BITSAT 2014 Question Paper with Answer Key pdf is available for download. BITSAT 2014 was conducted in online CBT mode by BITS Pilani. BITSAT 2014 Question Paper had 150 questions to be attempted in 3 hours.

BITSAT 2014 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

BITSAT 2014 Question Paper PDF BITSAT 2014 Answer Key PDF
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Question 1:

A rifle man, who together with his rifle has a mass of 100 kg, stands on a smooth surface and fires 10 shots horizontally. Each bullet has a mass 10 g and a muzzle velocity of 800 m s\(^{-1}\). The velocity which the rifle man attains after firing 10 shots is:

  • (A) \(8 m s^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(0.8 m s^{-1}\)
  • (C) \(0.08 m s^{-1}\)
  • (D) \(-0.8 m s^{-1}\)

Question 2:

A train accelerating uniformly from rest attains a maximum speed of \(40 m s^{-1}\) in 20 s. It travels at this speed for 20 s and is brought to rest with uniform retardation in further 40 s. What is the average velocity during the period?

  • (A) \(80 m s^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(25 m s^{-1}\)
  • (C) \(40 m s^{-1}\)
  • (D) \(30 m s^{-1}\)

Question 3:

A projectile is fired with a velocity \(u\) making an angle \(\theta\) with the horizontal. What is the magnitude of change in velocity when it is at the highest point?

  • (A) \(u\cos\theta\)
  • (B) \(u\)
  • (C) \(u\sin\theta\)
  • (D) \(u\cos\theta - u\)

Question 4:

For the equation of force \(F = Aa^b d^c\), where \(F\) is the force, \(A\) is the area, \(v\) is the velocity and \(d\) is the density, the values of \(a, b\) and \(c\) are respectively:

  • (A) \(1,2,1\)
  • (B) \(2,1,1\)
  • (C) \(1,1,2\)
  • (D) \(0,1,1\)

Question 5:

A person with his hand in his pocket is skating on ice at the rate of \(10 m s^{-1}\) and describes a circle of radius \(50 m\). What is his inclination to vertical? \((g = 10 m s^{-2})\)

  • (A) \(\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)\)
  • (B) \(\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{5}\right)\)
  • (C) \(\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{3}{5}\right)\)
  • (D) \(\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{10}\right)\)

Question 6:

A small block of mass \(m\) is kept on a rough inclined surface of inclination \(\theta\) fixed in an elevator. The elevator goes up with a uniform velocity \(v\) and the block does not slide on the wedge. The work done by the force of friction on the block in time \(t\) will be:

  • (A) zero
  • (B) \(mgvt\cos^2\theta\)
  • (C) \(mgvt\sin^2\theta\)
  • (D) \(mgvt\sin2\theta\)

Question 7:

An equilateral prism of mass \(m\) rests on a rough horizontal surface with coefficient of friction \(\mu\). A horizontal force \(F\) is applied on the prism as shown. If the coefficient of friction is sufficiently high so that the prism does not slide before toppling, then the minimum force required to topple the prism is:

  • (A) \(\dfrac{mg}{\sqrt{3}}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{mg}{4}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{\mu mg}{\sqrt{3}}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{\mu mg}{4}\)

Question 8:

A spherically symmetric gravitational system of particles has a mass density \[ \rho = \begin{cases} \rho_0 & for r \le R
0 & for r > R \end{cases} \]
where ρ0 is a constant. A test mass can undergo circular motion under the influence of
the gravitational field of particles. Its speed v as a function of distance r (0 < r < ∞)
from the centre of the system is represented by:


  • (A) Graph (a)
  • (B) Graph (b)
  • (C) Graph (c)
  • (D) Graph (d)

Question 9:

The load versus elongation graph for four wires is shown. The thinnest wire is:

  • (A) \(P\)
  • (B) \(Q\)
  • (C) \(R\)
  • (D) \(S\)

Question 10:

The work done in blowing a soap bubble of surface tension \(0.06 N m^{-1}\) from radius \(2 cm\) to \(5 cm\) is:

  • (A) \(0.004168 J\)
  • (B) \(0.003168 J\)
  • (C) \(0.003158 J\)
  • (D) \(0.004568 J\)

Question 11:

The wavelength of radiation emitted by a body depends upon:

  • (A) the nature of its surface
  • (B) the area of its surface
  • (C) the temperature of its surface
  • (D) All of the above

Question 12:

One mole of \(O_2\) gas having a volume equal to \(22.4 litres\) at \(0^\circ C\) and 1 atm is compressed isothermally so that its volume reduces to \(11.2 litres\). The work done in this process is:

  • (A) \(1672.5 J\)
  • (B) \(1728 J\)
  • (C) \(-1728 J\)
  • (D) \(-1572.5 J\)

Question 13:

In a thermodynamic process, the pressure of a fixed mass of a gas is changed in such a manner that the gas releases 20 J of heat and 8 J of work is done on the gas. If the initial internal energy of the gas is 30 J, the final internal energy will be:

  • (A) \(2 J\)
  • (B) \(42 J\)
  • (C) \(18 J\)
  • (D) \(58 J\)

Question 14:

In the kinetic theory of gases, which of these statements is/are true?
(i) The pressure of a gas is proportional to the mean speed of the molecules.
(ii) The root mean square speed of the molecules is proportional to the pressure.
(iii) The rate of diffusion is proportional to the mean speed of molecules.
(iv) The mean translational kinetic energy of a gas is proportional to its kelvin temperature.

  • (A) (ii) and (iii) only
  • (B) (i), (ii) and (iv) only
  • (C) (i) and (iii) only
  • (D) (iii) and (iv) only

Question 15:

Two balloons are filled with pure gases and other with air respectively. If the pressure and temperature of these balloons are same, then the number of molecules per unit volume is:

  • (A) more in the gas filled balloon
  • (B) same in both balloons
  • (C) more in air filled balloon
  • (D) in the ratio 1 : 4

Question 16:

Two particles P and Q describe S.H.M. of same amplitude and same frequency along the same straight line. The maximum distance between the two particles is \(2A\). The initial phase difference between the particles is:

  • (A) zero
  • (B) \(\pi/2\)
  • (C) \(\pi/6\)
  • (D) \(\pi\)

Question 17:

A tunnel is dug through the centre of the earth and a ball is released in it. It executes S.H.M. with time period:

  • (A) 42 minutes
  • (B) 1 day
  • (C) 1 hour
  • (D) 84.6 minutes

Question 18:

A sound source, emitting sound of constant frequency, moves with a constant speed and crosses a stationary observer. The frequency \(n\) of sound heard by the observer is plotted against time \(t\). Which of the following graphs represents the correct variation?

  • (A) Graph (a)
  • (B) Graph (b)
  • (C) Graph (c)
  • (D) Graph (d)

Question 19:

When a string is divided into three segments of length \(l_1, l_2,\) and \(l_3\), the fundamental frequencies of these three segments are \(v_1, v_2,\) and \(v_3\) respectively. The original fundamental frequency of the string is:

  • (A) \(\sqrt{v} = \sqrt{v_1} + \sqrt{v_2} + \sqrt{v_3}\)
  • (B) \(v = v_1 + v_2 + v_3\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{1}{v} = \dfrac{1}{v_1} + \dfrac{1}{v_2} + \dfrac{1}{v_3}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{1}{\sqrt{v}} = \dfrac{1}{\sqrt{v_1}} + \dfrac{1}{\sqrt{v_2}} + \dfrac{1}{\sqrt{v_3}}\)

Question 20:

Two point dipoles \(p\hat{k}\) and \(\frac{p}{2}\hat{k}\) are located at \((0,0,0)\) and \((1\,m,0,2\,m)\) respectively. The resultant electric field due to the two dipoles at the point \((1\,m,0,0)\) is:

  • (A) \(\dfrac{9p}{32\pi\varepsilon_0}\hat{k}\)
  • (B) \(-\dfrac{7p}{32\pi\varepsilon_0}\hat{k}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{7p}{32\pi\varepsilon_0}\hat{k}\)
  • (D) None of these

Question 21:

Electric field in the region is given by \( \vec{E} = \left(\dfrac{M}{x^3}\right)\hat{i} \). The correct expression for the potential in the region is [assume potential at infinity is zero]:

  • (A) \(\dfrac{M}{2x^2}\)
  • (B) \(Mx^2\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{M}{3x^4}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{M}{x^2}\)

Question 22:

Three capacitors \(C_1 = 1\,\muF,\; C_2 = 2\,\muF\) and \(C_3 = 3\,\muF\) are connected as shown in the figure. The equivalent capacitance between points A and B is:

  • (A) \(3\,\muF\)
  • (B) \(4\,\muF\)
  • (C) \(5\,\muF\)
  • (D) \(6\,\muF\)

Question 23:

Two coaxial non-conducting cylinders of radius \(a\) and \(b\) are separated by a material of conductivity \(\sigma\) and a constant potential difference \(V\) is maintained between them by a battery. The current per unit length flowing from one cylinder to the other is:

  • (A) \(\dfrac{4\pi\sigma V}{\ln(b/a)}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{4\pi\sigma V}{b+a}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{2\pi\sigma V}{\ln(b/a)}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{2\pi\sigma V}{b+a}\)

Question 24:

A wire X is half the diameter and half the length of a wire Y of similar material. The ratio of resistance of X to that of Y is:

  • (A) \(8:1\)
  • (B) \(4:1\)
  • (C) \(2:1\)
  • (D) \(1:1\)

Question 25:

A narrow beam of protons and deuterons, each having the same momentum, enters a region of uniform magnetic field directed perpendicular to their direction of momentum. The ratio of the radii of the circular paths described by them is:

  • (A) \(1:2\)
  • (B) \(1:1\)
  • (C) \(2:1\)
  • (D) \(1:3\)

Question 26:

For the circuit shown, the current is to be measured. The ammeter shown is a galvanometer with resistance \(R_g = 60.00\,\Omega\) converted into an ammeter by a shunt resistance \(R_s = 0.02\,\Omega\). The value of the current is:

  • (A) \(0.79\,A\)
  • (B) \(0.29\,A\)
  • (C) \(0.99\,A\)
  • (D) \(0.8\,A\)

Question 27:

The susceptibility of a magnetism at 300 K is \(1.2 \times 10^{-5}\). The temperature at which the susceptibility increases to \(1.8 \times 10^{-5}\) is:

  • (A) \(150\,K\)
  • (B) \(200\,K\)
  • (C) \(250\,K\)
  • (D) \(20\,K\)

Question 28:

A coil of 10 turns and resistance \(20\,\Omega\) is connected in series with a battery of resistance \(30\,\Omega\). The coil is placed with its plane perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of induction \(10^{-2}\,T\). If it is now turned through an angle of \(60^\circ\) about an axis in its plane, the charge induced in the coil is (Area of coil \(=10^{-2}\,m^2\)):

  • (A) \(2 \times 10^{-5}\,C\)
  • (B) \(3.2 \times 10^{-5}\,C\)
  • (C) \(1 \times 10^{-5}\,C\)
  • (D) \(5.5 \times 10^{-5}\,C\)

Question 29:

Voltage and current in an AC circuit are given by \(V = 50\sin(50t)\,V\) and \(i = 50\sin(50t + \frac{\pi}{3})\,mA\).
The power dissipated in the circuit is:

  • (A) \(5.0\,W\)
  • (B) \(2.5\,W\)
  • (C) \(1.25\,W\)
  • (D) zero

Question 30:

Resolving power of a telescope will be more, if the diameter of the objective is:

  • (A) larger
  • (B) smaller
  • (C) it does not depend on diameter
  • (D) None of these

Question 31:

The magnifying power of a telescope is 9. When it is adjusted for parallel rays, the distance between the objective and the eye piece is found to be 20 cm. The focal length of lenses are:

  • (A) \(18\,cm,\,2\,cm\)
  • (B) \(11\,cm,\,9\,cm\)
  • (C) \(10\,cm,\,10\,cm\)
  • (D) \(15\,cm,\,5\,cm\)

Question 32:

The angular size of the central maxima due to a single slit diffraction (a = slit width) is:

  • (A) \(\dfrac{\lambda}{a}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{2\lambda}{a}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{3\lambda}{2a}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{\lambda}{2a}\)

Question 33:

Find the final intensity of light (\(I''\)), if the angle between the axes of two polaroids is \(60^\circ\).

  • (A) \(\dfrac{3I_0}{2}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{I_0}{2}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{I_0}{4}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{I_0}{8}\)

Question 34:

The threshold wavelength of tungsten is \(2300\,\AA\). If ultraviolet light of wavelength \(1800\,\AA\) is incident on it, then the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons would be about:

  • (A) \(1.49\,eV\)
  • (B) \(2.2\,eV\)
  • (C) \(3.0\,eV\)
  • (D) \(5.0\,eV\)

Question 35:

Graph between stopping potential of most energetic emitted photoelectrons (\(V_s\)) and frequency (\(\nu\)) of incident radiation on metal is given. Value of slope AB/BC in graph is [where \(h\) = Planck’s constant, \(e\) = electronic charge]:

  • (A) \(h\)
  • (B) \(e\)
  • (C) \(h/e\)
  • (D) \(e/h\)

Question 36:

If hydrogen atom, an electron jumps from bigger orbit to smaller orbit so that radius of smaller orbit is one-fourth of radius of bigger orbit. If speed of electron in bigger orbit was \(v\), then speed in smaller orbit is:

  • (A) \(v/4\)
  • (B) \(v/2\)
  • (C) \(v\)
  • (D) \(2v\)

Question 37:

A nucleus of uranium decays at rest into nuclei of thorium and helium. Then:

  • (A) the helium nucleus has less momentum than the thorium nucleus
  • (B) the helium nucleus has more momentum than the thorium nucleus
  • (C) the helium nucleus has less kinetic energy than the thorium nucleus
  • (D) the helium nucleus has more kinetic energy than the thorium nucleus

Question 38:

Let binding energy per nucleon of nucleus be denoted by \(E_{bn}\) and radius of nucleus be denoted as \(r\). If mass number of nuclei A and B are 64 and 125 respectively then:

  • (A) \(r_A
  • (B) \(r_A>r_B,\;E_{bnA}>E_{bnB}\)
  • (C) \(r_A=r_B,\;E_{bnA}
  • (D) \(r_AE_{bnB}\)

Question 39:

For a CE transistor amplifier, the audio signal voltage across the collector resistance of \(2.0\,k\Omega\) is \(2.0\,V\). Suppose the current amplification factor of the transistor is 100. What should be the value of \(R_B\) in series with \(V_{BB}\) supply of \(2.0\,V\) if the base current has to be 10 times the signal current?

  • (A) \(14\,k\Omega\)
  • (B) \(18\,k\Omega\)
  • (C) \(10\,k\Omega\)
  • (D) \(5\,k\Omega\)

Question 40:

The combination of gates shown below yields:

  • (A) OR gate
  • (B) NOT gate
  • (C) XOR gate
  • (D) NAND gate

Question 41:

The formation of CO and CO\(_2\) illustrates the law of:

  • (A) reciprocal proportion
  • (B) conservation of mass
  • (C) multiple proportion
  • (D) constant composition

Question 42:

The wave number of the limiting line in Lyman series of hydrogen is \(109678\,cm^{-1}\). The wave number of the limiting line in Balmer series of He\(^+\) would be:

  • (A) \(54839\,cm^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(109678\,cm^{-1}\)
  • (C) \(219356\,cm^{-1}\)
  • (D) \(438712\,cm^{-1}\)

Question 43:

The valency shell of element A contains 3 electrons while the valency shell of element B contains 6 electrons. If A combines with B, the probable formula of the compound formed will be:

  • (A) AB\(_2\)
  • (B) A\(_2\)B
  • (C) A\(_2\)B\(_3\)
  • (D) A\(_3\)B\(_2\)

Question 44:

The enthalpy of sublimation of aluminium is \(330\,kJ mol^{-1}\). Its I\(^st\), II\(^nd\) and III\(^rd\) ionization enthalpies are 580, 1820 and \(2740\,kJ mol^{-1}\) respectively. How much heat must be supplied in kJ to convert 13.5 g of aluminium into Al\(^{3+}\) ions and electrons at 298 K?

  • (A) 5470
  • (B) 2735
  • (C) 4105
  • (D) 3765

Question 45:

Which one of the following pairs is isostructural (i.e., having the same shape and hybridization)?

  • (A) \([BCl_3 and BrCl_3]\)
  • (B) \([NH_3 and NO_3^-]\)
  • (C) \([NF_3 and BF_3]\)
  • (D) \([BF_4^- and NH_4^+]\)

Question 46:

N\(_2\) and O\(_2\) are converted into mono anions N\(_2^-\) and O\(_2^-\) respectively. Which of the following statements is wrong?

  • (A) In N\(_2^-\), the N–N bond weakens
  • (B) In O\(_2^-\), the O–O bond order increases
  • (C) In O\(_2^-\), bond length decreases
  • (D) N\(_2^-\) becomes diamagnetic

Question 47:

If the enthalpy of vaporization of water is \(18.6\,kJ mol^{-1}\), the entropy of its vaporization will be:

  • (A) \(0.5\,kJ K^{-1}mol^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(1.0\,kJ K^{-1}mol^{-1}\)
  • (C) \(1.5\,kJ K^{-1}mol^{-1}\)
  • (D) \(2.0\,kJ K^{-1}mol^{-1}\)

Question 48:

The heats of neutralisation of CH\(_3\)COOH, HCOOH, HCN and H\(_2\)S are \(-13.2, -13.4, -2.9\) and \(-3.8\) kcal per equivalent respectively. Arrange the acids in increasing order of acidic strength.

  • (A) HCOOH > CH\(_3\)COOH > H\(_2\)S > HCN
  • (B) CH\(_3\)COOH > HCOOH > H\(_2\)S > HCN
  • (C) H\(_2\)S > HCOOH > CH\(_3\)COOH > HCN
  • (D) HCOOH > H\(_2\)S > CH\(_3\)COOH > HCN

Question 49:

\(K_c\) for the reaction \([Ag(CN)_2]^-\rightleftharpoons Ag^+ + 2CN^-\) is \(4.0\times10^{-19}\) at \(25^\circC\). The equilibrium concentration of silver cation in a solution which was originally \(0.1\) molar in KCN and \(0.03\) molar in AgNO\(_3\) is:

  • (A) \(7.5\times10^{18}\)
  • (B) \(7.5\times10^{-19}\)
  • (C) \(7.5\times10^{19}\)
  • (D) \(7.5\times10^{-18}\)

Question 50:

The ratio of oxidation states of Cl in potassium chloride to that in potassium chlorate is:

  • (A) \(+\dfrac{1}{5}\)
  • (B) \(-\dfrac{1}{5}\)
  • (C) \(-\dfrac{2}{5}\)
  • (D) \(+\dfrac{3}{5}\)

Question 51:

Which of the following among alkali metal is most reactive?

  • (A) Na
  • (B) K
  • (C) Rb
  • (D) Cs

Question 52:

Which of the following compounds has wrong IUPAC name?

  • (A) \(CH_3-CH_2-CH_2-COO-CH_2CH_3 \rightarrow\) Ethyl butanoate
  • (B) \(CH_3-CH(CH_3)-CH_2-CHO \rightarrow}\) 3-Methylbutanal
  • (C) \(CH_3-CH(OH)-CH(CH_3)-CH_3 \rightarrow\) 2-Methyl-3-butanol
  • (D) \(CH_3-CH(CH_3)-CO-CH_2-CH_3 \rightarrow\) 2-Methyl-3-pentanone

Question 53:

The compound which gives the most stable carbocation on dehydration is:

  • (A) \(CH_3CH(CH_3)CH_2OH\)
  • (B) \((CH_3)_3COH\)
  • (C) \(CH_2=CHCH_2CH_2OH\)
  • (D) \(CH_3CHOHCH_2CH_3\)

Question 54:

The correct order of increasing C–O bond length in CO, CO\(_3^{2-}\), CO\(_2\) is:

  • (A) CO < CO\(_2\) < CO\(_3^{2-}\)
  • (B) CO\(_2\) < CO\(_3^{2-}\) < CO
  • (C) CO < CO\(_3^{2-}\) < CO\(_2\)
  • (D) CO\(_3^{2-}\) < CO\(_2\) < CO

Question 55:

An organic compound A (C\(_4\)H\(_9\)Cl) on reaction with Na/diethyl ether gives a hydrocarbon which on monochlorination gives only one chloro derivative. Then A is:

  • (A) tert-butyl chloride
  • (B) sec-butyl chloride
  • (C) isobutyl chloride
  • (D) n-butyl chloride

Question 56:

When rain is accompanied by a thunderstorm, the collected rain water will have a pH value:

  • (A) Slightly lower than that of rain water without thunderstorm
  • (B) Slightly higher than rain water without thunderstorm
  • (C) Uninfluenced by occurrence of thunderstorm
  • (D) Which depends upon the amount of dust in air

Question 57:

An elemental crystal has a density of \(8570\,kg m^{-3}\). The packing efficiency is 0.68. The closest distance of approach between neighbouring atoms is \(2.86\,\AA\). What is the mass of one atom approximately?

  • (A) \(93\,amu\)
  • (B) \(39\,amu\)
  • (C) \(63\,amu\)
  • (D) \(29\,amu\)

Question 58:

Identify the correct order of solubility of Na\(_2\)S, CuS and ZnS in aqueous medium:

  • (A) CuS > ZnS > Na\(_2\)S
  • (B) ZnS > Na\(_2\)S > CuS
  • (C) Na\(_2\)S > CuS > ZnS
  • (D) Na\(_2\)S > ZnS > CuS

Question 59:

In the cell reaction \(Cu(s) + 2Ag^+(aq) \rightarrow Cu^{2+}(aq) + 2Ag(s)\), \(E^\circ_{cell} = 0.46\,V\). By doubling the concentration of \(Cu^{2+}\), \(E_{cell}\) is:

  • (A) doubled
  • (B) halved
  • (C) increases but less than double
  • (D) decreases by a small fraction

Question 60:

Cu\(^+\) is unstable in solution and undergoes simultaneous oxidation and reduction according to the reaction \(2Cu^+(aq) \rightarrow Cu^{2+}(aq) + Cu(s)\).
Choose the correct \(E^\circ\) for the above reaction if \(E^\circ_{Cu^{2+}/Cu} = +0.34\,V\) and \(E^\circ_{Cu^+/Cu} = +0.15\,V\).

  • (A) \(-0.38\,V\)
  • (B) \(+0.49\,V\)
  • (C) \(+0.38\,V\)
  • (D) \(-0.19\,V\)

Question 61:

The reduction of peroxodisulphate ion by I\(^{-}\) ion is expressed by \(S_2O_8^{2-} + 3I^- \rightarrow 2SO_4^{2-} + I_3^-\).
If rate of disappearance of I\(^{-}\) is \(9/2 \times 10^{-3}\,mol L^{-1}s^{-1}\), what is the rate of formation of \(2SO_4^{2-}\) during same time?

  • (A) \(3 \times 10^{-3}\,mol L^{-1}s^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(2 \times 10^{-3}\,mol L^{-1}s^{-1}\)
  • (C) \(10^{-3}\,mol L^{-1}s^{-1}\)
  • (D) \(4 \times 10^{-3}\,mol L^{-1}s^{-1}\)

Question 62:

A gaseous reaction \(X_2(g) \rightarrow Y + \frac{1}{2}Z(g)\).
There is an increase in pressure from 100 mm to 120 mm in 5 minutes. The rate of disappearance of \(X_2\) is:

  • (A) \(8\,mm min^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(2\,mm min^{-1}\)
  • (C) \(16\,mm min^{-1}\)
  • (D) \(4\,mm min^{-1}\)

Question 63:

Two substances R and S decompose in solution independently, both following first order kinetics. The rate constant of R is twice that of S. Initially 0.5 millimoles of R and 0.25 of S. The molarities of R and S will be equal at the end of time equal to:

  • (A) twice the half-life of R
  • (B) twice the half-life of S
  • (C) the half-life of S
  • (D) the half-life of R

Question 64:

The isoelectric point of a colloidally dispersed material is the pH value at which:

  • (A) the dispersed phase migrates in an electric field
  • (B) the dispersed phase does not migrate in an electric field
  • (C) the dispersed phase has pH equal to 7
  • (D) the dispersed phase has pH equal to zero

Question 65:

Which of the following halogens exhibit only one oxidation state in its compounds?

  • (A) Bromine
  • (B) Chlorine
  • (C) Fluorine
  • (D) Iodine

Question 66:

Starch can be used as an indicator for the detection of traces of:

  • (A) glucose in aqueous solution
  • (B) proteins in blood
  • (C) iodine in aqueous solution
  • (D) urea in blood

Question 67:

Which one of the following arrangements represents the correct order of electron gain enthalpy (with negative sign) of the given atomic species?

  • (A) S < O < Cl < F
  • (B) Cl < F < S < O
  • (C) F < Cl < O < S
  • (D) O < S < F < Cl

Question 68:

Which forms coloured salts:

  • (A) Non-metals
  • (B) Metals
  • (C) p-block elements
  • (D) Transition elements

Question 69:

The correct order of magnetic moments (spin only values in B.M.) is:
(Atomic nos.: Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27)

  • (A) \([Fe(CN)_6]^{4-} > [MnCl_4]^{2-} > [CoCl_4]^{2-}\)
  • (B) \([MnCl_4]^{2-} > [Fe(CN)_6]^{4-} > [CoCl_4]^{2-}\)
  • (C) \([MnCl_4]^{2-} > [CoCl_4]^{2-} > [Fe(CN)_6]^{4-}\)
  • (D) \([Fe(CN)_6]^{4-} > [CoCl_4]^{2-} > [MnCl_4]^{2-}\)

Question 70:

The number of double bonds in gammaxene is:

  • (A) 0
  • (B) 1
  • (C) 2
  • (D) 3

Question 71:

\[ Ph–CH(OH)–CHO \xrightarrow[H_2O]{HO^-} Q \]
P and Q are isomers. Identify Q.




  • (A) \(Ph–CH_2–COOH\)
  • (B) \(Ph–COOCH_3\)
  • (C) \(H–CO–CH_2–O–Ph\)
  • (D) \(Ph–CO–CH_2OH\)

Question 72:

Consider the following phenols as shown in the figure. The decreasing order of acidity of the above phenols is:

  • (A) III > IV > II > I
  • (B) II > I > IV > III
  • (C) I > IV > II > III
  • (D) III > IV > I > II

Question 73:

The ionization constant of phenol is higher than that of ethanol because:

  • (A) Phenoxide ion is bulkier than ethoxide
  • (B) Phenoxide ion is stronger base than ethoxide
  • (C) Phenoxide ion is stabilized through delocalization
  • (D) Phenoxide ion is less stable than ethoxide

Question 74:

The reaction \[ \mathrm{CH_3-CH=CH_2 \xrightarrow[H^+]{CO+H_2O} CH_3-CH(COOH)-CH_3} \]
is known as:

  • (A) Wurtz reaction
  • (B) Koch reaction
  • (C) Clemmensen reduction
  • (D) Kolbe’s reaction

Question 75:

Aniline reacts with phosgene and KOH to form:

  • (A) Phenol
  • (B) Benzoyl chloride
  • (C) Acetanilide
  • (D) Phenyl isocyanate

Question 76:

Which one of the following monomers gives the polymer neoprene on polymerization?

  • (A) \(\mathrm{CF_2 = CF_2}\)
  • (B) \(\mathrm{CH_2 = CHCl}\)
  • (C) \(\mathrm{CH_2 = CCl-CH = CH_2}\)
  • (D) \(\mathrm{CH_2 = C-CH = CH_2}\)

Question 77:

Which of the following can possibly be used as analgesic without causing addiction and modification?

  • (A) morphine
  • (B) N-acetyl-para-aminophenol
  • (C) diazepam
  • (D) tetrahydrocatenol

Question 78:

Which among the following is not an antibiotic?

  • (A) Penicillin
  • (B) Oxytocin
  • (C) Ofloxacin
  • (D) Tetracycline

Question 79:

Which of the following ions can be separated by aq. NH\(_4\)OH in presence of NH\(_4\)Cl?

  • (A) Al\(^{3+}\) and Fe\(^{3+}\)
  • (B) Cr\(^{3+}\) and Al\(^{3+}\)
  • (C) Cu\(^{2+}\) and Al\(^{3+}\)
  • (D) None of these

Question 80:

3.92 g of ferrous ammonium sulphate reacts completely with 50 ml of \(\frac{N}{10}\) KMnO\(_4\) solution. The percentage purity of the sample is:

  • (A) 50
  • (B) 78.4
  • (C) 80
  • (D) 39.2

Question 81:

The set \((A\setminus B)\cup(B\setminus A)\) is equal to:

  • (A) \([A\cup B]\cap[B\cap A]\)
  • (B) \((A\cup B)\cap(A\cap B)\)
  • (C) \(A\cap B\)
  • (D) \(A\triangle B = (A\cup B)\setminus(A\cap B)\)

Question 82:

The domain of the function \[ f(x)=\log_2\!\left(-\log_{\sqrt{2}}\!\left(1+\frac{1}{x^4}\right)-1\right) \]
is:

  • (A) \((0,1)\)
  • (B) \((0,1]\)
  • (C) \([1,\infty)\)
  • (D) \((1,\infty)\)

Question 83:

\(\cos^2\!\left(\frac{\pi}{6}+\theta\right)-\sin^2\!\left(\frac{\pi}{6}-\theta\right)=\)

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{2}\cos2\theta\)
  • (B) \(0\)
  • (C) \(-\frac{1}{2}\cos2\theta\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 84:

The solution of \(\cos(2x)-1(3+2\cos x)=0\) in the interval \(0\le x\le2\pi\) is:

  • (A) \(\frac{\pi}{3}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\pi}{3},\frac{5\pi}{3}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\pi}{3},\frac{5\pi}{3},\cos^{-1}\!\left(-\frac{3}{2}\right)\)
  • (D) None of these

Question 85:

\(2^{3n}-7n-1\) is divisible by:

  • (A) 64
  • (B) 36
  • (C) 49
  • (D) 25

Question 86:

The greatest positive integer which divides \(n(n+1)(n+2)(n+3)\) for all \(n\in\mathbb{N}\), is:

  • (A) \(2\)
  • (B) \(6\)
  • (C) \(24\)
  • (D) \(120\)

Question 87:

If \(z=x+iy,\; z^{1/3}=a-ib\), then \(\dfrac{x}{a}-\dfrac{y}{b}=k(a^2-b^2)\), where \(k\) is equal to:

  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \(2\)
  • (C) \(3\)
  • (D) \(4\)

Question 88:

\(i^{57}+\dfrac{1}{i^{25}}\), when simplified has the value:

  • (A) \(0\)
  • (B) \(2i\)
  • (C) \(2-2i\)
  • (D) \(2\)

Question 89:

The complex number \(z=z+iy\) which satisfies the equation \[ \left|\frac{z-3i}{z+3i}\right|=1 \]
lies on:

  • (A) the X-axis
  • (B) the straight line \(y=3\)
  • (C) a circle passing through origin
  • (D) None of the above

Question 90:

The number of all three element subsets of the set \(\{a_1,a_2,a_3,\ldots,a_n\}\) which contain \(a_3\) is:

  • (A) \({}^nC_3\)
  • (B) \({}^{n-1}C_3\)
  • (C) \({}^{n-1}C_2\)
  • (D) None of these

Question 91:

In how many ways can a committee of 5 be formed out of 6 men and 4 women containing at least one woman?

  • (A) 246
  • (B) 222
  • (C) 186
  • (D) None of these

Question 92:

The coefficient of \(x^4\) in the expansion of \((1+x+x^2+x^3)^{11}\) is:

  • (A) 440
  • (B) 770
  • (C) 990
  • (D) 1001

Question 93:

If \(T_0,T_1,T_2,\ldots,T_n\) represent the terms in the expansion of \((x+a)^n\), then \((T_0-T_2+T_4-\cdots)^2+(T_1-T_3+T_5-\cdots)^2=\)

  • (A) \((x^2+a^2)^n\)
  • (B) \((x^2+a^2)^{2n}\)
  • (C) \((x^2+a^2)^{n/2}\)
  • (D) \((x^2+a^2)^{-1/n}\)

Question 94:

If the \((2p)^{th}\) term of a H.P. is \(q\) and the \((2q)^{th}\) term is \(p\), then the \(2(p+q)^{th}\) term is:

  • (A) \(\dfrac{pq}{2(p+q)}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{2pq}{p+q}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{pq}{p+q}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{p+q}{pq}\)

Question 95:

If \(\frac{1}{a}, \frac{1}{b}, \frac{1}{c}\) are in A.P., then \[ \left(\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}+\frac{1}{c}\right)\left(\frac{1}{b}+\frac{1}{c}-\frac{1}{a}\right) \]
is equal to:

  • (A) \(\dfrac{4}{ac}-\dfrac{3}{b^2}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{b^2-ac}{a^2b^2c^2}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{4}{ac}-\dfrac{1}{b^2}\)
  • (D) None of these

Question 96:

The product of \(n\) positive numbers is unity, then their sum is:

  • (A) a positive integer
  • (B) divisible by \(n\)
  • (C) equal to \(n+\frac{1}{n}\)
  • (D) never less than \(n\)

Question 97:

If \(P_1\) and \(P_2\) be the lengths of perpendiculars from the origin upon the straight lines \(x\sec\theta+y\cosec\theta=a\) and \(x\cos\theta-y\sin\theta=a\cos2\theta\) respectively, then the value of \(4P_1^2+P_2^2\) is:

  • (A) \(a^2\)
  • (B) \(2a^2\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{a^2}{2}\)
  • (D) \(3a^2\)

Question 98:

The angle of intersection of the two circles \(x^2+y^2-2x-2y=0\) and \(x^2+y^2=4\) is:

  • (A) \(30^\circ\)
  • (B) \(60^\circ\)
  • (C) \(90^\circ\)
  • (D) \(45^\circ\)

Question 99:

An arch of a bridge is semi-elliptical with major axis horizontal. If the length of the base is \(9\) m and the highest part of the bridge is \(3\) m from the centre of the horizontal axis, the best approximation of the height of the arch \(2\) m from the centre of the base is:

  • (A) \(11/4\,m\)
  • (B) \(8/3\,m\)
  • (C) \(7/2\,m\)
  • (D) \(2\,m\)

Question 100:

\(\displaystyle \lim_{x\to0}\left(\csc x\right)^{1/\log x}\) is equal to:

  • (A) \(0\)
  • (B) \(1\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{1}{e}\)
  • (D) None of these

Question 101:

If M.D. is 12, the value of S.D. will be:

  • (A) 15
  • (B) 12
  • (C) 24
  • (D) None of these

Question 102:

A bag contains 5 brown and 4 white socks. A man pulls out 2 socks. Find the probability that they are of the same colour.

  • (A) \(\dfrac{4}{9}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{2}{9}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{5}{9}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{7}{9}\)

Question 103:

Let \(R=\{(3,3),(6,6),(9,9),(12,12),(6,12),(3,9),(3,12),(3,6)\}\) be a relation on the set \(A=\{3,6,9,12\}\). Then, the relation is:

  • (A) an equivalence relation
  • (B) reflexive and symmetric
  • (C) reflexive and transitive
  • (D) only reflexive

Question 104:

Let \(f:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}\) be a function defined by \(f(x)=\dfrac{x-m}{x-n}\), where \(m\neq n\). Then

  • (A) \(f\) is one-one onto
  • (B) \(f\) is one-one into
  • (C) \(f\) is many-one onto
  • (D) \(f\) is many-one into

Question 105:

Find the value of \(\tan^{-1}\!\left(\dfrac{1-\frac{\pi}{5}}{2}\right)\).

  • (A) \(-\dfrac{1}{3}\)
  • (B) \(-\dfrac{7}{17}\)
  • (C) \(-\dfrac{1}{2}\)
  • (D) \(-\dfrac{1}{4}\)

Question 106:

If \(\begin{bmatrix}\alpha & \beta
\gamma & -\alpha\end{bmatrix}\) is a square root of identity matrix of order 2, then

  • (A) \(1+\alpha^2+\beta\gamma=0\)
  • (B) \(1+\alpha^2-\beta\gamma=0\)
  • (C) \(1-\alpha^2+\beta\gamma=0\)
  • (D) \(\alpha^2+\beta\gamma=1\)

Question 107:

The value of \(\lambda\), for which the lines \(3x-4y=13\), \(8x-11y=33\) and \(2x-3y+\lambda=0\) are concurrent is

  • (A) \(-1\)
  • (B) \(-7\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{1}{7}\)
  • (D) \(9\)

Question 108:

Let \[ f(x)= \begin{cases} (x-1)\sin\!\left(\dfrac{1}{x-1}\right), & x\neq1
0, & x=1 \end{cases} \]
Then which one of the following is true?

  • (A) \(f\) is differentiable at \(x=0\) and \(x=1\)
  • (B) \(f\) is differentiable at \(x=0\) but not at \(x=1\)
  • (C) \(f\) is differentiable at \(x=1\) but not at \(x=0\)
  • (D) \(f\) is neither differentiable at \(x=0\) nor at \(x=1\)

Question 109:

The interval in which the function \(2x^3+15\) increases less rapidly than the function \(9x^2-12x\), is

  • (A) \((-\infty,1)\)
  • (B) \((1,2)\)
  • (C) \((2,\infty)\)
  • (D) None of these

Question 110:

The fuel charges for running a train are proportional to the square of the speed generated in miles per hour and cost
(48 per hour at 16 miles per hour. The most economical speed if the fixed charges (i.e., salaries etc.) amount to
)30 per hour is:

  • (A) \(10\)
  • (B) \(20\)
  • (C) \(30\)
  • (D) \(40\)

Question 111:

Evaluate: \[ \int \frac{1}{1+3\sin^2 x+8\cos^2 x}\,dx \]

  • (A) \(\dfrac{1}{6}\tan^{-1}(2\tan x)+C\)
  • (B) \(\tan^{-1}(2\tan x)+C\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{1}{6}\tan^{-1}\!\left(\dfrac{2\tan x}{3}\right)+C\)
  • (D) None of these

Question 112:

\[ \int_{0}^{10}\frac{x^{10}}{(10-x)^{10}+x^{10}}\,dx \]
is equal to

  • (A) \(10\)
  • (B) \(5\)
  • (C) \(2\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{1}{2}\)

Question 113:

The area bounded by the x-axis, the curve \(y=f(x)\) and the lines \(x=1,\;x=b\) is equal to \(\sqrt{b^2+1}-\sqrt{2}\) for all \(b>1\). Then \(f(x)\) is

  • (A) \(\sqrt{x-1}\)
  • (B) \(\sqrt{x+1}\)
  • (C) \(\sqrt{x^2+1}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{x}{\sqrt{1+x^2}}\)

Question 114:

Solution of differential equation \[ x^2-1+\left(\frac{x}{y}\right)^{-1}\frac{dy}{dx} +\frac{x^2}{2!}\left(\frac{dy}{dx}\right)^2 +\frac{x^3}{3!}\left(\frac{dy}{dx}\right)^3+\cdots=0 \]
is

  • (A) \(y^2=x^2(\ln x-1)+C\)
  • (B) \(y=x^2(\ln x-1)+C\)
  • (C) \(y^2=x(\ln x-1)+C\)
  • (D) \(y=x^2e^x+C\)

Question 115:

If the middle points of sides BC, CA and AB of triangle ABC are respectively D, E, F. If the position vectors of A, B, C are \(\hat{i}+\hat{j},\;\hat{j}+\hat{k},\;\hat{k}+\hat{i}\) respectively, then the position vector of the centre of triangle DEF is

  • (A) \(\dfrac{1}{3}(\hat{i}+\hat{j}+\hat{k})\)
  • (B) \(\hat{i}+\hat{j}+\hat{k}\)
  • (C) \(2(\hat{i}+\hat{j}+\hat{k})\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{2}{3}(\hat{i}+\hat{j}+\hat{k})\)

Question 116:

The angle between any two diagonals of a cube is

  • (A) \(45^\circ\)
  • (B) \(60^\circ\)
  • (C) \(30^\circ\)
  • (D) \(\tan^{-1}(2\sqrt{2})\)

Question 117:

Find the angle between the line \[ \frac{x+1}{2}=\frac{y}{3}=\frac{z-3}{6} \]
and the plane \(10x+2y-11z=3\).

  • (A) \(\sin^{-1}\!\left(\dfrac{8}{21}\right)\)
  • (B) \(\sin^{-1}\!\left(\dfrac{5}{21}\right)\)
  • (C) \(\sin^{-1}\!\left(\dfrac{7}{21}\right)\)
  • (D) \(\sin^{-1}\!\left(\dfrac{1}{21}\right)\)

Question 118:

The equation of the right bisector plane of the segment joining \((2,3,4)\) and \((6,7,8)\) is

  • (A) \(x+y+z+15=0\)
  • (B) \(x+y+z-15=0\)
  • (C) \(x-y+z-15=0\)
  • (D) None of these

Question 119:

A bag contains \(n+1\) coins. It is known that one of these coins shows heads on both sides, whereas the other coins are fair. One coin is selected at random and tossed. If the probability that toss results in heads is \(\frac{7}{12}\), then the value of \(n\) is

  • (A) \(3\)
  • (B) \(4\)
  • (C) \(5\)
  • (D) None of these

Question 120:

A coin is tossed 7 times. Each time a man calls head. Find the probability that he wins the toss on more occasions.

  • (A) \(\dfrac{2}{3}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{1}{2}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{3}{4}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{1}{3}\)

Question 121:

Consider \(\dfrac{x}{2}+\dfrac{y}{4}\ge1\) and \(\dfrac{x}{3}+\dfrac{y}{2}\le1,\; x,y\ge0\). Then number of possible solutions are

  • (A) Zero
  • (B) Unique
  • (C) Infinite
  • (D) None of these

Question 122:

If \(A=\begin{bmatrix}1&1
1&1\end{bmatrix}\), then \(A^{100}\) is

  • (A) \(2^{100}A\)
  • (B) \(2^{99}A\)
  • (C) \(2^{101}A\)
  • (D) None of the above

Question 123:

If \[ \begin{vmatrix} p & q-r & r-z
p-x & q & r-z
p-x & q-y & r \end{vmatrix}=0, \]
then the value of \(\dfrac{p}{x}+\dfrac{q}{y}+\dfrac{r}{z}\) is

  • (A) \(0\)
  • (B) \(1\)
  • (C) \(2\)
  • (D) \(4pqr\)

Question 124:

Through the vertex \(O\) of parabola \(y^2=4x\), chords OP and OQ are drawn at right angles to one another. The locus of the midpoint of PQ is

  • (A) \(y^2=2x+8\)
  • (B) \(y^2=x+8\)
  • (C) \(y^2=2x-8\)
  • (D) \(y^2=x-8\)

Question 125:


Let \[ f(x)= \begin{cases} \dfrac{1-\sin^3 x}{3\cos^2 x}, & x<\dfrac{\pi}{2}
[6pt] p, & x=\dfrac{\pi}{2}
[6pt] \dfrac{q(1-\sin x)}{(\pi-2x)^2}, & x>\dfrac{\pi}{2} \end{cases} \]
If \(f(x)\) is continuous at \(x=\dfrac{\pi}{2}\), then \((p,q)=\)

  • (A) \((1,4)\)
  • (B) \(\left(\dfrac{1}{2},2\right)\)
  • (C) \(\left(\dfrac{1}{2},4\right)\)
  • (D) None of these

Question 126:

AUGMENT

  • (A) Increase
  • (B) Decrease
  • (C) Save
  • (D) Mention

Question 127:

CONSOLATION

  • (A) Comfort
  • (B) Problem
  • (C) Sadness
  • (D) Solution

Question 128:

AUXILIARY

  • (A) Chief
  • (B) Supplemental
  • (C) Negligible
  • (D) Separate

Question 129:

AUSPICIOUS

  • (A) Prosperous
  • (B) Unfavourable
  • (C) Improper
  • (D) New

Question 130:

RECOMPENSE

  • (A) Emolument
  • (B) Reward
  • (C) Payment
  • (D) Penalty

Question 131:

IMPEDE

  • (A) Block
  • (B) Delay
  • (C) Push
  • (D) Freeze

Question 132:

They requested me to follow them.

  • (A) ordered
  • (B) urged
  • (C) asked
  • (D) No improvement

Question 133:

She did not believed me.

  • (A) believing
  • (B) believe to
  • (C) believe
  • (D) No improvement

Question 134:

I am fine, what about you?

  • (A) your
  • (B) your’s
  • (C) yours
  • (D) No improvement

Question 135:

They were afraid ____ the lion, so they dropped the idea of hunting in jungle.

  • (A) in
  • (B) to
  • (C) from
  • (D) of

Question 136:

Our company signed a profitable ____ last month.

  • (A) issue
  • (B) agenda
  • (C) deal
  • (D) paper

Question 137:

What is your ____ for tonight?

  • (A) Principle
  • (B) Motto
  • (C) Plan
  • (D) Objective

Question 138:

Arrange the following sentences in the correct order:

I. Today we live in modern technology era.

P. We want to get everything in one day.

Q. We have a lot of problems now.

R. Ancient time was quite pleasant.

S. We had no problems then.

6. Perhaps greed is the main cause for this.

  • (A) PQRS
  • (B) PRSQ
  • (C) SRQP
  • (D) RPQS

Question 139:

Arrange the following sentences in the correct order:

I. He is a common man.

P. Yesterday our city saw a brutal crime.

Q. Police is trying to arrest innocent persons.

R. The criminals are well known.

S. Police as well as whole system is corrupt.

6. Police will arrest him as he is an easy target because of being a common man.

  • (A) PRSQ
  • (B) PQSR
  • (C) PRQS
  • (D) PQRS

Question 140:

Arrange the following sentences in the correct order:

I. I want to change the room.

P. Last month I got a job.

Q. I had been living there for six months.

R. The office is far from the room.

S. I want to cut expenses of travelling.

6. Hopefully I will do this next week.

  • (A) PQRS
  • (B) PRSQ
  • (C) QPRS
  • (D) QPSR

Question 141:

In a certain code language, ‘SAFER’ is written as ‘5@3#2’ and ‘RIDE’ is written as ‘2C%#’, how would ‘FEEDS’ be written in that code?

  • (A) 3#C5
  • (B) 3@%5
  • (C) 3#%5
  • (D) 3#%2

Question 142:

Find the missing number from the given response.

  • (A) 72
  • (B) 720
  • (C) 700
  • (D) 38

Question 143:

If the first and second letters of the word DEPRESSION were interchanged, also the third and fourth letters, the fifth and the sixth letters and so on, then which of the following would be the seventh letter from the right?

  • (A) O
  • (B) P
  • (C) R
  • (D) S

Question 144:

Today is Thursday. The day after 59 days will be

  • (A) Sunday
  • (B) Monday
  • (C) Tuesday
  • (D) Wednesday

Question 145:

Which of the following represents coal mines, factories and fields?

  • (A) Option a
  • (B) Option b
  • (C) Option c
  • (D) Option d

Question 146:

Find out the missing term in the series:
1, 8, 27, ?, 125, 216

  • (A) 52
  • (B) 58
  • (C) 64
  • (D) 65

Question 147:

If ‘+’ means ‘×’, ‘−’ means ‘+’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ means ‘−’, then \(6 − 9 + 8 × 3 ÷ 20 = ?\)

  • (A) −2
  • (B) 6
  • (C) 10
  • (D) 12

Question 148:

Here are some words translated from an artificial language.
mallon pimm means blue light
mallon tiff means blue berry
arpan tiff means rasp berry
Which word could mean ‘light house’?

  • (A) tiffmallon
  • (B) pimalarpan
  • (C) mallonarpan
  • (D) pimmloeken

Question 149:

What is the water image of the below figure?

  • (A) Option a
  • (B) Option b
  • (C) Option c
  • (D) Option d

Question 150:

A piece of paper is folded and pinched as shown. How will it appear when unfolded?



  • (A) Option a
  • (B) Option b
  • (C) Option c
  • (D) Option d


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