BITSAT 2018 Question Paper PDF is available for download. BITSAT 2018 was conducted in online CBT mode by BITS Pilani. BITSAT 2018 Question Paper had 150 questions to be attempted in 3 hours.

BITSAT 2018 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

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Question 1:

Four point charges \( -Q, -q, 2q \) and \( 2Q \) are placed, one at each corner of the square. The relation between \( Q \) and \( q \) for which the potential at the centre of the square is zero is:

  • (A) \( Q = -q \)
  • (B) \( Q = -\dfrac{1}{q} \)
  • (C) \( Q = q \)
  • (D) \( Q = \dfrac{1}{q} \)

Question 2:

Two long parallel wires carry equal current \( i \) flowing in the same direction and are at a distance \( 2d \) apart. The magnetic field at a point lying on the perpendicular bisector joining the wires and at a distance \( x \) from the midpoint is:

  • (A) \( \dfrac{\mu_0 i d}{\pi(d^2 + x^2)} \)
  • (B) \( \dfrac{\mu_0 i x}{\pi(d^2 - x^2)} \)
  • (C) \( \dfrac{\mu_0 i x}{(d^2 + x^2)} \)
  • (D) \( \dfrac{\mu_0 i d}{(d^2 + x^2)} \)

Question 3:

In the circuit shown, the symbols have their usual meanings. The cell has emf \( E \). \( X \) is initially joined to \( Y \) for a long time. Then, \( X \) is joined to \( Z \). The maximum charge on \( C \) at any later time will be:

  • (A) \( \dfrac{E}{R\sqrt{LC}} \)
  • (B) \( \dfrac{ER}{2\sqrt{LC}} \)
  • (C) \( \dfrac{E\sqrt{LC}}{2R} \)
  • (D) \( \dfrac{E\sqrt{LC}}{R} \)

Question 4:

A point object \( O \) is placed in front of a glass rod having spherical end of radius of curvature \( 30\,cm \). The refractive index of glass is \( \mu = 1.5 \). The image would be formed at:

  • (A) 30 cm left
  • (B) infinity
  • (C) 1 cm to the right
  • (D) 18 cm to the left

Question 5:

In Young’s double slit experiment, \( \lambda = 500\,nm \), \( d = 1\,mm \), \( D = 1\,m \). Minimum distance from the central maximum for which intensity is half of the maximum intensity is:

  • (A) \( 2.5 \times 10^{-4}\,m \)
  • (B) \( 1.25 \times 10^{-4}\,m \)
  • (C) \( 0.625 \times 10^{-4}\,m \)
  • (D) \( 0.3125 \times 10^{-4}\,m \)

Question 6:

What is the voltage gain in a common emitter amplifier where input resistance is \( 3\,\Omega \), load resistance \( 24\,\Omega \), and \( \beta = 0.6 \)?

  • (A) 8.4
  • (B) 4.8
  • (C) 2.4
  • (D) 480

Question 7:

The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the moon is \( \frac{1}{6} \) that on earth and the diameter of the moon is one-fourth that of earth. The ratio of escape velocities on earth and moon will be:

  • (A) \( \dfrac{\sqrt{6}}{2} \)
  • (B) \( \sqrt{24} \)
  • (C) 3
  • (D) \( \dfrac{\sqrt{3}}{2} \)

Question 8:

Given \( \vec{P} = 2\hat{i} - 3\hat{j} + 4\hat{k} \) and \( \vec{Q} = \hat{j} - 2\hat{k} \). The magnitude of their resultant is:

  • (A) \( \sqrt{3} \)
  • (B) \( 2\sqrt{3} \)
  • (C) \( 3\sqrt{3} \)
  • (D) \( 4\sqrt{3} \)

Question 9:

A particle of mass \( m \) executes SHM with amplitude \( a \) and frequency \( \nu \). The average kinetic energy during its motion from the position of equilibrium to the end is:

  • (A) \( 2\pi^2 m a^2 \nu^2 \)
  • (B) \( \pi^2 m a^2 \nu^2 \)
  • (C) \( \dfrac{1}{4} m a^2 \nu^2 \)
  • (D) \( 4\pi^2 m a^2 \nu^2 \)

Question 10:

The dipole moment of the given charge distribution is:

  • (A) \( \dfrac{4Rq}{\pi}\hat{i} \)
  • (B) \( \dfrac{4Rq}{\pi}\hat{j} \)
  • (C) \( \dfrac{2Rq}{\pi}\hat{i} \)
  • (D) \( \dfrac{2Rq}{\pi}\hat{j} \)

Question 11:

At a place, if the earth’s horizontal and vertical components of magnetic field are equal, the angle of dip will be:

  • (A) \(30^\circ\)
  • (B) \(90^\circ\)
  • (C) \(45^\circ\)
  • (D) \(0^\circ\)

Question 12:

The third line of Balmer series of an ion equivalent to hydrogen atom has wavelength 108.5 nm. The ground state energy of an electron of this ion will be:

  • (A) 3.4 eV
  • (B) 13.6 eV
  • (C) 54.4 eV
  • (D) 122.4 eV

Question 13:

The binding energy per nucleon of \( ^{10}X \) is 9 MeV and that of \( ^{11}X \) is 7.5 MeV. The minimum energy required to remove a neutron from \( ^{11}X \) is:

  • (A) 7.5 MeV
  • (B) 2.5 MeV
  • (C) 8 MeV
  • (D) 0.5 MeV

Question 14:

If \( C \) is the velocity of light, \( g \) the acceleration due to gravity and \( P \) the atmospheric pressure, then the dimensions of length will be same as that of:

  • (A) \( \dfrac{C}{g} \)
  • (B) \( \dfrac{C}{P} \)
  • (C) \( PCg \)
  • (D) \( \dfrac{C^2}{g} \)

Question 15:

Figure shows a capillary rise \( H \). If air is blown through the horizontal tube as shown, then rise in capillary tube will be:

  • (A) \( =H \)
  • (B) \( >H \)
  • (C) \(
  • (D) zero

Question 16:

A boy running on a horizontal road at \( 8\,km/h \) finds rain falling vertically. He increases his speed to \( 12\,km/h \) and finds the drops make \( 30^\circ \) with the vertical. The speed of rain with respect to the road is:

  • (A) \( 4\sqrt{7}\,km/h \)
  • (B) \( 9\sqrt{7}\,km/h \)
  • (C) \( 12\sqrt{7}\,km/h \)
  • (D) \( 15\sqrt{7}\,km/h \)

Question 17:

A hunter aims his gun directly at a monkey on a tree. At the instant the bullet leaves the barrel, the monkey drops. Pick the correct statement regarding the situation.

  • (A) The bullet will never hit the monkey
  • (B) The bullet will always hit the monkey
  • (C) The bullet may or may not hit the monkey
  • (D) Can’t be predicted

Question 18:

A particle of mass \( m_1 \) moving with velocity \( v \) collides with a mass \( m_2 \) at rest and they get embedded. Just after collision, velocity of the system:

  • (A) increases
  • (B) decreases
  • (C) remains constant
  • (D) becomes zero

Question 19:

The ratio of specific heats of a gas is \( \dfrac{C_p}{C_v} = 1.66 \). The gas may be:

  • (A) \( \mathrm{CO_2} \)
  • (B) \( \mathrm{He} \)
  • (C) \( \mathrm{H_2} \)
  • (D) \( \mathrm{NO_2} \)

Question 20:

Two oscillators are started simultaneously in same phase. After 50 oscillations of one, they get out of phase by \( \pi \). The half oscillation. The percentage difference of frequencies of the two oscillators is nearest to:

  • (A) 2%
  • (B) 1%
  • (C) 0.5%
  • (D) 0.25%

Question 21:

A juggler keeps on moving four balls in the air throwing the balls after intervals. When one ball leaves his hand (speed = \( 20\,m/s \)), the position of other balls (height in m) will be (Take \( g = 10\,m/s^2 \)):

  • (A) 10, 20, 10
  • (B) 15, 20, 15
  • (C) 5, 15, 20
  • (D) 5, 10, 20

Question 22:

If a stone of mass \(0.05\,kg\) is thrown out of a window of a train moving at a constant speed of \(100\,km/h\), the magnitude of the net force acting on the stone is:

  • (A) \(0.5\,N\)
  • (B) zero
  • (C) \(50\,N\)
  • (D) \(5\,N\)

Question 23:

A body of mass \(M\) hits normally a rigid wall with velocity \(V\) and bounces back with the same velocity. The impulse experienced by the body is:

  • (A) \(MV\)
  • (B) \(1.5MV\)
  • (C) \(2MV\)
  • (D) zero

Question 24:

A hoop rolls down an inclined plane. The fraction of its total kinetic energy associated with rotational motion is:

  • (A) \(1:2\)
  • (B) \(1:3\)
  • (C) \(1:4\)
  • (D) \(2:3\)

Question 25:

Infinite number of masses, each \(1\,kg\), are placed along the \(x\)-axis at \(x=\pm1\,m, \pm2\,m, \pm4\,m, \pm8\,m, \ldots\). The magnitude of the resultant gravitational potential at the origin is:

  • (A) \( \dfrac{G}{2} \)
  • (B) \( G \)
  • (C) \( 2G \)
  • (D) \( 4G \)

Question 26:

Water of volume \(2\,litre\) in a container is heated with a coil of \(1\,kW\) at \(27^\circC\). The lid is open and energy dissipates at a rate of \(160\,J/s\). In how much time will the temperature rise from \(27^\circC\) to \(77^\circC\)?
(Given specific heat of water \(= 4.2\,kJ/kgK\))

  • (A) 8 min 20 s
  • (B) 6 min 2 s
  • (C) 7 min
  • (D) 14 min

Question 27:

In the following \(P\)-\(V\) diagram of an ideal gas, two adiabates and two isotherms at \(T_1=300\,K\) and \(T_2=200\,K\) are shown. Values are \(V_A=2\), \(V_B=8\), \(V_C=16\). Find \(V_D\).

  • (A) 4 unit
  • (B) \(<4\) unit
  • (C) \(>5\) unit
  • (D) 5 unit

Question 28:

The mass of an \(H_2\) molecule is \(3.32\times10^{-27}\,kg\). If \(10^{23}\) hydrogen molecules per second strike \(2\,cm^2\) of a wall at an angle of \(45^\circ\) with the normal while moving at a speed of \(10^5\,cm/s\), the pressure exerted on the wall is nearly:

  • (A) \(1350\,N/m^2\)
  • (B) \(2350\,N/m^2\)
  • (C) \(3320\,N/m^2\)
  • (D) \(1660\,N/m^2\)

Question 29:

The wavelengths of two waves are \(50\,cm\) and \(51\,cm\) respectively. If the temperature of the room is \(20^\circC\), then what will be the number of beats produced per second by these waves, when the speed of sound at \(0^\circC\) is \(332\,m/s\)?

  • (A) 24
  • (B) 14
  • (C) 10
  • (D) None of these

Question 30:

The figure shows the interference pattern obtained in a double slit experiment using light of wavelength \(600\,nm\). Fingers marked 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 are shown. The third order bright fringe is:

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 5

Question 31:

Electric potential at any point is \( V = -5x + 3y + \sqrt{15}\,z \). The magnitude of the electric field is:

  • (A) \(3\sqrt{2}\)
  • (B) \(4\sqrt{2}\)
  • (C) \(5\sqrt{2}\)
  • (D) 7

Question 32:

Seven resistances, each of value \(20\,\Omega\), are connected to a \(2\,V\) battery as shown. The ammeter reading will be:

  • (A) \( \dfrac{1}{10}\,A \)
  • (B) \( \dfrac{3}{10}\,A \)
  • (C) \( \dfrac{4}{10}\,A \)
  • (D) \( \dfrac{7}{10}\,A \)

Question 33:

The variation of magnetic susceptibility \( \chi \) with temperature \( T \) for a diamagnetic substance is best represented by:

  • (A) Option a
  • (B) Option b
  • (C) Option c
  • (D) Option d

Question 34:

A copper rod of length \( \ell \) rotates about its end with angular velocity \( \omega \) in a uniform magnetic field \( B \). The emf developed between the ends of the rod if the field is normal to the plane of rotation is:

  • (A) \( B\omega \ell^2 \)
  • (B) \( \dfrac{1}{2}B\omega \ell^2 \)
  • (C) \( 2B\omega \ell^2 \)
  • (D) \( \dfrac{1}{4}B\omega \ell^2 \)

Question 35:

A \(10\,V\) battery with internal resistance \(1\,\Omega\) and a \(15\,V\) battery with internal resistance \(0.6\,\Omega\) are connected in parallel to a voltmeter (see figure). The reading in the voltmeter will be close to:

  • (A) 12.5 V
  • (B) 24.5 V
  • (C) 13 V
  • (D) 11.9 V

Question 36:

Ten tuning forks are arranged in increasing order of frequency such that any two nearest tuning forks produce 4 beats/s. The highest frequency is twice of the lowest. The possible highest and lowest frequencies (in Hz) are:

  • (A) 80 and 40
  • (B) 100 and 50
  • (C) 44 and 22
  • (D) 72 and 36

Question 37:

A charged particle enters a uniform magnetic field with a certain velocity. The power delivered to the particle by the magnetic field depends on:

  • (A) force exerted by magnetic field and velocity
  • (B) angular speed \( \omega \) and radius of circular path
  • (C) angular speed \( \omega \) and acceleration of the particle
  • (D) None of these

Question 38:

A resistor and an inductor are connected to an AC supply of \(120\,V\) and \(50\,Hz\). The current in the circuit is \(3\,A\). If the power consumed is \(108\,W\), then the resistance in the circuit is:

  • (A) \(12\,\Omega\)
  • (B) \(40\,\Omega\)
  • (C) \(\sqrt{(52\times25)}\,\Omega\)
  • (D) \(360\,\Omega\)

Question 39:

In an electron gun, the potential difference between the filament and plate is \(3000\,V\). What will be the velocity of electron emitting from the gun?

  • (A) \(3\times10^8\,m/s\)
  • (B) \(3.18\times10^7\,m/s\)
  • (C) \(3.52\times10^7\,m/s\)
  • (D) \(3.26\times10^7\,m/s\)

Question 40:

A radioactive substance decays with decay constant \(0.5\,s^{-1}\) and is being produced at a constant rate of 50 nuclei per second. If there are no nuclei present initially, the time (in s) after which 25 nuclei will be present is:

  • (A) 1
  • (B) \(\ln 2\)
  • (C) \(\ln(4/3)\)
  • (D) \(2\ln(4/3)\)

Question 41:

The \(25\,mL\) of a \(0.15\,M\) solution of lead nitrate, \( Pb(NO_3)_2 \), reacts with all the aluminium sulphate, \( Al_2(SO_4)_3 \), present in \(20\,mL\) of solution. What is the molar concentration of the solution of \( Al_2(SO_4)_3 \)? \[ 3Pb(NO_3)_2 + Al_2(SO_4)_3 \rightarrow 3PbSO_4 + 2Al(NO_3)_3 \]

  • (A) \(6.25\times10^{-2}\,M\)
  • (B) \(2.421\times10^{-2}\,M\)
  • (C) \(0.1875\,M\)
  • (D) None of these

Question 42:

100 mL \( O_2 \) and \( H_2 \) are kept at the same temperature and pressure. What is true about their number of molecules?

  • (A) \(N_{O_2} > N_{H_2}\)
  • (B) \(N_{O_2} < N_{H_2}\)
  • (C) \(N_{O_2} = N_{H_2}\)
  • (D) \(N_{O_2} + N_{H_2} = 1\,mole\)

Question 43:

If Planck’s constant \( h = 6.6\times10^{-34}\,J\,s \), the de Broglie wavelength of a particle having momentum \( 3.3\times10^{-24}\,kg m s^{-1} \) will be:

  • (A) \(0.002\,\AA\)
  • (B) \(0.5\,\AA\)
  • (C) \(2\,\AA\)
  • (D) \(500\,\AA\)

Question 44:

Amongst the elements with following electronic configurations, which one may have the highest ionisation energy?

  • (A) \([Ne]\,3s^2 3p^2\)
  • (B) \([Ar]\,3d^{10}4s^2 4p^3\)
  • (C) \([Ne]\,3s^2 3p^1\)
  • (D) \([Ne]\,3s^2 3p^3\)

Question 45:

Which of the following is the correct and increasing order of lone pairs of electrons on the central atom?

  • (A) \( IF_7 < IF_5 < ClF_3 < XeF_2 \)
  • (B) \( IF_7 < XeF_2 < ClF_2 < IF_5 \)
  • (C) \( IF_7 < ClF_3 < XeF_2 < IF_5 \)
  • (D) \( IF_7 < XeF_2 < IF_5 < ClF_3 \)

Question 46:

According to molecular orbital theory which statement about the magnetic character and bond order is correct regarding \( O_2 \)?

  • (A) Paramagnetic and Bond order \(< O_2^-\)
  • (B) Paramagnetic and Bond order \(> O_2^-\)
  • (C) Diamagnetic and Bond order \(< O_2^-\)
  • (D) Diamagnetic and Bond order \(> O_2^-\)

Question 47:

If \(V\) is the volume of one molecule of a gas under given conditions, the van der Waals constant \(b\) is:

  • (A) \(4V\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{4V}{N_0}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{N_0}{4V}\)
  • (D) \(4VN_0\)

Question 48:

For vaporization of water at 1 atmospheric pressure, the values of \( \Delta H \) and \( \Delta S \) are \(40.63\,kJ mol^{-1}\) and \(108.8\,J K^{-1}mol^{-1}\), respectively. The temperature when Gibbs free energy change (\(\Delta G\)) for this transformation will be zero, is:

  • (A) \(293.4\,K\)
  • (B) \(273.4\,K\)
  • (C) \(393.4\,K\)
  • (D) \(373.4\,K\)

Question 49:

For the reaction taking place at certain temperature \[ NH_2COONH_4(s) \rightleftharpoons 2NH_3(g) + CO_2(g), \]
if equilibrium pressure is \(3X\) bar, then \( \Delta G^\circ \) would be:

  • (A) \( -RT\ln 9 - 3RT\ln X \)
  • (B) \( RT\ln 4 - 3RT\ln X \)
  • (C) \( -3RT\ln X \)
  • (D) None of these

Question 50:

The pH of \(0.1\,M\) solution of the following salts increases in order:

  • (A) NaCl < NH\(_4\)Cl < NaCN < HCl
  • (B) HCl < NH\(_4\)Cl < NaCl < NaCN
  • (C) NaCN < NH\(_4\)Cl < NaCl < HCl
  • (D) HCl < NaCl < NaCN < NH\(_4\)Cl

Question 51:

When \( N_2O_5 \) is heated at certain temperature, it dissociates as \[ N_2O_5(g) \rightleftharpoons N_2O_3(g) + O_2(g);\quad K_1=2.5 \]
At the same time \[ N_2O_3(g) \rightleftharpoons N_2O(g) + O_2(g) \]
If initially \(4.0\) moles of \( N_2O_5 \) are taken in a \(1.0\,L\) flask and equilibrium concentration of \( O_2 \) is \(2.5\,M\), equilibrium concentration of \( N_2O_5 \) is:

  • (A) \(1.0\,M\)
  • (B) \(1.5\,M\)
  • (C) \(2.166\,M\)
  • (D) \(1.846\,M\)

Question 52:

Consider the reactions \[ (A)\quad H_2O_2 + 2HI \rightarrow I_2 + 2H_2O \] \[ (B)\quad HOCl + H_2O_2 \rightarrow H_3O^+ + Cl^- + O_2 \]
Which statement is correct about \( H_2O_2 \) with reference to these reactions?

  • (A) an oxidising agent in (A) and reducing agent in (B)
  • (B) an oxidising agent in (A) and (B)
  • (C) a reducing agent in (A) and oxidising agent in (B)
  • (D) a reducing agent in both (A) and (B)

Question 53:

Following are colours shown by some alkaline earth metals in flame test. Which of the following are not correctly matched?


\begin{tabular{|c|c|
\hline
Metal & Colour

\hline
(i) Calcium & Apple green

(ii) Strontium & Crimson

(iii) Barium & Brick red

\hline
\end{tabular

  • (A) (i) and (iii)
  • (B) (i) only
  • (C) (ii) only
  • (D) (ii) and (iii)

Question 54:

Beryllium shows diagonal relationship with aluminium. Which of the following similarity is incorrect?

  • (A) Be forms beryllates and Al forms aluminates
  • (B) BeO(OH)\(_2\) like Al(OH)\(_3\) is basic
  • (C) Be like Al is rendered passive by HNO\(_3\)
  • (D) Be\(_2\)C like Al\(_4\)C\(_3\) yields methane on hydrolysis

Question 55:

An element \(X\) occurs in short period having configuration \(ns^2np^1\). The formula and nature of its oxide is:

  • (A) \(XO_3\), basic
  • (B) \(XO_3\), acidic
  • (C) \(X_2O_3\), amphoteric
  • (D) \(X_2O_3\), basic

Question 56:

Which of the following is the strongest nucleophile?

  • (A) Br\(^{-}\)
  • (B) :OH\(^{-}\)
  • (C) :CN\(^{-}\)
  • (D) C\(_2\)H\(_5\)O\(^{-}\)

Question 57:

The IUPAC name of the compound is:

  • (A) 3,3-dimethyl-1-cyclohexanol
  • (B) 1,1-dimethyl-3-hydroxycyclohexane
  • (C) 3,3-dimethyl-1-hydroxycyclohexane
  • (D) 1,1-dimethyl-3-cyclohexanol

Question 58:

Which of the following will have a meso-isomer also?

  • (A) 2,3-Dichloropentane
  • (B) 2,3-Dichlorobutane
  • (C) 2-Chlorobutane
  • (D) 2-Hydroxypropanoic acid

Question 59:

In a set of reactions, ethylbenzene yielded a product \(D\). The reaction sequence is: \[ Ethylbenzene \xrightarrow[KOH]{KMnO_4} B \xrightarrow[\ ]{Br_2/FeCl_3} C \xrightarrow[\ ]{C_2H_5OH,\,H^+} D \]
The correct structure of product \(D\) is:



  • (A) Benzyl bromide ethyl ester
  • (B) Dibromobenzyl ethyl ester
  • (C) Ethoxy benzoic acid
  • (D) Ethyl m-bromobenzoate

Question 60:

Identify the incorrect statement from the following:

  • (A) Ozone absorbs the intense ultraviolet radiation of the sun.
  • (B) Depletion of ozone layer is because of its chemical reactions with chlorofluoroalkanes.
  • (C) Ozone absorbs infrared radiation.
  • (D) Oxides of nitrogen in the atmosphere are cause of depletion of ozone layer.

Question 61:

Each edge of a cubic unit cell is \(400\,pm\) long. If atomic mass of the element is 120 and its density is \(6.25\,g cm^{-3}\), the crystal lattice is: (Use \(N_A=6\times10^{23}\))

  • (A) primitive
  • (B) body centered
  • (C) face centered
  • (D) end centered

Question 62:

Chloroform, \( CHCl_3 \), boils at \(61.7^\circC\). If \(K_b\) for chloroform is \(3.63^\circC/molal\), what is the boiling point of a solution of \(15.0\,g\) of \( CHCl_3 \) and \(0.616\,kg\) of acenaphthalene (\(C_{12}H_{10}\))?

  • (A) \(61.9^\circC\)
  • (B) \(62.0^\circC\)
  • (C) \(52.2^\circC\)
  • (D) \(62.67^\circC\)

Question 63:

The pH of a \(0.1\,M\) monobasic acid is found to be 2. Hence, its osmotic pressure at a given temperature \(T\) is:

  • (A) \(0.1RT\)
  • (B) \(0.11RT\)
  • (C) \(1.1RT\)
  • (D) \(0.01RT\)

Question 64:

On passing a current of \(1.0\,A\) for 16 min and 5 s through one litre of \( CuCl_2 \) solution, all copper of the solution was deposited at cathode. The strength of the \( CuCl_2 \) solution was (Molar mass of Cu = 63.5; Faraday constant = \(96{,}500\,C mol^{-1}\)):

  • (A) \(0.01\,N\)
  • (B) \(0.01\,M\)
  • (C) \(0.02\,M\)
  • (D) \(0.02\,N\)

Question 65:

A \(100.0\,mL\) dilute solution of \( Ag^+ \) is electrolysed for \(15.0\) minutes with a current of \(1.25\,mA\) and the silver is removed completely. What was the initial \([Ag^+]\)?

  • (A) \(2.32\times10^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(2.32\times10^{-4}\)
  • (C) \(2.32\times10^{-5}\)
  • (D) \(1.16\times10^{-5}\)

Question 66:

The accompanying figure depicts a change in concentration of species \(A\) and \(B\) of the reaction \(A \rightarrow B\), as a function of time. The point of intersection of the two curves represents:

  • (A) \(t_{1/2}\)
  • (B) \(t_{3/4}\)
  • (C) \(t_{2/3}\)
  • (D) Data insufficient to predict

Question 67:

The rate constant of a reaction is \(1.5\times10^{-3}\) at \(25^\circC\) and \(2.1\times10^{-2}\) at \(60^\circC\). The activation energy is:

  • (A) \( \dfrac{35}{333}R\log_e\!\left(\dfrac{2.1\times10^{-2}}{1.5\times10^{-2}}\right) \)
  • (B) \( \dfrac{298\times333}{35}R\log_e\!\left(\dfrac{21}{1.5}\right) \)
  • (C) \( \dfrac{298\times333}{35}R\log_e(2.1) \)
  • (D) \( \dfrac{298}{35}R\log_e\!\left(\dfrac{1.5}{2.1}\right) \)

Question 68:

Freundlich equation for adsorption of gases (in amount of \(x\) g) on a solid (in amount of \(m\) g) at constant temperature can be expressed as:

  • (A) \( \log\frac{x}{m}=\log p+\frac{1}{n}\log K \)
  • (B) \( \log\frac{x}{m}=\log K+\frac{1}{n}\log p \)
  • (C) \( \frac{x}{m}\propto p^n \)
  • (D) \( \frac{x}{m}=\log p+\frac{1}{n}\log K \)

Question 69:

Which of the following feature of catalysts is described in reactions given below? \[ \begin{aligned} (i)\;& CO(g)+2H_2(g)\xrightarrow{Cu/ZnO–Cr_2O_3}CH_3OH(g)
(ii)\;& CO(g)+H_2(g)\xrightarrow{Cu}HCHO(g)
(iii)\;& CO(g)+3H_2(g)\xrightarrow{Ni}CH_4(g)+H_2O(g) \end{aligned} \]

  • (A) Activity
  • (B) Selectivity
  • (C) Catalytic promoter
  • (D) Catalytic poison

Question 70:

Which of the following is not a member of chalcogens?

  • (A) O
  • (B) S
  • (C) Se
  • (D) Po

Question 71:

Pick out the wrong statement.

  • (A) Nitrogen has the ability to form \(p\pi\)-\(p\pi\) bonds with itself
  • (B) Bismuth forms metallic bonds in elemental state
  • (C) Catenation tendency is higher in nitrogen when compared with other elements of the same group
  • (D) Nitrogen has higher first ionisation enthalpy when compared with other elements of the same group

Question 72:

Which of the following element do not form complex with EDTA?

  • (A) Ca
  • (B) Mg
  • (C) Be
  • (D) Sr

Question 73:

Which one of the following cyano complexes would exhibit the lowest value of paramagnetic behaviour?
(At. Nos.: Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27)

  • (A) \([Co(CN)_6]^{3-}\)
  • (B) \([Fe(CN)_6]^{3-}\)
  • (C) \([Mn(CN)_6]^{3-}\)
  • (D) \([Cr(CN)_6]^{3-}\)

Question 74:

When an aqueous solution of copper(II) sulphate is saturated with ammonia, the blue compound crystallises on evaporation. The formula of this blue compound is:

  • (A) \([Cu(NH_3)_4]SO_4\cdotH_2O\) (square planar)
  • (B) \([Cu(NH_3)_4]SO_4\) (tetrahedral)
  • (C) \([Cu(NH_3)_6]SO_4\) (octahedral)
  • (D) \([Cu(SO_4)(NH_3)_5]\) (octahedral)

Question 75:

Phenol reacts as shown: \[ Phenol\xrightarrow{NaOH}[X]\xrightarrow{CH_2=CHCH_2Cl}[Y] \]
Here \([Y]\) is:

  • (A) single compound
  • (B) mixture of two compounds
  • (C) mixture of three compounds
  • (D) no reaction is possible

Question 76:

Following compounds are given: \[ (1)\ CH_3CH_2OH\quad (2)\ CH_3COCH_3\quad (3)\ CH_3\!-\!CHOH\!-\!CH_3\quad (4)\ CH_3OH \]
Which of the above compound(s), on being warmed with iodine solution and NaOH, will give iodoform?

  • (A) (1) and (2)
  • (B) (1), (3) and (4)
  • (C) only (2)
  • (D) (1), (2) and (3)

Question 77:

Arrange the following alcohols in increasing order of their reactivity towards reaction with HCl: \[ (1)\ CH_3CH_2OH,\quad (2)\ (CH_3)_2CHOH,\quad (3)\ (CH_3)_3COH \]

  • (A) \(1<2<3\)
  • (B) \(2<1<3\)
  • (C) \(3<1<2\)
  • (D) \(2<3<1\)

Question 78:

Thirty percent of the bases in a sample of DNA extracted from eukaryotic cells is adenine. What percentage of cytosine is present in this DNA?

  • (A) 10%
  • (B) 20%
  • (C) 30%
  • (D) 40%

Question 79:

The blue colour of snail is due to presence of:

  • (A) Albumin
  • (B) Haemocyanin
  • (C) Globulins
  • (D) Fibrinogen

Question 80:

Which of the following is a diamine?

  • (A) Dopamine
  • (B) Histamine
  • (C) Meprobamate
  • (D) Chlorphenamine

Question 81:

Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word \emph{‘Optimistic’}.

  • (A) Favourable
  • (B) Gloomy
  • (C) Hopeful
  • (D) Rude

Question 82:

Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word \emph{‘Drowsy’}.

  • (A) Sleepy
  • (B) Nodding
  • (C) Yawning
  • (D) Wakeful

Question 83:

He is really feeling under the weather today; he has a terrible cold.

(I) feeling like the weather

(II) feeling over the weather

(III) feeling in the weather

  • (a) Only (I) is correct
  • (b) Only (III) is correct
  • (c) Only (II) is correct
  • (d) No correction required

Question 84:

By working part-time and looking after his old mother, he managed to get the best for both worlds.

(I) the best of both worlds

(II) the best on both worlds

(III) the best in both worlds

  • (a) Only (I) is correct
  • (b) Only (II) is correct
  • (c) Only (III) is correct
  • (d) No correction required

Question 85:

Hey, Nanny, speak about the devil and you are here.

(I) speak at the devil

(II) speak of the devil

(III) speak on the devil

  • (a) Only (I) is correct
  • (b) Only (II) is correct
  • (c) Only (III) is correct
  • (d) No correction required

Question 86:

According to the WHO Global Burden of Disease study which of the following is/are pollution linked health impacts?

(I) Infection of the lower respiratory system

(II) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

(III) Stroke and ischaemic heart disease

  • (a) Only (I)
  • (b) Only (III)
  • (c) Both (I) and (II)
  • (d) All of the above

Question 87:

The conclusion regarding the deaths attributed to particulate matter 2.5 micrometers is considered to be caveated because

  • (a) Measurement of all aspects of PM2.5 has been done comprehensively
  • (b) Measurement of all aspects of PM2.5 is not radical
  • (c) Relation between pollution, disease and death is complete
  • (d) None of these

Question 88:

Which of the following is/are not true in the context of the passage?

  • (a) Eastern and Southern states are worst hit in winter by burning of biomass.
  • (b) The smallest particulate matter PM2.5 penetrates and gets lodged in lungs.
  • (c) Data on fine particulates in India show that in several locations the pollutants come from the smoke emitted by vehicles.
  • (d) None is true

Question 89:

As per the given passage, which of the measure(s) is/are suggested for lowering particulate matter in the atmosphere?

(I) Making cleaner fuels available

(II) Landscaping open areas

(III) Providing cooking stoves designed scientifically

  • (a) Only (I)
  • (b) Both (I) and (II)
  • (c) All of the above
  • (d) None of these

Question 90:

If sentence (B) "The Finance Ministry's warning to potential investors in bitcoin and other cryptocurrencies has come at a time when a new, seemingly attractive investment area has opened up that few have enough information about." is to be placed after rearrangement, the correct order of sentences is:

(A) One of the main reasons for this volatility is speculation and the entry into the market of a large number of people lured by the prospect of quick and easy profits.

(B) The Finance Ministry's warning to potential investors in bitcoin and other cryptocurrencies has come at a time when a new, seemingly attractive investment area has opened up that few have enough information about.

(C) A number of investors, daunted by the high price of bitcoin, have put their money into less well-established and often spurious cryptocurrencies, only to lose it all.

(D) Investment in bitcoin and other cryptocurrencies increased tremendously in India over the past year, but most new users know close to nothing of the technology or how to verify the genuineness of a particular cryptocurrency.

(E) The price of bitcoin, the most popular of all cryptocurrencies, not only shot up by well over 1000% over the course of the last year, but also fluctuated wildly.

(F) The government's caution comes on top of three warnings issued by the Reserve Bank of India since 2013.

  • (a) CDEFA
  • (b) EAFDC
  • (c) DCAEF
  • (d) ECDAF

Question 91:

If sentence (C) “Clinical trials involving human subjects have long been a flashpoint between bioethicists and clinical research organisations (CROs) in India.” is the first sentence, what is the order of other sentences after rearrangement?

(A) Such over-volunteering occurs more frequently in bioequivalence studies, which test the metabolism of generics in healthy subjects.

(B) Landmark amendments to the Drugs and Cosmetics Act in 2013 led to better protection of vulnerable groups such as illiterate people, but more regulation is needed to ensure truly ethical research.

(C) Clinical trials involving human subjects have long been a flashpoint between bioethicists and clinical research organisations (CROs) in India.

(D) The big problem plaguing clinical research is an over-representation of low-income groups among trial subjects.

(E) While CROs have argued that more rules will stifle industry, the truth is that ethical science is often better science.

(F) Sometimes CROs recruit them selectively, exploiting financial need and medical ignorance; at other times people volunteer for the money.

  • (a) ABDFE
  • (b) BDEAF
  • (c) DFAEB
  • (d) BEDFA

Question 92:

Despite being (a)/ a good teacher, (b)/ he has no influence on his pupil. (c)/ No error (d)


Question 93:

Yesterday, when we were returning from the party, (a)/ our car met with an accident, (b)/ but we were fortunate to reach our home safely. (c)/ No error (d)


Question 94:

A group of sheep is known as:

  • (a) bunch
  • (b) herd
  • (c) band
  • (d) fleet

Question 95:

A group of trees is known as:

  • (a) grove
  • (b) parliament
  • (c) heap
  • (d) hedge

Question 96:

In a code language, if REGAINS is coded as QDFZHKM, then the word PERIODS will be coded as:

  • (a) ODQNHCR
  • (b) ODDQHCR
  • (c) OHDQNRC
  • (d) OHDQNCR

Question 97:

If \(5+6=121\) and \(10+8=324\), then find the value of \(23+14\):

  • (a) 1369
  • (b) 1349
  • (c) 1331
  • (d) 725

Question 98:

Which of the following cube in the answer figure cannot be made based on the unfolded cube in the question figure?

  • (a) Option a
  • (b) Option b
  • (c) Option c
  • (d) Option d

Question 99:

Which one of the following diagram represents the correct relationship among Professor, Male and Female?

  • (a) Option a
  • (b) Option b
  • (c) Option c
  • (d) Option d

Question 100:

Select the related letter/word/number from the given alternatives.
Distance : Odometer :: ? : Barometer

  • (a) Humidity
  • (b) Pressure
  • (c) Thickness
  • (d) Wind

Question 101:

Find the odd word/letter/number pair from the given alternatives.

  • (a) 24–1614
  • (b) 270–569
  • (c) 120–4325
  • (d) 162–6930

Question 102:

Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series. \[ L\ N\ O\ \_\ \ M\ L\ M\ \_\ \ O\ O\ M\ L \]

  • (a) MNNNO
  • (b) MONNO
  • (c) MONON
  • (d) MONNN

Question 103:

Choose the correct alternatives that will complete the series. \[ 22,\ 26,\ 53,\ 69,\ 194,\ ? \]

  • (a) 230
  • (b) 260
  • (c) 250
  • (d) 245

Question 104:

Select the missing number from the given responses.

  • (a) 888
  • (b) 788
  • (c) 848
  • (d) 842

Question 105:

Identify the figure that will complete the pattern shown.

  • (a) Option a
  • (b) Option b
  • (c) Option c
  • (d) Option d

Question 106:

The domain of the function \( f(x)=\sqrt{x^2-[x]^2} \), where \([x]\) denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to \(x\), is:

  • (a) \( (0,\infty) \)
  • (b) \( (-\infty,0) \)
  • (c) \( (-\infty,\infty) \)
  • (d) None of these

Question 107:

If \(m\sin\theta=n\sin(\theta+2\alpha)\), then \(\tan(\theta+\alpha)\) is equal to:

  • (a) \( \dfrac{m+n}{m-n}\tan\alpha \)
  • (b) \( \dfrac{m+n}{m-n}\tan\theta \)
  • (c) \( \dfrac{m+n}{m-n}\cot\alpha \)
  • (d) \( \dfrac{m+n}{m-n}\cot\theta \)

Question 108:

Number of solutions of the equation \(\sin 9\theta=\sin\theta\) in the interval \([0,2\pi]\) is:

  • (a) 16
  • (b) 17
  • (c) 18
  • (d) 15

Question 109:

A pole stands vertically inside a triangular park \(ABC\). If the angle of elevation of the top of the pole from each corner of the park is the same, then the foot of the pole is at the:

  • (a) centroid
  • (b) circumcentre
  • (c) incentre
  • (d) orthocentre

Question 110:

Let \(A,B,C\) be the angles of a plain triangle. If \(\tan\frac{A}{2}=\frac{1}{3}\) and \(\tan\frac{B}{2}=\frac{2}{3}\), then \(\tan\frac{C}{2}\) is equal to:

  • (a) \( \dfrac{7}{9} \)
  • (b) \( \dfrac{2}{9} \)
  • (c) \( \dfrac{1}{3} \)
  • (d) \( \dfrac{2}{3} \)

Question 111:

If the amplitude of \(z-2-3i\) is \(\pi/4\), then the locus of \(z=x+iy\) is:

  • (a) \(x+y-1=0\)
  • (b) \(x-y-1=0\)
  • (c) \(x+y+1=0\)
  • (d) \(x-y+1=0\)

Question 112:

The roots of the equation \(x^4-2x^3+x=380\) are:

  • (a) \(5,-4,\dfrac{1\pm5\sqrt{-3}}{2}\)
  • (b) \(-5,4,\dfrac{1\pm5\sqrt{-3}}{2}\)
  • (c) \(5,4,\dfrac{-1\pm5\sqrt{-3}}{2}\)
  • (d) \(-5,-4,\dfrac{1\pm5\sqrt{-3}}{2}\)

Question 113:

Roots of the equation \(x^2+bx-c=0\) \((b,c>0)\) are:

  • (a) Both positive
  • (b) Both negative
  • (c) Of opposite sign
  • (d) None of these

Question 114:

In how many ways can 12 gentlemen sit around a round table so that three specified gentlemen are always together?

  • (a) \(9!\)
  • (b) \(10!\)
  • (c) \(3!\,10!\)
  • (d) \(3!\,9!\)

Question 115:

The number of ways in which three dice can be thrown so as to get a sum of 15 is:

  • (a) 10
  • (b) 60
  • (c) 15
  • (d) 125

Question 116:

The coefficient of \(x^3\) in the expansion of \((x-\frac{1}{x})^7\) is:

  • (a) 14
  • (b) 21
  • (c) 28
  • (d) 35

Question 117:

If \(x>0\), then \[ 1+\frac{\log x}{1!}+\frac{(\log x)^2}{2!}+\cdots = \]

  • (a) \(x\)
  • (b) \(x^2\)
  • (c) \(2x\)
  • (d) \(\sqrt{x}\)

Question 118:

If \(a,b,c\) are in G.P., then

  • (a) \(a^2,b^2,c^2\) are in G.P.
  • (b) \(a^2(b+c),c^2(a+b),b^2(a+c)\) are in G.P.
  • (c) \(\dfrac{a}{b+c},\dfrac{b}{c+a},\dfrac{c}{a+b}\) are in G.P.
  • (d) None of these

Question 119:

The locus of the point of intersection of the lines \[ x=\frac{1-t^2}{1+t^2},\qquad y=\frac{2at}{1+t^2} \]
represents:

  • (a) circle
  • (b) parabola
  • (c) ellipse
  • (d) hyperbola

Question 120:

The equation of the circle which passes through the point \((4,5)\) and has its centre at \((2,2)\) is:

  • (a) \((x-2)^2+(y-2)^2=13\)
  • (b) \((x-2)^2+(y-2)^2=13\)
  • (c) \((x)^2+(y)^2=13\)
  • (d) \((x-4)^2+(y-5)^2=13\)

Question 121:

Eccentricity of ellipse \( \dfrac{x^2}{a^2}+\dfrac{y^2}{b^2}=1 \) if it passes through points \((9,5)\) and \((12,4)\) is:

  • (a) \(\sqrt{\dfrac{3}{4}}\)
  • (b) \(\sqrt{\dfrac{4}{5}}\)
  • (c) \(\sqrt{\dfrac{5}{6}}\)
  • (d) \(\sqrt{\dfrac{6}{7}}\)

Question 122:

Consider the equation of parabola \(y^2+4ax=0\) where \(a>0\). Which of the following is correct?

  • (a) Tangent at the vertex is \(x=0\)
  • (b) Directrix of the parabola is \(x=0\)
  • (c) Vertex of the parabola is not at the origin
  • (d) Focus of the parabola is at \((a,0)\)

Question 123:

The value of \[ \lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{1+2+3+\cdots+n}{n^2+100} \]
is equal to:

  • (a) \(\infty\)
  • (b) \(\dfrac{1}{2}\)
  • (c) \(2\)
  • (d) \(0\)

Question 124:

Evaluate \[ \lim_{x\to0}\sqrt{\frac{x-\sin x}{x+\sin^2 x}} \]

  • (a) \(1\)
  • (b) \(0\)
  • (c) \(\infty\)
  • (d) None of these

Question 125:

The probability of getting 10 in a single throw of three fair dice is:

  • (a) \(\dfrac{1}{6}\)
  • (b) \(\dfrac{1}{8}\)
  • (c) \(\dfrac{1}{9}\)
  • (d) \(\dfrac{1}{5}\)

Question 126:

Number of solutions of the equation \[ \tan^{-1}(1+x)+\tan^{-1}(1-x)=\frac{\pi}{2} \]
are:

  • (a) 3
  • (b) 2
  • (c) 1
  • (d) 0

Question 127:

If \[ A=\frac{1}{3} \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 2 & 2
2 & 1 & -2
a & 2 & b \end{bmatrix} \]
is an orthogonal matrix, then:

  • (a) \(a=-2,b=-1\)
  • (b) \(a=2,b=1\)
  • (c) \(a=2,b=-1\)
  • (d) \(a=-2,b=1\)

Question 128:

The points represented by the complex numbers \(1+i,\,-2+3i,\;\frac{5}{3}i\) on the Argand plane are:

  • (a) vertices of an equilateral triangle
  • (b) vertices of an isosceles triangle
  • (c) collinear
  • (d) None of these

Question 129:

If matrix \[ A=\begin{bmatrix} 3 & -2 & 4
1 & 2 & -1
0 & 1 & 1 \end{bmatrix} \quadand\quad A^{-1}=\frac{1}{k}\,adj(A), \]
then \(k\) is:

  • (a) 7
  • (b) \(-7\)
  • (c) 15
  • (d) \(-11\)

Question 130:

If \(x,y,z\) are complex numbers, and \[ \Delta= \begin{vmatrix} 0 & -y & -z
\bar{y} & 0 & -x
\bar{z} & \bar{x} & 0 \end{vmatrix}, \]
then \(\Delta\) is:

  • (a) purely real
  • (b) purely imaginary
  • (c) complex
  • (d) 0

Question 131:

If \[ f(x)= \begin{cases} \sin x, & when x is rational
\cos x, & when x is irrational \end{cases} \]
then the function is:

  • (a) discontinuous at \(x=n\pi+\pi/4\)
  • (b) continuous at \(x=n\pi+\pi/4\)
  • (c) discontinuous at all \(x\)
  • (d) none of these

Question 132:

If \[ f(x)= \begin{cases} 1, & 0 2\sin\frac{2x}{9}, & \frac{3\pi}{4}then:

  • (a) \(f(x)\) is continuous at \(x=0\)
  • (b) \(f(x)\) is continuous at \(x=\pi\)
  • (c) \(f(x)\) is continuous at \(x=\frac{3\pi}{4}\)
  • (d) \(f(x)\) is discontinuous at \(x=\frac{3\pi}{4}\)

Question 133:

The value of \(c\in(0,2)\) satisfying the mean value theorem for the function \(f(x)=x(x-1)^2\) on \([0,2]\) is:

  • (a) \(\frac{3}{4}\)
  • (b) \(\frac{4}{3}\)
  • (c) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
  • (d) \(\frac{2}{3}\)

Question 134:

If \( y=\dfrac{x}{x+1}+\dfrac{x+1}{x} \), then \( \dfrac{d^2y}{dx^2} \) at \(x=1\) is equal to:

  • (a) \( \dfrac{7}{4} \)
  • (b) \( \dfrac{7}{8} \)
  • (c) \( \dfrac{1}{4} \)
  • (d) \( -\dfrac{7}{8} \)

Question 135:

Let \(y=e^{2x}\). Then \( \left(\dfrac{d^2y}{dx^2}\right)\left(\dfrac{d^2x}{dy^2}\right) \) is:

  • (a) \(1\)
  • (b) \(e^{-2x}\)
  • (c) \(2e^{-2x}\)
  • (d) \(-2e^{-2x}\)

Question 136:

A ball is dropped from a platform \(19.6\) m high. Its position function is:

  • (a) \(x=-4.9t^2+19.6\;(0\le t\le1)\)
  • (b) \(x=-4.9t^2+19.6\;(0\le t\le2)\)
  • (c) \(x=-9.8t^2+19.6\;(0\le t\le2)\)
  • (d) \(x=-4.9t^2-19.6\;(0\le t\le2)\)

Question 137:

The value of the integral \[ \int_a^b \frac{\sqrt{x}\,dx}{\sqrt{x}+\sqrt{a+b-x}} \]
is:

  • (a) \(\pi\)
  • (b) \(\dfrac{1}{2}(b-a)\)
  • (c) \(\dfrac{\pi}{2}\)
  • (d) \(b-a\)

Question 138:

Evaluate \[ \int \frac{e^{x^2}(2x+x^3)}{(3+x^2)^2}\,dx \]

  • (a) \(\dfrac{e^{x^2}}{3+x^2}+k\)
  • (b) \(\dfrac{1}{2}\dfrac{e^{x^2}}{(3+x^2)^2}+k\)
  • (c) \(\dfrac{1}{4}\dfrac{e^{x^2}}{(3+x^2)^2}+k\)
  • (d) \(\dfrac{1}{2}\dfrac{e^{x^2}}{3+x^2}+k\)

Question 139:

If \[ \int_0^a f(2a-x)\,dx=m \quadand\quad \int_0^a f(x)\,dx=n, \]
then \[ \int_0^{2a} f(x)\,dx \]
is equal to:

  • (a) \(2m+n\)
  • (b) \(m+2n\)
  • (c) \(m-n\)
  • (d) \(m+n\)

Question 140:

The integrating factor of the differential equation \[ \sin x\,\frac{dy}{dx}+2y\cos x=1 \]
is:

  • (a) \(\sin^2 x\)
  • (b) \(\dfrac{2}{\sin x}\)
  • (c) \(\log|\sin x|\)
  • (d) \(\dfrac{1}{\sin^2 x}\)

Question 141:

The expression satisfying the differential equation \((x^2-1)\dfrac{dy}{dx}+2xy=1\) is:

  • (a) \(x^2y-xy^2=c\)
  • (b) \((y^2-1)x=y+c\)
  • (c) \((x^2-1)y=x+c\)
  • (d) none of these

Question 142:

Let \(\vec a=i-k,\ \vec b=xi+\!j+(1-x)k,\ \vec c=yi+xj+(1+x-y)k\). Then \([\vec a,\vec b,\vec c]\) depends on:

  • (a) only \(y\)
  • (b) only \(x\)
  • (c) both \(x\) and \(y\)
  • (d) neither \(x\) nor \(y\)

Question 143:

If \(\hat i+\hat j,\ \hat j+\hat k,\ \hat i+\hat k\) are position vectors of vertices of triangle \(ABC\) taken in order, then \(\angle A\) is equal to:

  • (a) \(\dfrac{\pi}{2}\)
  • (b) \(\dfrac{\pi}{5}\)
  • (c) \(\dfrac{\pi}{6}\)
  • (d) \(\dfrac{\pi}{3}\)

Question 144:

The projection of the line joining \((3,4,5)\) and \((4,6,3)\) on the line joining \((-1,2,4)\) and \((1,0,5)\) is:

  • (a) \(\dfrac{4}{3}\)
  • (b) \(\dfrac{2}{3}\)
  • (c) \(\dfrac{8}{3}\)
  • (d) \(\dfrac{1}{3}\)

Question 145:

Which of the following statements is correct?

  • (a) Every L.P.P. admits an optimal solution.
  • (b) A L.P.P. admits a unique optimal solution.
  • (c) If a L.P.P. admits two optimal solutions, it has an infinite number of optimal solutions.
  • (d) The set of all feasible solutions of a L.P.P. is a convex set.

Question 146:

If the constraints in a linear programming problem are changed then:

  • (a) The problem is to be re-evaluated.
  • (b) Solution is not defined.
  • (c) The objective function has to be modified.
  • (d) The change in constraints is ignored.

Question 147:

In a binomial distribution, the mean is \(4\) and variance is \(3\). Then its mode is:

  • (a) 5
  • (b) 6
  • (c) 4
  • (d) None of these

Question 148:

The sum \(1+\dfrac{1+a}{2!}+\dfrac{1+a+a^2}{3!}+\cdots\) is equal to:

  • (a) \(e^a\)
  • (b) \(\dfrac{e^a-e}{a-1}\)
  • (c) \((a-1)e^a\)
  • (d) \((a+1)e^a\)

Question 149:

The Boolean expression \(\sim(p\vee q)\vee(\sim p\wedge q)\) is equivalent to:

  • (a) \(p\)
  • (b) \(q\)
  • (c) \(\sim q\)
  • (d) \(\sim p\)

Question 150:

In a frequency distribution, the mean and median are \(21\) and \(22\) respectively. Then its mode is approximately:

  • (a) 25.5
  • (b) 24.0
  • (c) 22.0
  • (d) 20.5


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