (4) SQRP

Question 138:

Passage:


The World Health Organisation is briefly called W.H.O. It is a specialised agency of the United Nations and was established in 1948.
International health workers can be seen working in all kinds of surroundings in deserts, jungles, mountains, coconut groves, and rice fields. They help the sick to attain health and the healthy to maintain their health.
This global health team assists the local health workers in stopping the spread of what are called communicable diseases, like cholera. These diseases can spread from one country to another and so can be a threat to world health.


138.

W.H.O. assists different national health authorities not only in controlling diseases but also in preventing them altogether. Total prevention of diseases is possible in a number of ways. Everyone knows how people, particularly children, are vaccinated against one disease or another. Similarly, most people are familiar with the spraying of houses with poisonous substances which kill disease-carrying insects.
W.H.O. means:

  • (1) made suitable for a particular purpose
  • (2) expert
  • (3) extraordinary
  • (4) uncommon

Question 139:

"International health workers can be seen working in all kinds of surroundings: in deserts, jungles, mountains, coconut groves, and rice fields." Here International means:

  • (1) belonging to the whole world
  • (2) belonging to all countries of the world
  • (3) drawn from all countries
  • (4) belonging to an organisation which has something to do with different nations

Question 140:

They help the sick to attain health and the healthy to maintain their health. Here they stands for:

  • (1) deserts
  • (2) rice fields
  • (3) international health workers
  • (4) jungles

Question 141:

In a code language, if SUMMER is coded as SDUMV, then how WINTER will be coded as:

  • (1) SDMUW
  • (2) SDMUZ
  • (3) SULMV
  • (4) VIMUD

Question 142:

  • (1) 888
  • (2) 788
  • (3) 848
  • (4) 842
Correct Answer: (1) 888
View Solution



The given puzzle involves multiplying the numbers in a pattern. The first column is multiplied by the second column, and the third column is the sum of those values. The correct result is 888.


Thus, the correct answer is (1).
Quick Tip: Look for patterns in the arrangement of numbers when solving puzzles of this type.


Question 143:

Today is Monday. After 61 days, it will be:

  • (1) Wednesday
  • (2) Saturday
  • (3) Tuesday
  • (4) Thursday

Question 144:

Rahul and Nitesh are standing in a row of persons. Rahul is 12th from left side and Nitesh is 18th from the right side of the row. If they interchanged their positions, Rahul becomes 25th from left. Find the new position of Nitesh from the right side.

  • (1) 38
  • (2) 32
  • (3) 42
  • (4) 31

Question 145:

One of the numbers does not fit into the series. Find the wrong number.
52, 152, 414, 1312, 5348, 26840

  • (1) 152
  • (2) 414
  • (3) 1312
  • (4) 5348

Question 146:

In the following question, A stands for any of Mathematical signs at different places, which are given as choices under each question. Select the choice with the correct sequence of signs which when substituted makes the question as correct equation:
\[ 24 A 4 A 5 A 4 = ? \]

  • (1) \( \times = + = \)
  • (2) \( = \times + = \)
  • (3) \( + = \times = \)
  • (4) \( \times = + = \)

Question 147:

Which represents carrot, food, vegetable?




Question 148:

"All the members of the Tennis club are members of the badminton club too". Who plays badminton?

  • (1) Some women play Tennis
  • (2) No member of Tennis club plays badminton
  • (3) Some women are members of the Tennis club
  • (4) No woman is a member of the Tennis club

Question 149:

Correct Answer: (4) (d)
View Solution



By visualizing the mirror image, the correct answer is (d), which is the exact mirror image of the given figure.


Thus, the correct answer is (4).
Quick Tip: To solve mirror image problems, visualize how the figure would appear in a mirror.


Question 150:

Which answer figure is the exact mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is held from the right at PQ?