BITSAT 2024 Question Paper PDF is available for download. BITSAT 2024 was conducted in online CBT mode by BITS Pilani. BITSAT 2024 Question Paper had 150 questions to be attempted in 3 hours.

BITSAT 2024 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

BITSAT 2024 Question Paper with Answer Key download iconDownload Check Solution

Question 1:

You measure two quantities as A = 1.0 m ± 0.2 m, B = 2.0 m ± 0.2 m. We should report the correct value for √(AB) as:

  • (A) 1.4 m ± 0.4 m
  • (B) 1.41 m ± 0.15 m
  • (C) 1.4 m ± 0.3 m
  • (D) 1.4 m ± 0.2 m

Question 2:

The dimensional formula of latent heat is:

  • (A) [M0 L T-2]
  • (B) [M L T-2]
  • (C) [M0 L2 T-2]
  • (D) [M L2 T-2]

Question 3:

The dimensions of the coefficient of self-inductance are:

  • (A) [M L2 T-2 A-2]
  • (B) [M L2 T-2 A-1]
  • (C) [M L T-2 A-2]
  • (D) [M L T-2 A-1]

Question 4:

A particle is moving in a straight line. The variation of position x as a function of time t is given as: x = t3 - 6t2 + 20t + 15
The velocity of the body when its acceleration becomes zero is:

  • (A) 6 m/s
  • (B) 10 m/s
  • (C) 8 m/s
  • (D) 4 m/s

Question 5:

The distance travelled by a particle starting from rest and moving with an acceleration 4/3 ms-2, in the third second is:

  • (A) 6 m
  • (B) 4 m
  • (C) 10/3 m
  • (D) 19/3 m

Question 6:

A projectile is projected with velocity of 40 m/s at an angle θ with the horizontal. If R is the horizontal range covered by the projectile and after t seconds its inclination with horizontal becomes zero, then the value of cot θ is:
[Take, g = 10 m/s2]

  • (A) R / (20t2)
  • (B) R / (10t2)
  • (C) 5R / t2
  • (D) R / t2

Question 7:

A rigid body rotates about a fixed axis with variable angular velocity ω = α - βt at time t, where α, β are constants. The angle through which it rotates before it stops is:

  • (A) α2 / (2β)
  • (B) (α2 - β2) / (2α)
  • (C) (α2 - β2) / (2β)
  • (D) ((α - β)α) / 2

Question 8:

The range of a projectile projected at an angle of 15° with the horizontal is 50 m. If the projectile is projected with the same velocity at an angle of 45°, then its range will be:

  • (A) 50 m
  • (B) 50√2 m
  • (C) 100 m
  • (D) 100√2 m
Question 9:

A particle of mass m is projected with a velocity u making an angle of 30° with the horizontal. The magnitude of angular momentum of the projectile about the point of projection when the particle is at its maximum height h is:

  • (A) (√3/16) (m u3)/g
  • (B) (√3/2) (m u2)/g
  • (C) (m u3)/(√2 g)
  • (D) zero

Question 10:

A body is thrown with a velocity of 9.8 m/s making an angle of 30° with the horizontal. It will hit the ground after a time:

  • (A) 3.0 s
  • (B) 2.0 s
  • (C) 1.5 s
  • (D) 1.0 s
Question 11:

A light string passing over a smooth light pulley connects two blocks of masses m1 and m2 (where m2 > m1). If the acceleration of the system is g/√2, then the ratio of the masses m1/m2 is:

  • (A) (√2 - 1)/(√2 + 1)
  • (B) (1 + √5)/(√5 - 1)
  • (C) (1 + √5)/(√2 - 1)
  • (D) (√3 + 1)/(√2 - 1)

Question 12:

A block of mass 1 kg is pushed up a surface inclined to horizontal at an angle of 60° by a force of 10 N parallel to the inclined surface. When the block is pushed up by 10 m along the inclined surface, the work done against frictional force is:
[Given: g = 10 m/s2, μs = 0.1]

  • (A) 5√3 J
  • (B) 5 J
  • (C) 5 × 103 J
  • (D) 10 J

Question 13:

A person of mass 60 kg is inside a lift of mass 940 kg. The lift starts moving upwards with an acceleration of 1.0 m/s2. If g = 10 m/s2, the tension in the supporting cable is:

  • (A) 8600 N
  • (B) 9680 N
  • (C) 11000 N
  • (D) 1200 N

Question 14:

A force of F = 0.5 N is applied on the lower block as shown in the figure. The work done by the lower block on the upper block for a displacement of 3 m of the upper block with respect to the ground is (Take, g = 10 m/s2):

Diagram:
Two blocks are stacked vertically. The upper block has a mass of 1 kg, and the lower block has a mass of 2 kg. The coefficient of friction between the two blocks is 0.1. A force F = 0.5 N is applied horizontally to the lower block.

  • (A) -0.5 J
  • (B) 0.5 J
  • (C) 2 J
  • (D) -2 J

Question 15:

A pendulum of mass 1 kg and length l = 1 m is released from rest at an angle θ = 60°. The power delivered by all the forces acting on the bob at angle θ = 30° will be (Take, g = 10 m/s2):

  • (A) 13.4 W
  • (B) 20.4 W
  • (C) 24.6 W
  • (D) zero

Question 16:

An ideal massless spring S can be compressed 1 m by a force of 100 N in equilibrium. The same spring is placed at the bottom of a frictionless inclined plane inclined at 30° to the horizontal. A 10 kg block M is released from rest at the top of the

Question 21:

The moment of inertia of a cube of mass m and side a about one of its edges is equal to:

  • (A) (2/3)ma2
  • (B) (4/3)ma2
  • (C) 3ma2
  • (D) (8/3)ma2

Question 22:

A body which is initially at rest at a height R above the surface of the Earth of radius R, falls freely towards the Earth. The velocity on reaching the surface of the Earth is:

  • (A) √(2gR)
  • (B) √(gR)
  • (C) √((3/2)gR)
  • (D) √(4gR)

Question 23:

The distance between the Sun and Earth is R. The duration of a year if the distance between the Sun and Earth becomes 3R will be:

  • (A) √3 years
  • (B) 3 years
  • (C) 9 years
  • (D) 3√3 years

Question 24:

For a particle inside a uniform spherical shell, the gravitational force on the particle is:

  • (A) Infinite
  • (B) Zero
  • (C) -G m1 m2 / r2
  • (D) G m1 m2 / r2

Question 25:

The kinetic energy of a satellite in its orbit around Earth is E. What should be the kinetic energy of the satellite to escape Earth's gravity?

  • (A) 4E
  • (B) 2E
  • (C) √2E
  • (D) E

Question 26:

Two wires of the same material (Young’s modulus Y) and same length L but radii R and 2R respectively, are joined end to end and a weight W is suspended from the combination. The elastic potential energy in the system is:

Diagram: Two wires are joined end-to-end. The first wire has radius R and length L. The second wire has radius 2R and length L. A weight W is suspended from the bottom.

  • (A) (3W2L) / (4πR2Y)
  • (B) (3W2L) / (8πR2Y)
  • (C) (5W2L) / (8πR2Y)
  • (D) (W2L) / (πR2Y)

Question 27:

With rise in temperature, the Young's modulus of elasticity:

  • (A) Changes erratically
  • (B) Decreases
  • (C) Increases
  • (D) Remains unchanged

Question 28:

Young's modules of materials of a wire of Length ' L ' and cross-sectional area A is Y. If the length of the wire is doubled and cross-sectional area is halved then Young's modules will be:

  • (A) Y/4
  • (B) 4Y
  • (C) Y
  • (D) 2Y

Question 29:

Pressure inside two soap bubbles are 1.01 and 1.02 atmosphere, respectively. The ratio of their volumes is:

  • (A) 4:1
  • (B) 0.8:1
  • (C) 8:1
  • (D) 2:1

Question 30:

A cube of ice floats partly in water and partly in kerosene oil. The radio of volume of ice immersed in water to that in kerosene oil (specific gravity of Kerosene oil = 0.8, specific gravity of ice = 0.9)

Diagram: A cube is shown floating partially submerged in two layers of liquid. The top layer is labeled "Kerosene oil," and the bottom layer is labeled "Water."

  • (A) 8:9
  • (B) 5:4
  • (C) 9:10
  • (D) 1:1

Question 31:

A solid metallic cube having total surface area 24 m2 is uniformly heated. If its temperature is increased by 10°C, calculate the increase in volume of the cube.
Given: α = 5.0 × 10-4 C-1

  • (A) 2.4 × 106 cm3
  • (B) 1.2 × 105 cm3
  • (C) 6.0 × 104 cm3
  • (D) 4.8 × 105 cm3

Question 32:

In the given cycle ABCDA, the heat required for an ideal monoatomic gas will be:

Diagram: A P-V diagram showing a cyclic process ABCDA. A is at (V0, P0). B is at (2V0, P0). C is at (2V0, 2P0), and D is back at (V0, 2P0).

  • (A) p0V0
  • (B) (13/2)p0V0
  • (C) (11/2)p0V0
  • (D) 4p0V0

Question 33:

A gas can be taken from A to B via two different processes ACB and ADB. When path ACB is used, 60 J of heat flows into the system and 30 J of work is done by the system. If path ADB is used, the work done by the system is 10 J. The heat flow into the system in path ADB is:

Diagram: A P-V diagram. Points A and B are marked. Two paths are shown between A and B: ACB (a curved path going up and then right) and ADB (a curved path going right and then up).

  • (A) 40 J
  • (B) 80 J
  • (C) 100 J
  • (D) 20 J

Question 34:

A source supplies heat to a system at the rate of 1000 W. If the system performs work at the rate of 200 W, the rate at which internal energy of the system increases is:

  • (A) 1200 W
  • (B) 600 W
  • (C) 500 W
  • (D) 800 W

Question 35:

On Celsius scale, the temperature of a body increases by 40°C. The increase in temperature on Fahrenheit scale is:

  • (A) 70°F
  • (B) 68°F
  • (C) 72°F
  • (D) 75°F

Question 36:

In a mixture of gases, the average number of degrees of freedom per molecule is 6. The RMS speed of the molecule of the gas is c. Then the velocity of sound in the gas is:

  • (A) c/√3
  • (B) c/√2
  • (C) 2c/3
  • (D) 3c/3

Question 37:

The temperature of an ideal gas is increased from 200 K to 800 K. If the RMS speed of gas at 200 K is v0,

Question 37:

The temperature of an ideal gas is increased from 200 K to 800 K. If the RMS speed of gas at 200 K is v0, then the RMS speed of the gas at 800 K will be:

  • (A) v0
  • (B) 4v0
  • (C) v0/4
  • (D) 2v0

Question 38:

Two vessels A and B are of the same size and are at the same temperature. A contains 1 g of hydrogen and B contains 1 g of oxygen. PA and PB are the pressures of the gases in A and B respectively, then PA/PB is:

  • (A) 8
  • (B) 16
  • (C) 32
  • (D) 4

Question 39:

Five identical springs are used in the three configurations as shown in figure. The time periods of vertical oscillations in configurations (a), (b) and (c) are in the ratio:

Diagram: Three configurations of springs are shown.
(a) A single spring with a mass attached.
(b) Two springs in series with a mass attached to the bottom spring.
(c) Two springs in parallel with a mass attached below them.

  • (A) 1:√2:1/√2
  • (B) 2:√2:1/√2
  • (C) 1/√2:2:1
  • (D) 2:1/√2:1

Question 40:

A particle executes simple harmonic motion between x = -A and x = +A. If the time taken by the particle to go from x = 0 to A/2 is 2 s, then the time taken by the particle in going from x = A/2 to A is:

  • (A) 3 s
  • (B) 2 s
  • (C) 1.5 s
  • (D) 4 s

Question 41:

A simple pendulum doing small oscillations at a place R height above the Earth's surface has a time period of T1 = 4 s. T2 would be its time period if it is brought to a point which is at a height 2R from the Earth's surface. Choose the correct relation [R = radius of Earth]:

  • (A) T1 = T2
  • (B) 2T1 = 3T2
  • (C) 3T1 = 2T2
  • (D) 2T1 = T2

Question 42:

The speed of sound in oxygen at STP will be approximately:(Given, R = 8.3J(K)-1, γ = 1.4)

  • (A) 315 m/s
  • (B) 333 m/s
  • (C) 341 m/s
  • (D) 325 m/s

Question 43:

A plane progressive wave is given by y = 2 cos 2π(330t - x) m. The frequency of the wave is:

  • (A) 165 Hz
  • (B) 330 Hz
  • (C) 660 Hz
  • (D) 340 Hz

Question 44:

An oil drop of radius 1 μm is held stationary under a constant electric field of 3.65 × 104 N/C due to some excess electrons present on it. If the density of the oil drop is 1.26 g/cm3, then the number of excess electrons on the oil drop approximately is: [Take, g = 10 m/s2]

  • (A) 7
  • (B) 12
  • (C) 9
  • (D) 8

Question 45:

The potential of a large liquid drop when eight liquid drops are combined is 20 V. Then, the potential of each single drop was:

  • (A) 10 V
  • (B) 7.5 V
  • (C) 5 V
  • (D) 2.5 V

Question 46:

A dust particle of mass 4 × 10-12 mg is suspended in air under the influence of an electric field of 50 N/C directed vertically upwards. How many electrons were removed from the neutral dust particle? [Take, g = 10 m/s2]

  • (A) 15
  • (B) 8
  • (C) 5
  • (D) 4

Question 47:

The electric field at point (30, 30, 0) due to a charge of 0.008 μC placed at the origin will be: (coordinates are in cm)

  • (A) 8000 N/C î + 8000 N/C ĵ
  • (B) 4000(î + ĵ) N/C
  • (C) 200√(2)(î + ĵ) N/C
  • (D) 400√(2)(î + ĵ) N/C

Question 48:

If two charges q1 and q2 are separated with distance 'd' and placed in a medium of dielectric constant K. What will be the equivalent distance between charges in air for the same electrostatic force?

  • (A) d√K
  • (B) 1.5d√K
  • (C) 2d√K
  • (D) None of these

Question 49:

Electric potential at a point 'P' due to a point charge of 5 × 10-9 C is 50 V. The distance of 'P' from the point charge is: (Assume, 1/(4πε0) = 9 × 109 Nm2C-2)

  • (A) 50 cm
  • (B) 45 cm
  • (C) 90 cm
  • (D) 53 cm
Correct Answer: (C) 90 cm
View Solution

Question 50:

Five charges +q, +5q, -2q, +3q and -4q are situated as shown in the figure. The electric flux due to this configuration through the surface S is:

Diagram: A closed surface 'S' is drawn. Inside the surface, there are three point charges labeled: +q, -2q, and +5q. Outside the surface, there are two point charges labeled: +3q and -4q.

  • (A) 0
  • (B) 4q/ε0
  • (C) 8q/ε0
  • (D) 5q/ε0

Question 51:

A parallel plate capacitor with plate area A and plate separation d = 2 m has a capacitance of 4μF. The new capacitance of the system if half of the space between them is filled with a dielectric material of dielectric constant K = 3 (as shown in the figure) will be:

Diagram: A parallel plate capacitor. The left half of the space between the plates is empty. The right half is filled with a material labeled "K=3". The distance between the plates is labeled 'd'.

  • (A) 2μF
  • (B) 32μF
  • (C) 6μF
  • (D) 8μF

Question 52:

In the given circuit, E1 = E2 = E3 = 2V and R1 = R2 = 4Ω, then the current flowing through the branch AB is:

Diagram:
A circuit diagram with three voltage sources (E1, E2, E3) and two resistors (R1, R2).
- E1 is connected in series with R1, forming a loop on the left side.
- E2 is connected in series with R2, forming a loop on the right side.
- E3 is connected between the two loops, forming a branch labeled AB.
The positive terminals of E1 and E2 face upwards. The positive terminal of E3 faces towards point A.

  • (A) 0
  • (B) 2A from A to B
  • (C) 2A from B to A
  • (D) 5A from B to B

Question 53:

In the following circuit diagram, when the 3Ω resistor is removed, the equivalent resistance of the network:

Diagram: A Wheatstone bridge circuit. There are four resistors arranged in a diamond shape. The resistors in the top left and bottom left arms are labeled 3Ω. The resistors in the top right and bottom right arms are labeled 6Ω. A 3Ω resistor is connected across the middle of the bridge (between the midpoints of the left and right sides).

  • (A) Increases
  • (B) Decreases
  • (C) Remains the same
  • (D) None of these
Question 54:

A conducting wire is stretched by applying a deforming force, so that its diameter decreases to 40% of the original value. The percentage change in its resistance will be:

  • (A) 0.9%
  • (B) 0.12%
  • (C) 1.6%
  • (D) 0.5%

Question 55:

A wire of resistance 160Ω is melted and drawn into a wire of one-fourth of its length. The new resistance of the wire will be:

  • (A) 10Ω
  • (B) 640Ω
  • (C) 40Ω
  • (D) 16Ω

Question 56:

Five cells each of emf E and internal resistance r send the same amount of current through an external resistance R whether the cells are connected in parallel or in series. Then the ratio R/r is:

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 1/2
  • (C) 1/5
  • (D) 1

Question 57:

The straight wire AB carries a current I. The ends of the wire subtend angles θ1 and θ2 at the point P as shown in the figure. The magnetic field at the point P is:

Diagram: A straight wire segment AB is shown. Point P is located such that perpendicular lines can be drawn from P to the line of the wire. The angles between these perpendicular lines and the lines connecting P to A and P to B are labeled θ1 and θ2 respectively. The perpendicular distance from P to the wire is labeled 'd'.

  • (A) (μ0I / 4πd)(sin θ1 - sin θ2)
  • (B) (μ0I / 4πd)(sin θ1 + sin θ2)
  • (C) (μ0I / 4πd)(cos θ1 - cos θ2)
  • (D) (μ0I / 4πd)(cos θ1 + cos θ2)

Question 58:

A long straight wire of radius a carries a steady current I. The current is uniformly distributed across its cross-section. The ratio of the magnetic field at a/2 and 2a from the axis of the wire is:

  • (A) 1:4
  • (B) 4:1
  • (C) 1:1
  • (D) 3:4

Question 59:

The electrostatic force F1 and magnetic force F2 acting on a charge q moving with velocity v can be written as:

  • (A) F1 = q v ⋅ E, F2 = q(B ⋅ v)
  • (B) F1 = q B, F2 = q(B × v)
  • (C) F1 = q E, F2 = q(v × B)
  • (D) F1 = q E, F2 = q(B × v)

Question 60:

Inside a solenoid of radius 0.5 m, the magnetic field is changing at a rate of 50 × 10-6 T/s. The acceleration of an electron placed at a distance of 0.3 m from the axis of the solenoid will be:

  • (A) 23 × 106 m/s2
  • (B) 26 × 106 m/s2
  • (C) 1.3 × 109 m/s2
  • (D) 26 × 109 m/s2

Question 61:

There are two long co-axial solenoids of the same length l. The inner and outer coils have radii r1 and r2 and the number of turns per unit length n1 and n2, respectively. The ratio of mutual inductance to the self-inductance of the inner coil is:

  • (A) n1/n2
  • (B) n2/n1 ⋅ r1/r2
  • (C) n2/n1 ⋅ r22/r12
  • (D) n2/n1
Correct Answer: (D) n2/n1
View Solution

Question 62:

A rectangular loop of length 2.5 m and width 2 m is placed at 60° to a magnetic field of 4 T. The loop is removed from the field in 10 sec. The average emf induced in the loop during this time is:

  • (A) -2 V
  • (B) +2 V
  • (C) +1 V
  • (D) -1 V
Correct Answer: (C) +1 V
View Solution

Question 63:

Find the average value of the current shown graphically from t = 0 to t = 2 s.

Diagram: A graph of current (i) vs. time (t).
- From t=0 to t=1, the current increases linearly from 0 to 10 A.
- From t=1 to t=2, the current decreases linearly from 10 A to 0 A.

  • (A) 3 A
  • (B) 5 A
  • (C) 10 A
  • (D) 4 A

Question 64:

In an AC circuit, an inductor, a capacitor, and a resistor are connected in series with XL = R = XC. The impedance of this circuit is:

  • (A) 2R2
  • (B) Zero
  • (C) R
  • (D) R√2

Question 65:

An alternating voltage V(t) = 220 sin 100πt volt is applied to a purely resistive load of 50Ω. The time taken for the current to rise from half of the peak value to the peak value is:

  • (A) 5 ms
  • (B) 3.3 ms
  • (C) 7.2 ms
  • (D) 2.2 ms

Question 66:

A parallel plate capacitor consists of two circular plates of radius R = 0.1 m. They are separated by a short distance. If the electric field between the capacitor plates changes as: dE/dt = 6 × 1013 V/(m · s) then the value of the displacement current is:

  • (A) 15.25 A
  • (B) 6.25 A
  • (C) 16.67 A
  • (D) 4.69 A
Correct Answer: (C) 16.67 A
View Solution

Question 67:

Electromagnetic waves travel in a medium with speed 1.5 × 108 m/s. The relative permeability of the medium is 2.0. The relative permittivity will be:

  • (A) 5
  • (B) 1
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 2

Question 68:

Power of a biconvex lens is P diopter. When it is cut into two symmetrical halves by a plane containing the principal axis, the ratio of the power of two halves is:

  • (A) 1:2
  • (B) 2:1
  • (C) 1:4
  • (D) 1:1

Question 69:

The magnifying power of a telescope is 9. When adjusted for parallel rays, the distance between the objective and eyepiece is 20 cm. The ratio of the focal length of the objective lens to the focal length of the eyepiece is:

  • (A) 8
  • (B) 7
  • (C) 9
  • (D) 12

Question 70:

In normal adjustment, for a refracting telescope, the distance between the objective and eyepiece is 30 cm. The focal length of the objective, when the angular magnification of the telescope is 2, will be:

  • (A) 20 cm
  • (B) 30 cm
  • (C) 10 cm
  • (D) 15 cm

Question 71:

If the distance between an object and its two times magnified virtual image produced by a curved mirror is 15 cm, the focal length of the mirror must be:

  • (A) 10/3 cm
  • (B) -12 cm
  • (C) -10 cm
  • (D) 15 cm
Question 72:

Young's double slit experiment is performed in a medium of refractive index 1.33. The maximum intensity is I0. The intensity at a point on the screen where the path difference between the light coming out from slits is λ/4, is:

  • (A) 0
  • (B) I0/2
  • (C) 3I0/8
  • (D) 2I0/3

Question 73:

In YDSE, monochromatic light falls on a screen 1.80 m from two slits separated by 2.08 mm. The first and second order bright fringes are separated by 0.553 mm. The wavelength of light used is:

  • (A) 520 nm
  • (B) 639 nm
  • (C) 715 nm
  • (D) None of these

Question 74:

A microwave of wavelength 2.0 cm falls normally on a slit of width 4.0 cm. The angular spread of the central maxima of the diffraction pattern obtained on a screen 1.5 m away from the slit will be:

  • (A) 60°
  • (B) 45°
  • (C) 15°
  • (D) 30°

Question 75:

The property of light which cannot be explained by Huygen's construction of a wavefront is:

  • (A) Refraction
  • (B) Reflection
  • (C) Diffraction
  • (D) Origin of spectra

Question 76:

When a light ray incidents on the surface of a medium, the reflected ray is completely polarized. Then the angle between reflected and refracted rays is:

  • (A) 45°
  • (B) 90°
  • (C) 120°
  • (D) 180°

Question 77:

Which figure shows the correct variation of applied potential difference (V) with photoelectric current (I) at two different intensities of light (I1 < I2) of same wavelengths:

The question describes four graphs, but since I can't process images I need them converted to descriptions.

  • (A) Graph with two curves that both rise from the negative x-axis (V), plateau, and then become horizontal. The plateaus are at different current (I) levels. Stopping potential is same.
  • (B) Graph showing straight, positively sloped lines from different starting points on the x-axis.
  • (C) Graph with two curves. Both start at the *same* negative voltage on the x-axis (stopping potential) and rise to different saturation current levels (plateaus) on the positive y-axis.
  • (D) Graph that shows a single curve rising to saturation, very similar to the correct answer (C) except only one curve.

Question 78:

The acceptor level of a p-type semiconductor is 6 eV. The maximum wavelength of light which can create a hole would be: Given hc = 1242 eV nm.

  • (A) 407 nm
  • (B) 414 nm
  • (C) 207 nm
  • (D) 103.5 nm

Question 79:

When light is incident on a metal surface, the maximum kinetic energy of emitted electrons:

  • (A) Varies with intensity of light
  • (B) Varies with frequency of light
  • (C) Varies with speed of light
  • (D) Varies irregularly

Question 80:

If the kinetic energy of a free electron doubles, its de-Broglie wavelength changes by the factor:

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 1/2
  • (C) √2
  • (D) 1/√2
Question 81:

Which of the following transitions of He+ ion will give rise to a spectral line that has the same wavelength as the spectral line in a hydrogen atom?

  • (A) n = 4 to n = 2
  • (B) n = 6 to n = 5
  • (C) n = 6 to n = 3
  • (D) None of these

Question 82:

The ratio of the shortest wavelength of the Balmer series to the shortest wavelength of the Lyman series for the hydrogen atom is:

  • (A) 4:1
  • (B) 1:2
  • (C) 1:4
  • (D) 2:1
Correct Answer: (A) 4:1
View Solution

Question 83:

The minimum excitation energy of an electron revolving in the first orbit of hydrogen is:

  • (A) 3.4 eV
  • (B) 8.5 eV
  • (C) 10.2 eV
  • (D) 13.6 eV
Correct Answer: (C) 10.2 eV
View Solution

Question 84:

The atomic mass of 6C12 is 12.000000 u and that of 6C13 is 13.003354 u. The required energy to remove a neutron from 6C13, if the mass of the neutron is 1.008665 u, will be:

  • (A) 62.5 MeV
  • (B) 6.25 MeV
  • (C) 4.95 MeV
  • (D) 49.5 MeV
Correct Answer: (C) 4.95 MeV
View Solution

Question 85:

The nucleus having highest binding energy per nucleon is:

  • (A) 168O
  • (B) 5626Fe
  • (C) 20884Pb
  • (D) 42He
Correct Answer: (B) 5626Fe
View Solution

Question 86:

Identify the correct output signal Y in the given combination of gates for the given inputs A and B shown in the figure.

The question describes four waveforms as options, labelled (A), (B), (C), and (D) showing output Y. The circuit is a combination of logic gates with inputs A and B. From the problem description in the original document, it should have 2 NOT gates (one on A, one on B) and the output of the not gates connected to an AND gate. The correct output waveform will match that operation.

  • (A) Waveform showing Y as the output of a NOR Gate
  • (B) Waveform showing Y as output which differs for the correct output.
  • (C) Waveform showing Y as output which differes for the correct output.
  • (D) Waveform representing the output of a two-input NOR gate, which can be represented by the Boolean expression Y = NOT(A OR B)
Correct Answer: (D) Waveform representing the output of a two-input NOR gate.
View Solution

Question 87:

Identify the logic gate given in the circuit:

Diagram: Two NOT gates whose outputs are connected to the inputs of a NAND gate.

  • (A) NAND gate
  • (B) OR gate
  • (C) AND gate
  • (D) NOR gate
Correct Answer: (B) OR gate
View Solution

Question 88:

A reverse biased zener diode when operated in the breakdown region works as:

  • (A) an amplifier
  • (B) an oscillator
  • (C) a voltage regulator
  • (D) a rectifier
Correct Answer: (C) a voltage regulator
View Solution

Question 89:

Identify the logic operation performed by the following circuit.

Diagram: A logic circuit with two inputs, A and B. Each input goes into a NOR gate. The outputs of these two NOR gates are then fed as inputs into a third NOR gate. The output of this final NOR gate is labeled Y.

  • (A) OR
  • (B) AND
  • (C) NOT
  • (D) NAND
Correct Answer: (B) AND
View Solution

Question 90:

One main scale division of a vernier caliper is equal to m units. If the mth division of main scale coincides with the (n+1)th division of vernier scale, the least count of the vernier caliper is:

  • (A) n/(n+1)
  • (B) m/(n+1)
  • (C) 1/(n+1)
  • (D) m/(n(n+1))

Question 91:

A 1 L closed flask contains a mixture of 4 g of methane and 4.4 g of carbon dioxide. The pressure inside the flask at 27°C is (Assume ideal behaviour of gases):

  • (A) 8.6 atm
  • (B) 2.2 atm
  • (C) 4.2 atm
  • (D) 6.1 atm
Question 91:

A 1 L closed flask contains a mixture of 4 g of methane and 4.4 g of carbon dioxide. The pressure inside the flask at 27°C is (Assume ideal behaviour of gases):

  • (A) 8.6 atm
  • (B) 2.2 atm
  • (C) 4.2 atm
  • (D) 6.1 atm

Question 92:

In which mode of expression, the concentration of a solution remains independent of temperature?

  • (A) Molarity
  • (B) Normality
  • (C) Formality
  • (D) Molality

Question 93:

The degeneracy of hydrogen atom that has energy equal to -RH/9 is (where RH = Rydberg constant)

  • (A) 6
  • (B) 8
  • (C) 5
  • (D) 9

Question 94:

If the de-Broglie wavelength of a particle of mass (m) is 100 times its velocity, then its value in terms of its mass (m) and Planck constant (h) is:

  • (A) 1/10 √(m/h)
  • (B) 10 √(h/m)
  • (C) 1/10 √(h/m)
  • (D) 10 √(m/h)

Question 95:

The energy of the second orbit of a hydrogen atom is -5.45 × 10-19 J. What is the energy of the first orbit of Li2+ ion (in J)?

  • (A) -1.962 × 10-18
  • (B) -1.962 × 10-17
  • (C) -3.924 × 10-17
  • (D) -3.924 × 10-18

Question 96:

A photon of wavelength 3000 Å strikes a metal surface. The work function of the metal is 2.13 eV. What is the kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectron? (h = 6.626 × 10-34 Js)

  • (A) 4.0 eV
  • (B) 3.0 eV
  • (C) 2.0 eV
  • (D) 1.0 eV

Question 97:

A stream of electrons from a heated filament was passed between two charged plates at a potential difference V volt. If e and m are the charge and mass of an electron, then the value of h/λ is:

  • (A) √(meV)
  • (B) √(2meV)
  • (C) meV
  • (D) 2meV

Question 98:

Electron affinity is positive when:

  • (A) O changes into O-
  • (B) O- changes to O2-
  • (C) O changes into O+
  • (D) O changes to O2+

Question 99:

The ionic radii in (Å) of N3-, O2- and F- are respectively.

  • (A) 1.71, 1.40 and 1.36
  • (B) 1.71, 1.36 and 1.40
  • (C) 1.36, 1.40 and 1.71
  • (D) 1.36, 1.71 and 1.40

Question 100:

Intramolecular hydrogen bonding is found in

  • (A) o-nitrophenol
  • (B) m-nitrophenol
  • (C) p-nitrophenol
  • (D) phenol
Correct Answer: (A) o-nitrophenol
View Solution

Question 101:

The hybridisation scheme for the central atom includes a d-orbital contribution in

  • (A) I3-
  • (B) PCl3
  • (C) NO3-
  • (D) H2Se
Correct Answer: (A) I3-
View Solution

Question 102:

In the following species, how many species have the same magnetic moment? (i) Cr2+ (ii) Mn3+ (iii) Ni2+ (iv) Sc2+ (v) Zn2+ (vi) V3+ (vii) Ti4+

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 2
  • (D) 4
Correct Answer: (C) 2
View Solution

Question 103:

The spin only magnetic moment of Fe3+ ion (in BM) is approximately.

  • (A) 4
  • (B) 5
  • (C) 6
  • (D) 7
Correct Answer: (C) 6
View Solution

Question 104:

Which one of the following compounds is having maximum 'lone pair-lone pair' electron repulsions?

  • (A) ClF3
  • (B) IF5
  • (C) SF4
  • (D) XeF2
Correct Answer: (D) XeF2
View Solution

Question 105:

Identify the species having one π-bond and maximum number of canonical forms from the following:

  • (A) SO3
  • (B) O2
  • (C) SO2
  • (D) CO32-
Correct Answer: (D) CO32-
View Solution

Question 106:

sp3 d2 hybridisation is not displayed by:

  • (A) BrF5
  • (B) SF6
  • (C) [CrF6]3-
  • (D) PF5

Question 107:

What would be the amount of heat absorbed in the cyclic process shown below?

Diagram: A P-V diagram showing a cyclic process. The cycle is a circle. The center of the circle is at (15, unknown P value). The circle extends horizontally from V=5 to V=25.

  • (A) 5π J
  • (B) 15π J
  • (C) 25π J
  • (D) 100π J

Question 108:

The bond dissociation energy of X2, Y2 and XY are in the ratio of 1 : 0.5 : 1. ΔH for the formation of XY is -200 kJ/mol. The bond dissociation energy of X2 will be

  • (A) 200 kJ/mol
  • (B) 100 kJ/mol
  • (C) 400 kJ/mol
  • (D) 800 kJ/mol

Question 109:

Which of the following relation is not correct?

  • (A) ΔH = ΔU - PΔV
  • (B) ΔU = q + W
  • (C) ΔSsys + ΔSsurr ≥ 0
  • (D) ΔG = ΔH - TΔS

Question 110:

The standard Gibbs energy (ΔG°) for the following reaction is A(s) + B2+(aq) ⇌ A2+(aq) + B(s), Kc = 1012 at

(Kc = equilibrium constant)

  • (A) -150 kJ/mol
  • (B) -96.80 kJ/mol
  • (C) -68.47 kJ/mol
  • (D) -100 kJ/mol
Correct Answer: (C) -68.47 kJ/mol
View Solution

Question 111:

The combustion of benzene (L) gives CO2 (g) and H2O (L). Given that heat of combustion of benzene at constant volume is -3263.9 kJ/mol at 25°C, heat of combustion (in kJ/mol) of benzene at constant pressure will be: (R = 8.314J K-1 mol-1)

  • (A) 4152.6
  • (B) 452.46
  • (C) 3260
  • (D) -3267.6

Question 112:

Choose the correct option for free expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic condition from the following:

  • (A) q = 0, ΔT ≠ 0, w = 0
  • (B) q = 0, ΔT < 0, w ≠ 0
  • (C) q ≠ 0, ΔT = 0, w = 0
  • (D) q = 0, ΔT = 0, w = 0

Question 113:

Le-Chatelier's principle is not applicable to

  • (A) H2(g) + I2(g) ⇌ 2 HI(g)
  • (B) Fe(s) + S(s) ⇌ FeS(s)
  • (C) N2(g) + 3 H2(g) ⇌ 2 NH3(g)
  • (D) N2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2 NO(g)

Question 114:

The ratio Kp/Kc for the reaction CO(g) + 1/2 O2(g) ⇌ CO2(g) is:

  • (A) (RT)1/2
  • (B) RT
  • (C) 1
  • (D) 1/√(RT)

Question 115:

The pH of 1 N aqueous solutions of HCl, CH3COOH and HCOOH follows the order:

  • (A) HCl > HCOOH > CH3COOH
  • (B) HCl = HCOOH > CH3COOH
  • (C) CH3COOH > HCOOH > HCl
  • (D) CH3COOH = HCOOH > HCl

Question 116:

20 mL of 0.1 M acetic acid is mixed with 50 mL of potassium acetate. Ka of acetic acid = 1.8 × 10-5 at 27°C. Calculate the concentration of potassium acetate if the pH of the mixture is 4.8.

  • (A) 0.1 M
  • (B) 0.04 M
  • (C) 0.03 M
  • (D) 0.02 M

Question 117:

What is the stoichiometric coefficient of SO2 in the following balanced reaction?
MnO4-(aq) + SO2(g) → Mn2+(aq) + HSO4-(aq) (in acidic solution)

  • (A) 5
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 2
Correct Answer: (A) 5
View Solution

Question 118:

Volume of M/8 KMnO4 solution required to react completely with 25.0 cm3 of M/4 FeSO4 in acidic medium is:

  • (A) 8.0 mL
  • (B) 5.0 mL
  • (C) 15.0 mL
  • (D) 10.0 mL
Correct Answer: (D) 10.0 mL
View Solution

Question 119:

Which of the following is only a redox reaction but not a disproportionation reaction?

  • (A) 4H3PO3 → 3H3PO4 + PH3
  • (B) 2H2O2 → 2H2O + O2
  • (C) P4 + 3NaOH + 3H2O → 3NaH2PO2 + PH3
  • (D) P4 + 8SOCl2 → 4PCl3 + 2S2Cl2 + 4SO2
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Question 120:

Among the following, the correct statements are:
I. LiH, BeH2 and MgH2 are saline hydrides with significant covalent character
II. Saline hydrides are volatile
III. Electron - precise hydrides are Lewis bases
IV. The formula for chromium hydride is CrH

  • (A) I, III only
  • (B) II, IV only
  • (C) I, IV only
  • (D) III, IV only
Correct Answer: (C) I, IV only
View Solution

Question 121:

In which of the following reactions of H2O2 acts as an oxidizing agent (either in acidic, alkaline, or neutral medium)?
Given Reactions
(i) 2Fe2+ + H2O2
(ii) 2MnO4- + 6H+ + 5H2O2
(iii) I2 + H2O2 + 2OH-
(iv) Mn2+ + H2O2

  • (A) (ii), (iii)
  • (B) (i), (iv)
  • (C) (i), (iii)
  • (D) (ii), (iv)
Correct Answer: (B) (i), (iv)
View Solution

Question 122:

The strongest reducing agent among the following is:

  • (A) SbH3
  • (B) NH3
  • (C) BiH3
  • (D) PH3
Correct Answer: (C) BiH3
View Solution

Question 123:

The correct order of melting points of the following salts is:
LiCl (I)
LiF (II)
LiBr (III)

  • (A) I > II > III
  • (B) II > I > III
  • (C) III > II > I
  • (D) II > III > I

Question 124:

Which among the following is used in detergent?

  • (A) Sodium acetate
  • (B) Sodium stearate
  • (C) Calcium stearate
  • (D) Sodium lauryl sulphate

Question 125:

Thermal decomposition of lithium nitrate gives:

  • (A) LiO2, O2, NO2
  • (B) Li2O, O2, N2O
  • (C) Li2O, O2, N2
  • (D) Li2O, O2, NO2

Question 126:

The number of geometrical isomers possible for the compound, CH3CH = CH - CH = CH2 is:

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 6
Correct Answer: (A) 2
View Solution

Question 127:

Correct order of stability of carbanion is:

Diagram: Four structures of carbanions are provided:
(A) A phenyl ring with a negative charge on a carbon directly attached to the ring.
(B) A simple carbanion with three single bonds and a negative charge, R3C-.
(C) A carbanion with two single bonds, one double bond, and a negative charge, R2C=CR-.
(D) A cyclic structure (cyclopentadienyl anion) with five carbons in a ring, alternating single and double bonds, and a negative charge on one carbon.

  • (A) C > B > D > A
  • (B) A > B > C > D
  • (C) D > A > C > B
  • (D) D > C > B > A
Correct Answer: (D) D > C > B > A
View Solution

Question 128:

Which of the following is not correct about Grignard reagent?

  • (A) It is a nucleophile
  • (B) Forms new carbon-carbon bond
  • (C) Reacts with carbonyl compounds
  • (D) It is an organomanganese compound
Correct Answer: (D) It is an organomanganese compound
View Solution
Question 129:

The IUPAC name of the following molecule is:

Diagram: A benzene ring with three substituents: a methyl group (CH3), a chlorine atom (Cl), and a nitro group (NO2). The relative positions need to be determined from the answer choices, as the original was an image.

  • (A) 2-Methyl-5-nitro-1-chlorobenzene
  • (B) 3-Chloro-4-methyl-1-nitrobenzene
  • (C) 2-Chloro-1-methyl-4-nitrobenzene
  • (D) 2-Chloro-4-nitro-1-methylbenzene

Question 130:

Choose the correct stability order of the given free radicals.

Diagram: Four free radical structures.
I. A phenyl ring with a CH2 radical directly attached.
II. A simple primary free radical (CH3)3C•
III. A primary free radical with an NO2 group nearby, CH2=CH-CH2
IV. A primary free radical with a CN group nearby. CH3-CH(CN)-CH2

  • (A) I > II > III > IV
  • (B) II > I > IV > III
  • (C) II = I > IV > III
  • (D) III > IV > II > I

Question 131:

Which of the following is the strongest Bronsted base?

Four structures were given. I'll convert them to text based on descriptions from solutions in your original text.

Structure 1: Aniline (a benzene ring with an NH2 group).
Structure 2: A pyridine ring (a six-membered ring with one nitrogen replacing a carbon).
Structure 3: A pyrrole ring (five membered ring with NH)
Structure 4: A simple amine, like cyclohexylamine

  • (A) Structure 1
  • (B) Structure 2
  • (C) Structure 3
  • (D) Structure 4

Question 132:

The major product X in the following given reaction is:

Diagram: o-bromobenzyl chloride reacting with NH3

The options are variations of benzylamine, with the Br group in different positions (ortho, meta, para) or with multiple substitutions or no substitution on the ring.

  • (A) o-bromoaniline
  • (B) m-bromoaniline
  • (C) o-bromobenzylamine
  • (D) p-bromoaniline

Question 133:

The major product of the reaction between CH3CH2ONa and (CH3)3CCl in ethanol is:

  • (A) CH3CH2OC(CH3)3
  • (B) CH2 = C(CH3)2
  • (C) CH3CH2C(CH3)3
  • (D) CH3CH = CHCH3

Question 134:

Dinitrogen is a robust compound, but reacts at high altitude to form oxides. The oxide of nitrogen that can damage plant leaves and retard photosynthesis is:

  • (A) NO
  • (B) NO3-
  • (C) NO2
  • (D) NO2-

Question 135:

A decimolar solution potassium ferrocyanide is 50% dissociated at 300 K. The osmotic pressure of solution is (R = 8.314 J K-1 mol-1):

  • (A) 7.48 atm
  • (B) 4.99 atm
  • (C) 3.74 atm
  • (D) 6.23 atm

Question 136:

58.5 g of NaCl and 180 g of glucose were separately dissolved in 1000 mL of water. Identify the correct statement regarding the elevation of boiling point of the resulting solution.

  • (A) NaCl solution will show higher elevation of boiling point.
  • (B) Glucose solution will show higher elevation of boiling point.
  • (C) Both solutions will show equal elevation of boiling point.
  • (D) None will show boiling point elevation.

Question 137:

One molar concentration of a solution represents:

  • (A) 1 mole of solute in 1 kg of solution.
  • (B) 1 mole of solute in 1 L of solution.
  • (C) 1 mole of solvent in 1 kg of solution.
  • (D) 1 mole of solvent in 1 L of solution.

Question 138:

Which of the following substances show the highest colligative properties?

  • (A) 0.1M BaCl2
  • (B) 0.1M AgNO3
  • (C) 0.1M urea
  • (D) 0.1M (NH4)3PO4
Correct Answer: (D) 0.1M (NH4)3PO4
View Solution

Question 139:

The pH of 0.5 L of 1.0 M NaCl solution after electrolysis for 965 s using 5.0 A current is:

  • (A) 1.0
  • (B) 12.7
  • (C) 1.30
  • (D) 13.0
Correct Answer: (D) 13.0
View Solution

Question 140:

Calculate the molarity of a solution containing 5 g of NaOH dissolved in the product of H2 – O2 fuel cell operated at 1 A current for 595.1 hours.(Assume F = 96500C/mol of electron and molecular weight of NaOH as 40 g/mol).

  • (A) 0.625 M
  • (B) 0.05 M
  • (C) 0.1 M
  • (D) 6.25 M
Correct Answer: (A) 0.625 M
View Solution

Question 141:

When the same quantity of electricity is passed through the aqueous solutions of the given electrolytes for the same amount of time, which metal will be deposited in maximum amount on the cathode?

  • (A) ZnSO4
  • (B) FeCl3
  • (C) AgNO3
  • (D) NiCl2
Correct Answer: (C) AgNO3
View Solution

Question 142:

For the reaction 2SO2 + O2 ⇌ 2SO3, the rate of disappearance of O2 is 2 × 10-4 mol L-1 s-1. The rate of appearance of SO3 is:

  • (A) 2 × 10-4 mol L-1 s-1
  • (B) 4 × 10-4 mol L-1 s-1
  • (C) 1 × 10-1 mol L-1 s-1
  • (D) 6 × 10-4 mol L-1 s-1
Correct Answer: (B) 4 × 10-4 mol L-1 s-1
View Solution

Question 143:

If for a first-order reaction, the value of A and Ea are 4 × 1013 s-1 and 98.6 kJ mol-1 respectively, then at what temperature will its half-life be 10 minutes?

  • (A) 330 K
  • (B) 300 K
  • (C) 330.95 K
  • (D) 311.15 K
Correct Answer: (D) 311.15 K
View Solution

Question 144:

In the chemical reaction A → B, what is the order of the reaction? Given that, the rate of reaction doubles if the concentration of A is increased four times.

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 1.5
  • (C) 0.5
  • (D) 1
Correct Answer: (C) 0.5
View Solution

Question 145:

Calculate the activation energy of a reaction, whose rate constant doubles on raising the temperature from 300 K to 600 K.

  • (A) 3.45 kJ/mol
  • (B) 6.90 kJ/mol
  • (C) 9.68 kJ/mol
  • (D) 19.6 kJ/mol
Correct Answer: (A) 3.45 kJ/mol
View Solution

Question 146:

In the reaction, A → products, if the concentration of the reactant is doubled but the rate of reaction remains unchanged, what is the order of the reaction with respect to A?

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 0.5
  • (D) 0
Correct Answer: (D) 0
View Solution

Question 147:

In a first-order reaction, the concentration of the reactant decreases from 0.8 M to 0.4 M in 15 minutes. The time taken for the concentration to change from 0.1 M to 0.025 M is:

  • (A) 7.5 minutes
  • (B) 15 minutes
  • (C) 30 minutes
  • (D) 60 minutes

Question 148:

The charge on colloidal particles is due to:

  • (A) Presence of electrolyte
  • (B) Very small size of particles
  • (C) Adsorption of ions from the solution
  • (D) Can't be determined

Question 149:

The chemical composition of 'slag' formed during the smelting process in the extraction of copper is:

  • (A) Cu2O + FeS
  • (B) FeSiO3
  • (C) CuFeS2
  • (D) Cu2S + FeO

Question 150:

Calamine, malachite, magnetite, and cryolite, respectively, are:

  • (A) ZnCO3, CuCO3·Cu(OH)2, Fe3O4, Na3AlF6
  • (B) ZnSO4, Cu(OH)2, Fe3O4, Na3AlF6
  • (C) ZnSO4, CuCO3, Fe2O3, AlF3
  • (D) ZnCO3, CuCO3, Fe2O3, Na3AlF6

Question 151:

In which of the following molecules, all bond lengths are not equal?

  • (A) SF6
  • (B) PCl5
  • (C) BCl3
  • (D) CCl4
Correct Answer: (B) PCl5
View Solution

Question 152:

The sol formed in the following unbalanced equation is:
As2O3 + H2S → ?

  • (A) As2S2
  • (B) As2S3
  • (C) As
  • (D) S
Correct Answer: (B) As2S3
View Solution

Question 153:

Which of the following has least tendency to liberate H2 from mineral acids?

  • (A) Cu
  • (B) Mn
  • (C) Ni
  • (D) Zn
Correct Answer: (A) Cu
View Solution

Question 154:

The metal that shows highest and maximum number of oxidation states is:

  • (A) Fe
  • (B) Mn
  • (C) Ti
  • (D) Co
Correct Answer: (B) Mn
View Solution

Question 155:

Hybridisation and geometry of [Ni(CN)4]2- are:

  • (A) sp3 and tetrahedral
  • (B) sp3 and square planar
  • (C) sp3 and tetrahedral
  • (D) dsp2 and square planar

Question 156:

Match List I with List II.

List I (Complex) List II (Oxidation Number of Metal)
A. Ni(CO)4 I. +1
B. [Fe(H2O)5NO]2+ II. Zero
C. [Co(CO)5]2- III. -1
D. [Cr2(CO)10]2- IV. -2

Correct Answer: A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
View Solution

Question 157:

Which of the following is the correct order of ligand field strength?

  • (A) S2- < en < C2O42- < NH3 < CO
  • (B) S2- < C2O42- < NH3 < en < CO
  • (C) C2O42-< S2- < NH3 < en < CO
  • (D) S2- < C2O42- < en < NH3 < CO
Correct Answer: (B) S2- < C2O42- < NH3 < en < CO
View Solution

Question 158:

The correct statement among the following is:

  • (A) Ferrocene has two cyclopentadienyl cation rings bonded to iron (II) ion.
  • (B) Ferrocene has two cyclopentadienyl anion rings bonded to iron (II) ion.
  • (C) Ferrocene has two cyclopentadienyl rings bonded to iron (II) ion.
  • (D) None of the options.
Correct Answer: (B) Ferrocene has two cyclopentadienyl anion rings bonded to iron (II) ion.
View Solution

Question 159:

The type of isomerism present in nitropentammine chromium (III) chloride is:

  • (A) Optical
  • (B) Linkage
  • (C) Ionization
  • (D) Polymerization
Correct Answer: (B) Linkage
View Solution

Question 160:

Identify, from the following, the diamagnetic, tetrahedral complex:

  • (A) [Ni(Cl)4]2-
  • (B) [Co(C2O4)3]3-
  • (C) [Ni(CN)4]2-
  • (D) [Ni(CO)4]
Correct Answer: (D) [Ni(CO)4]
View Solution

Question 161:

Ferrocene is:

  • (A) Fe(η5 - C5H5)2
  • (B) Fe(η2 - C5H5)2
  • (C) Cr(η5 - C5H5)5
  • (D) Os(η5 - C5H5)2
Correct Answer: (A) Fe(η5 - C5H5)2
View Solution

Question 162:

The chemical name of calgon is:

  • (A) Sodium hexametaphosphate
  • (B) Potassium hexametaphosphate
  • (C) Calcium hexametaphosphate
  • (D) Sodium hexametaphosphate
Correct Answer: (D) Sodium hexametaphosphate
View Solution

Question 163:

The complex with the highest magnitude of crystal field splitting energy (Δ0) is:

  • (A) [Cr(OH2)6]3+
  • (B) [Ti(OH2)6]3+
  • (C) [Fe(OH2)6]3+
  • (D) [Mn(OH2)6]3+
Correct Answer: (A) [Cr(OH2)6]3+
View Solution

Question 164:

IUPAC name of [Pt(NH3)2Cl(NH2CH3)]Cl is:

  • (A) (Amino methane) chloro (diammine) platinum (II) chloride.
  • (B) Chlorodiammine (methanamine) platinum (II) chloride.
  • (C) Diamminechloro (methanamine) platinum (II) chloride.
  • (D) Diamminechloro (methylamine) platinum (IV) chloride.
Correct Answer: (C) Diamminechloro (methanamine) platinum (II) chloride.
View Solution

Question 165:

Which of the following complexes will exhibit maximum attraction to an applied magnetic field?

  • (A) [Zn(H2O)6]2+
  • (B) [Co(H2O)6]2+
  • (C) [Co(en)3]3+
  • (D) [Ni(H2O)6]2+
Correct Answer: (B) [Co(H2O)6]2+
View Solution

Question 166:

In an SN2 substitution reaction of the type: R - Br + Cl- → R - Cl + Br-, Which one of the following has the highest relative rate?

  • (A) (CH3)2CHBr
  • (B) CH3CH2CH2Br
  • (C) CH3CH2Br
  • (D) (CH3)3CBr
Correct Answer: (C) CH3CH2Br
View Solution

Question 167:

The final product in the following reaction Y is:

Reaction: Benzene ring with

* (A) o-bromoaniline

* (B) m-bromoaniline

* (C) o-bromobenzylamine

* (D) p-bromoaniline

Correct Answer: (C) o-bromobenzylamine View Solution

Question 168:

In the Victor-Meyer test, the color given by 1°, 2°, and 3° alcohols are respectively:

  1. Red, green, blue
  2. Red, blue, colorless
  3. Yellow, green, blue
  4. Red, orange, yellow

Question 169:

What is X in the following reaction?
CO + 2H2 &xrightarrow{X} CH3OH

  1. \(Al_2O_3\)
  2. \(Fe\)
  3. \(V_2O_5\)
  4. ZnO - Cr2O3, 200 – 300 atm, 573 – 673 K

Question 170:

An unknown alcohol is treated with "Lucas reagent" to determine whether the alcohol is primary, secondary, or tertiary. Which alcohol reacts fastest and by what mechanism?

  1. Primary alcohol by SN2
  2. Tertiary alcohol by SN1
  3. Secondary alcohol by SN2
  4. Primary alcohol by SN1

Question 171:

Which of the following compounds will undergo self aldol condensation in the presence of cold dilute alkali?

  1. CH2 = CH − CHO
  2. CH ≡ C − CHO
  3. C6H5CHO
  4. CH3CH2CHO

Question 172:

An alkene X on ozonolysis gives a mixture of Propan-2-one and methanal. What is X?

  1. 1-Butene
  2. 2-Methylpropene
  3. 1-Pentene
  4. 2-Butene

Question 173:

Cheilosis and digestive disorders are due to deficiency of:

  1. Vitamin A
  2. Thiamine
  3. Riboflavin
  4. Ascorbic acid

Question 174:

A tetrapeptide is made of naturally occurring alanine, serine, glycine, and valine. If the C-terminal amino acid is alanine and the N-terminal amino acid is chiral, the number of possible sequences of the tetrapeptide is:

  1. 4
  2. 6
  3. 8
  4. 9

Question 175:

Which one of the following is a water-soluble vitamin that is not excreted easily?

  1. Vitamin C
  2. Vitamin B1
  3. Vitamin B2
  4. Vitamin B12

Question 176:

Glycosidic linkage between C1 of α-glucose and C2 of β-fructose is found in:

  1. maltose
  2. sucrose
  3. lactose
  4. amylose

Question 177:

The naturally occurring amino acid that contains only one basic functional group in its chemical structure is:

  1. arginine
  2. lysine
  3. asparagine
  4. histidine

Question 178:

Which of the following is not a semi-synthetic polymer?

  1. Cis-polyisoprene
  2. Cellulose nitrate
  3. Cellulose acetate
  4. Vulcanised rubber

Question 179:

Zinc acetate - antimony trioxide catalyst is used in the preparation of which polymer?

  1. High-density polyethylene
  2. Teflon
  3. Terylene
  4. PVC

Question 180:

........ is a potent vasodilator.

  1. Histamine
  2. Serotonin
  3. Codeine
  4. Cimetidine

Question 181:

If \( z, \bar{z}, -z, -\bar{z} \) forms a rectangle of area \( 2\sqrt{3} \) square units, then one such \( z \) is:

  • (A) \( \frac{1}{2} + \sqrt{3}i \)
  • (B) \( \frac{\sqrt{5} + \sqrt{3}i}{4} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{3}{2} + \frac{\sqrt{3}i}{2} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{\sqrt{3} + \sqrt{11}i}{2} \)

Question 182:

If \( z_1, z_2, \dots, z_n \) are complex numbers such that \( |z_1| = |z_2| = \dots = |z_n| = 1 \), then \( |z_1 + z_2 + \dots + z_n| \) is equal to:

  • (A) \( |z_1| |z_2| \dots |z_n| \)
  • (B) \( |z_1| + |z_2| + \dots + |z_n| \)
  • (C) \( \frac{1}{|z_1|} + \frac{1}{|z_2|} + \dots + \frac{1}{|z_n|} \)
  • (D) \( n \)

Question 183:

If \( |z_1| = 2, |z_2| = 3, |z_3| = 4 \) and \( |2z_1 + 3z_2 + 4z_3| = 4 \), then the absolute value of \( 8z_2z_3 + 27z_3z_1 + 64z_1z_2 \) equals:

  • (A) 24
  • (B) 48
  • (C) 72
  • (D) 96

Question 184:

A person invites a party of 10 friends at dinner and places so that 4 are on one round table and 6 on the other round table. Total number of ways in which he can arrange the guests is:

  • (A) \( \frac{10!}{6!} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{10!}{24} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{9!}{24} \)
  • (D) None of these

Question 185:

How many different nine-digit numbers can be formed from the number 223355888 by rearranging its digits so that the odd digits occupy even positions?

  • (A) 16
  • (B) 36
  • (C) 60
  • (D) 100

Question 186:

If \( 22 P_{r+1} : 20 P_{r+2} = 11 : 52 \), then \( r \) is equal to:

  • (A) 3
  • (B) 5
  • (C) 7
  • (D) 9

Question 187:

At an election, a voter may vote for any number of candidates not exceeding the number to be elected. If 4 candidates are to be elected out of the 12 contested in the election and voter votes for at least one candidate, then the number of ways of selections is:

  • (A) 793
  • (B) 298
  • (C) 781
  • (D) 1585

Question 188:

The number of arrangements of all digits of 12345 such that at least 3 digits will not come in its position is:

  • (A) 89
  • (B) 109
  • (C) 78
  • (D) 57

Question 189:

If \( a > 0, b > 0, c > 0 \) and \( a, b, c \) are distinct, then \( (a + b)(b + c)(c + a) \) is greater than:

  • (A) \( 2(a + b + c) \)
  • (B) \( 3(a + b + c) \)
  • (C) \( 6abc \)
  • (D) \( 8abc \)

Question 190:

If \( \sum_{k=1}^{n} k(k+1)(k-1) = pn^4 + qn^3 + tn^2 + sn \), where \( p, q, t, s \) are constants, then the value of \( s \) is equal to:

  • (A) \( -1/4 \)
  • (B) \( -1/2 \)
  • (C) \( 1/2 \)
  • (D) \( 1/4 \)

Question 191:

There are four numbers of which the first three are in GP and the last three are in AP, whose common difference is 6. If the first and the last numbers are equal, then the two other numbers are:

  • (A) -2, 4
  • (B) 4, 2
  • (C) 2, 6
  • (D) None of the above

Question 192:

If \( A = 1 + r^a + r^{2a} + r^{3a} + \dots \infty \) and \( B = 1 + r^b + r^{2b} + r^{3b} + \dots \infty \), then \( \frac{a}{b} \) is equal.

  • (A) \( \log_{b}(A) \)
  • (B) \( \log_{1-b}(1 - A) \)
  • (C) \( \log_\frac{B-1}{B} \left(\frac{A-1}{A}\right) \)
  • (D) None of these

Question 193:

The sum of the infinite series \(1 + \frac{5}{6} + \frac{12}{6^2} + \frac{22}{6^3} + \frac{35}{6^4} + \dots\) is equal to:

  • (A) \( \frac{425}{216} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{429}{216} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{288}{125} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{280}{125} \)

Question 194:

If \(\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{1+1\cdot2}\right) + \tan^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{1+2\cdot3}\right) + \ldots + \tan^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{1+n(n+1)}\right) = \tan^{-1}(x)\), then \(x\) is equal to:

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{n+1}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{n}{n+1}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{n+2}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{n}{n+2}\)

Question 195:

If the arithmetic mean of two distinct positive real numbers \(a\) and \(b\) (where \(a > b\)) is twice their geometric mean, then \(a : b\) is:

  • (A) \(2 + \sqrt{3} : 2 - \sqrt{3}\)
  • (B) \(2 + \sqrt{5} : 2 - \sqrt{5}\)
  • (C) \(2 + \sqrt{2} : 2 - \sqrt{2}\)
  • (D) None of these

Question 196:

If \[ y = \tan^{-1} \left( \frac{1}{x^2 + x + 1} \right) + \tan^{-1} \left( \frac{1}{x^2 + 3x + 3} \right) + \tan^{-1} \left( \frac{1}{x^2 + 5x + 7} \right) + \cdots \text{ (to n terms)} \], then \(\frac{dy}{dx}\) is:

  • (A) \( \frac{1}{x^2 + n^2} - \frac{1}{x^2 + 1} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{1}{(x + n)^2 + 1} - \frac{1}{x^2 + 1} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{1}{x^2 + (n + 1)^2} - \frac{1}{x^2 + 1} \)
  • (D) None of these

Question 197:

The coefficient of \(x^2\) term in the binomial expansion of \(\left(\frac{1}{3}x^{\frac{1}{2}} + x^{-\frac{1}{4}}\right)^{10}\) is:

  • (A) \(\frac{70}{243}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{60}{423}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{50}{13}\)
  • (D) None of these

Question 198:

The coefficient of \(x^n\) in the expansion of \[\frac{e^{7x} + e^x}{e^{3x}}\] is:

  • (A) \(\frac{4^n^-^1 \cdot (-2)^n}{n!}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{4^n - 1 \cdot (2)^n}{n!}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{4^n + (-2)^n}{n!}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{4^n - 1 \cdot (-2)^{n-1}}{n!}\)

Question 199:

The coefficient of the highest power of \(x\) in the expansion of \((x + \sqrt{x^2 - 1})^8 + (x - \sqrt{x^2 - 1})^8\) is:

  • (A) 64
  • (B) 128
  • (C) 256
  • (D) 512

Question 200:

If the 17th and the 18th terms in the expansion of \((2 + a)^{50}\) are equal, then the coefficient of \(x^{35}\) in the expansion of \((a + x)^{-2}\) is:

  • (A) \(-35\)
  • (B) \(3\)
  • (C) \(36\)
  • (D) \(-36\)

Question 201:

Let \( A, B \) and \( C \) are the angles of a triangle and \(\tan \frac{A}{2} = 1/3\), \(\tan \frac{B}{2} = \frac{2}{3}\). Then, \(\tan \frac{C}{2}\) is equal to:

  • (A) \(\frac{7}{9}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{2}{9}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{2}{3}\)

Question 202:

The sum of all values of \(x\) in \([0, 2\pi]\), for which \(\sin(x) + \sin(2x) + \sin(3x) + \sin(4x) = 0\) is equal to:

  • (A) \(8\pi\)
  • (B) \(11\pi\)
  • (C) \(12\pi\)
  • (D) \(9\pi\)

Question 203:

Number of solutions of equations \(\sin(9\theta) = \sin(\theta)\) in the interval \([0,2\pi]\) is:

  • (A) 16
  • (B) 17
  • (C) 18
  • (D) 15

Question 204:

The range of \((8\sin(\theta) + 6\cos(\theta))^2 + 2\) is:

  • (A) (0,2)
  • (B) [2,102]
  • (C) (\(-\infty,\infty\))
  • (D) (2,1)

Question 205:

The locus of the point of intersection of the lines \(x = a(1 - t^2)/(1 + t^2)\) and \(y = 2at/(1 + t^2)\) (t being a parameter) represents:

  • (A) Circle
  • (B) Parabola
  • (C) Ellipse
  • (D) Hyperbola

Question 206:

If the straight line $2x + 3y - 1 = 0$, $x + 2y - 1 = 0$ and $ax + by - 1 = 0$ form a triangle with origin as orthocentre, then $(a,b)$ is equal to:

  • (A) (6,4)
  • (B) (-3,3)
  • (C) (-8,8)
  • (D) (0,7)


Question 207:

The distance from the origin to the image of $(1,1)$ with respect to the line $x + y + 5 = 0$ is:

  • (A) $7\sqrt{2}$
  • (B) $3\sqrt{2}$
  • (C) $6\sqrt{2}$
  • (D) $4\sqrt{2}$

Question 208:

A(3,2,0), B(5,3,2), C(-9,6,-3) are three points forming a triangle. AD, the bisector of angle $BAC$ meets BC in D. Find the coordinates of D:

  • (A) $\left( \frac{19}{8}, \frac{57}{15}, \frac{57}{15} \right)$
  • (B) $\left( \frac{19}{8}, \frac{57}{16}, \frac{17}{16} \right)$
  • (C) (2,3,0)
  • (D) (4,5,6)

Question 209:

The locus of the mid-point of a chord of the circle $x^2 + y^2 = 4$ which subtends a right angle at the origin is:

  • (A) $x + y = 2$
  • (B) $x^2 + y^2 = 1$
  • (C) $x^2 + y^2 = 2$
  • (D) $x + y = 1$

Question 210:

If \( p \) and \( q \) be the longest and the shortest distance respectively of the point (-7,2) from any point (\(\alpha, \beta\)) on the curve whose equation is \[ x^2 + y^2 - 10x - 14y - 51 = 0 \] then the geometric mean (G.M.) of \( p \) is:

  • (A) \( 2\sqrt{11} \)
  • (B) \( 5\sqrt{5} \)
  • (C) 13
  • (D) 11

Question 211:

From a point A(0,3) on the circle \[ (x + 2)^2 + (y - 3)^2 = 4 \] a chord AB is drawn and extended to a point Q such that AQ = 2AB. Then the locus of Q is:

  • (A) \( (x + 4)^2 + (y - 3)^2 = 16 \)
  • (B) \( (x + 1)^2 + (y - 3)^2 = 32 \)
  • (C) \( (x + 1)^2 + (y - 3)^2 = 4 \)
  • (D) \( (x + 1)^2 + (y - 3)^2 = 1 \)

Question 212:

If the focus of the parabola \[ (y - k)^2 = 4(x - h) \] always lies between the lines \(x + y = 1\) and \(x + y = 3\) then:

  • (A) \(0 < h + k < 2\)
  • (B) \(0 < h + k < 1\)
  • (C) \(1 < h + k < 2\)
  • (D) \(1 < h + k < 3\)

Question 213:

Let \(L_1\) be the length of the common chord of the curves \[ x^2 + y^2 = 9 \quad \text{and} \quad y^2 = 8x \] and let \(L_2\) be the length of the latus rectum of \(y^2 = 8x\). Then:

  • (A) \( L_1 > L_2 \)
  • (B) \( L_1 = L_2 \)
  • (C) \( L_1 < L_2 \)
  • (D) \( \frac{L_1}{L_2} = \sqrt{2} \)

Question 214:

The foci of the hyperbola \[ 4x^2 - 9y^2 - 1 = 0 \] are:

  • (A) \( (\pm \sqrt{13}, 0) \)
  • (B) \( \left( \pm \frac{\sqrt{13}}{6}, 0 \right) \)
  • (C) \( \left( 0, \pm \frac{\sqrt{3}}{6} \right) \)
  • (D) None of these

Question 215:

Given a real-valued function \( f \) such that: \[ f(x) = \begin{cases} \frac{\tan^2\{x\}}{x^2 - \lfloor x \rfloor^2}, & \text{for } x > 0
1, & \text{for } x = 0
\sqrt{\{x\} \cot\{x\}}, & \text{for } x < 0 \end{cases} \] Then:

  • (A) \(\text{LHL} = 1\)
  • (B) \(\text{RHL} = \sqrt{\cot 1}\)
  • (C) \(\lim\limits_{x \to 0} f(x) \text{ exists}\)
  • (D) \(\lim\limits_{x \to 0} f(x) \text{ does not exist}\)

Question 216:

Let \( f(x) = \sin x \), \( g(x) = \cos x \), and \( h(x) = x^2 \). Then, evaluate: \[ \lim\limits_{x \to 1} \frac{f(g(h(x))) - f(g(h(1)))}{x - 1} \]

  • (A) \(0\)
  • (B) \(-2\sin 1 \cos(\cos 1)\)
  • (C) \(\infty\)
  • (D) \(-2\sin 1 \cos 1\)

Question 217:

The Boolean expression: \[ \sim (p \vee q) \vee (\sim p \wedge q) \] is equivalent to:

  • (A) \( p \)
  • (B) \( q \)
  • (C) \( \sim q \)
  • (D) \( \sim p \)

Question 218:

If \( p \): 2 is an even number, \( q \): 2 is a prime number, and \( r \): \( 2 + 2 = 2^2 \), then the symbolic statement \( p \rightarrow (q \vee r) \) means:

  • (A) 2 is an even number and 2 is a prime number or \( 2 + 2 = 2^2 \)
  • (B) 2 is an even number then 2 is a prime number or \( 2 + 2 = 2^2 \)
  • (C) 2 is an even number or 2 is a prime number then \( 2 + 2 = 2^2 \)
  • (D) If 2 is not an even number then 2 is a prime number \(\alpha\) = \( 2 + 2 = 2^2 \)

Question 219:

Consider the following statements:
\( A \): Rishi is a judge.
\( B \): Rishi is honest.
\( C \): Rishi is not arrogant.
The negation of the statement "If Rishi is a judge and he is not arrogant, then he is honest" is:

  • (A) \( B \rightarrow (A \vee C) \)
  • (B) \( (\sim B) \wedge (A \wedge C) \)
  • (C) \( B \rightarrow ((\sim A) \vee (\sim C)) \)
  • (D) \( B \rightarrow (A \wedge C) \)

Question 220:

If \( p \): It is raining today, \( q \): I go to school, \( r \): I shall meet my friends, and \( s \): I shall go for a movie, then which of the following represents: \[ \text{"If it does not rain or if I do not go to school, then I shall meet my friend and go for a movie?"} \]

  • (A) \( \sim (p \wedge q) \Rightarrow (r \wedge s) \)
  • (B) \( \sim (p \wedge \sim q) \Rightarrow (r \wedge s) \)
  • (C) \( \sim (p \wedge q) \Rightarrow (r \vee s) \)
  • (D) None of these

Question 221:

Let \( p, q, r \) be three logical statements. Consider the compound statements: \[ S_1: (\sim p \vee q) \vee (\sim p \vee r) \] \[ S_2: p \rightarrow (q \vee r) \] Which of the following is NOT true?

  • (A) If \( S_2 \) is true, then \( S_1 \) is true
  • (B) If \( S_2 \) is false, then \( S_1 \) is false
  • (C) If \( S_2 \) is false, then \( S_1 \) is true
  • (D) If \( S_1 \) is false, then \( S_2 \) is false

Question 222:

Consider the following two propositions: \[ P_1: \sim (p \rightarrow \sim q) \] \[ P_2: (p \wedge \sim q) \wedge ((\sim p) \vee q) \] If the proposition \( p \rightarrow ((\sim p) \vee q) \) is evaluated as FALSE, then:

  • (A) \( P_1 \) is TRUE and \( P_2 \) is FALSE
  • (B) \( P_1 \) is FALSE and \( P_2 \) is TRUE
  • (C) Both \( P_1 \) and \( P_2 \) are FALSE
  • (D) Both \( P_1 \) and \( P_2 \) are TRUE

Question 223:

If the variance of the data \( 2,3,5,8,12 \) is \( \sigma^2 \) and the mean deviation from the median for this data is \( M \), then \( \sigma^2 - M \) is:

  • (A) \( 10.2 \)
  • (B) \( 5.8 \)
  • (C) \( 10.6 \)
  • (D) \( 8.2 \)

Question 224:

The mean of \( n \) items is \( X \). If the first item is increased by 1, second by 2, and so on, the new mean is:

  • (A) \( \bar{X} + \frac{x}{2} \)
  • (B) \( \bar{X} + x \)
  • (C) \( \bar{X} + \frac{n+1}{2} \)
  • (D) None of these

Question 225:

The variance of 20 observations is 5. If each observation is multiplied by 2, then the new variance of the resulting observation is:

  • (A) \( 2^3 \times 5 \)
  • (B) \( 2^2 \times 5 \)
  • (C) \( 2 \times 5 \)
  • (D) \( 2^4 \times 5 \)

Question 226:

If the function \( f(x) \), defined below, is continuous on the interval \([0,8]\), then: \[ f(x) = \begin{cases} x^2 + ax + b, & 0 \leq x < 2
3x + 2, & 2 \leq x \leq 4
2ax + 5b, & 4 < x \leq 8 \end{cases} \]


Question 227:

From the top of a cliff 50 m high, the angles of depression of the top and bottom of a tower are observed to be \(30^\circ\) and \(45^\circ\). The height of the tower is:


Question 228:

ABC is a triangular park with \( AB = AC = 100 \) m. A TV tower stands at the midpoint of \( BC \). The angles of elevation of the top of the tower at \( A, B, C \) are \( 45^\circ, 60^\circ, 60^\circ \) respectively. The height of the tower is:


Question 229:

In a statistical investigation of 1003 families of Calcutta, it was found that 63 families have neither a radio nor a TV, 794 families have a radio, and 187 have a TV. The number of families having both a radio and a TV is:


Question 230:

Let R be the relation "is congruent to" on the set of all triangles in a plane. Is R:

  • (A) Reflexive only
  • (B) Symmetric only
  • (C) Symmetric and reflexive only
  • (D) Equivalence relation

Question 231:

Number of subsets of set of letters of word 'MONOTONE' is:

  • (A) 8
  • (B) 256
  • (C) 64
  • (D) 32

Question 232:

In an examination, 62% of the candidates failed in English, 42% in Mathematics and 20% in both. The number of those who passed in both the subjects is:

  • (A) 11
  • (B) 16
  • (C) 18
  • (D) None of these

Question 233:

If \( A = \frac{1}{3} \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 2 & 2
2 & 1 & -2
a & 2 & b \end{bmatrix} \) is an orthogonal matrix, then

  • (A) \( a = -2, b = -1 \)
  • (B) \( a = 2, b = 1 \)
  • (C) \( a = 2, b = -1 \)
  • (D) \( a = -2, b = 1 \)

Question 234:

If matrix \( A = \begin{bmatrix} 3 & -2 & 4
1 & 2 & -1
0 & 1 & 1 \end{bmatrix} \) and \( A^{-1} = \frac{1}{k} adj(A) \), then \( k \) is

  • (A) 7
  • (B) -7
  • (C) 15
  • (D) -11

Question 235:

If A and B are symmetric matrices of the same order such that \( AB + BA = X \) and \( AB - BA = Y \), then \( (XY)^T = \)

  • (A) \( XY \)
  • (B) \( X^TY^T \)
  • (C) \( -YX \)
  • (D) \( -Y^TX^T \)

Question 236:

If \( A = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0
0 & -1 \end{bmatrix} \), \( P = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1
0 & 1 \end{bmatrix} \) and \( X = A P A^T \), then \( A^T X^{50} A \) is:

  • (A) \( \begin{bmatrix} 0 & 1
    1 & 0 \end{bmatrix} \)
  • (B) \( \begin{bmatrix} 2 & 1
    0 & -1 \end{bmatrix} \)
  • (C) \( \begin{bmatrix} 25 & 1
    1 & -25 \end{bmatrix} \)
  • (D) \( \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 50
    0 & 1 \end{bmatrix} \)
0 & 1 \end{bmatrix} \)
View Solution

Question 237:

If \( A \) is a square matrix of order 3, then \( | \text{Adj}(\text{Adj } A^2) | \) is:

  • (A) \( |A|^2 \)
  • (B) \( |A|^4 \)
  • (C) \( |A|^8 \)
  • (D) \( |A|^{16} \)

Question 238:

Suppose \( p, q, r \neq 0 \) and the system of equations:
\[ (p + a)x + by + cz = 0 \] \[ ax + (q + b)y + cz = 0 \] \[ ax + by + (r + c)z = 0 \] has a non-trivial solution, then the value of \[ \frac{a}{p} + \frac{b}{q} + \frac{c}{r} \] is:

  • (A) \( -1 \)
  • (B) \( 0 \)
  • (C) \( 1 \)
  • (D) \( 2 \)

Question 239:

If \( x \) is a complex root of the equation
\[ \begin{vmatrix} 1 & x & x
x & 1 & x
x & x & 1 \end{vmatrix} + \begin{vmatrix} 1 - x & 1 & 1
1 & 1 - x & 1
1 & 1 & 1 - x \end{vmatrix} = 0, \] then \( x^{2007} + x^{-2007} \) is:

  • (A) \( 1 \)
  • (B) \( -1 \)
  • (C) \( -2 \)
  • (D) \( 2 \)

Question 240:

The system of equations:
\[ x - y + 2z = 4 \] \[ 3x + y + 4z = 6 \] \[ x + y + z = 1 \] has:

  • (A) unique solution
  • (B) infinitely many solutions
  • (C) no solution
  • (D) two solutions

Question 241:

If the system of linear equations:
\[ 2x + y - z = 7 \] \[ x - 3y + 2z = 1 \] \[ x + 4y + \delta z = k \] has infinitely many solutions, then \( \delta + k \) is:

  • (A) \( -3 \)
  • (B) \( 3 \)
  • (C) \( 6 \)
  • (D) \( 9 \)

Question 242:

If \( \cot(\cos^{-1} x) = \sec \left( \tan^{-1} \left( \frac{a}{\sqrt{b^2 - a^2}} \right) \right) \), then:

  • (A) \( \frac{b}{\sqrt{2b^2 - a^2}} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{\sqrt{b^2 - a^2}}{ab} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{a}{\sqrt{2b^2 - a^2}} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{\sqrt{b^2 - a^2}}{a} \)

Question 243:

If \( \cos \cot^{-1} \left( \frac{1}{2} \right) = \cot (\cos^{-1} x) \), then the value of \( x \) is:

  • (A) \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{6}} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{-1}{\sqrt{12}} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{2}{\sqrt{6}} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{-2}{\sqrt{6}} \)

Question 244:

Let \( [x] \) denote the greatest integer \( \leq x \). If \( f(x) = [x] \) and \( g(x) = |x| \), then the value of:
\[ f \left( g \left( \frac{8}{5} \right) \right) - g \left( f \left( \frac{-8}{5} \right) \right) \] is:

  • (A) \( 2 \)
  • (B) \( -2 \)
  • (C) \( 1 \)
  • (D) \( -1 \)

Question 245:

The number of real solutions of
\[ \sqrt{5 - \log_2 |x|} = 3 - \log_2 |x| \] is:

  • (A) \( 1 \)
  • (B) \( 2 \)
  • (C) \( 3 \)
  • (D) \( 4 \)

Question 246:

The function \[ f(x) = \frac{\cos x}{\left\lfloor \frac{2x}{\pi} \right\rfloor + \frac{1}{2}}, \] where \( x \) is not an integral multiple of \( \pi \) and \( \lfloor \cdot \rfloor \) denotes the greatest integer function, is:

  • (A) an odd function
  • (B) an even function
  • (C) neither odd nor even
  • (D) None of these

Question 247:

The function f: R\(\rightarrow\) R is defined by \[ f(x) = \frac{x}{\sqrt{1 + x^2}} \] is:

  • (A) surjective but not injective
  • (B) bijective
  • (C) injective but not surjective
  • (D) neither injective nor surjective

Question 248:

If \( f: \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R} \), \( g: \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R} \) are defined by \( f(x) = 5x - 3 \), \( g(x) = x^2 + 3 \), then \( g \circ f^{-1}(3) \) is equal to

  • (A) \( \frac{25}{3} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{111}{25} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{9}{25} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{25}{111} \)

Question 249:

The domain of the real-valued function
\[ f(x) = \sqrt{\frac{2x^2 - 7x + 5}{3x^2 - 5x - 2}} \] is:

  • (A) \( (-\infty, -\frac{1}{3}) \cup [1,2) \cup [\frac{5}{2}, \infty) \)
  • (B) \( (-\infty, 1) \cup (2, \infty) \)
  • (C) \( (-\frac{1}{3}, \frac{5}{2}) \)
  • (D) \( (-\infty, -\frac{1}{3}] \cup [\frac{5}{2}, \infty) \)

Question 250:

If a function \( f: \mathbb{R} \setminus \{1\} \rightarrow \mathbb{R} \setminus \{m\} \) defined by \( f(x) = \frac{x+3}{x-2} \) is a bijection, then \( 3/l + 2m = \)

  • (A) \( 10 \)
  • (B) \( 12 \)
  • (C) \( 8 \)
  • (D) \( 14 \)

Question 251:

Given that \( f(x) = \sin x + \cos x \) and \( g(x) = x^2 - 1 \), find the conditions under which \( g(f(x)) \) is invertible.

  • (A) \( -\frac{\pi}{4} \leq x \leq \frac{\pi}{4} \)
  • (B) \( 0 \leq x \leq \pi \)
  • (C) \( -\frac{\pi}{4} \leq x \leq \pi \)
  • (D) \( 0 \leq x \leq \frac{\pi}{2} \)

Question 252:

Let the function \( g: (-\infty, -0) \rightarrow (-\frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{\pi}{2}) \) be given by \( g(u) = 2 \tan^{-1}(e^u) - \frac{\pi}{2} \). Determine the properties of \( g \).

  • (A) Even and is strictly increasing in \( (0, \infty) \)
  • (B) Odd and is strictly decreasing in \( (-\infty, 0) \)
  • (C) Odd and is strictly increasing in \( (-\infty, \infty) \)
  • (D) Neither even nor odd, but is strictly increasing in \( (-\infty, \infty) \)

Question 253:

Let \( f \) be the function defined by:
\[ f(x) = \begin{cases} \frac{x^2 - 1}{x^2 - 2|x-1| - 1}, & \text{if } x \neq 1,
\frac{1}{2}, & \text{if } x = 1. \end{cases} \] The function is continuous at:

  • (A) The function is continuous for all values of \( x \)
  • (B) The function is continuous only for \( x > 1 \)
  • (C) The function is continuous at \( x = 1 \)
  • (D) The function is not continuous at \( x = 1 \)

Question 254:

If \[ f(x) = \begin{cases} \frac{x^2 \log(\cos x)}{\log(1+x)}, & x \ne 0
0, & x = 0 \end{cases} \] then at \( x = 0 \), \( f(x) \) is .

  • (A) not continuous
  • (B) continuous but not differentiable
  • (C) differentiable
  • (D) not continuous, but differentiable

Question 255:

If \( f(x) \) is defined as follows:
\[ f(x) = \begin{cases} 4, & \text{if } -\infty < x < -\sqrt{5},
x^2 - 1, & \text{if } -\sqrt{5} \leq x \leq \sqrt{5},
4, & \text{if } \sqrt{5} \leq x < \infty. \end{cases} \] If \( k \) is the number of points where \( f(x) \) is not differentiable, then \( k - 2 = \)

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 1
  • (C) 0
  • (D) 3

Question 256:

If \( x\sqrt{1 + y} + y\sqrt{1 + x} = 0 \), then find \( \frac{dy}{dx} \).

  • (A) \( x + \frac{1}{x} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{1}{1 + x} \)
  • (C) \( -\frac{1}{(1 + x)^2} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{x}{1 + x} \)

Question 257:

If \( y = \tan^{-1}\left( \frac{\sqrt{x} - x}{1 + x^{3/2}} \right) \), then \( y'(1) \) is equal to:

  • (A) 0
  • (B) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
  • (C) -1
  • (D) \(-\frac{1}{4}\)

Question 258:

At \( x = \frac{\pi^2}{4} \), \( \frac{d}{dx} \left( \tan^{-1}(\cos\sqrt{x}) + \sec^{-1}(e^x) \right) = \)

  • (A) \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{e^{\frac{\pi^2}{2}} - 1}} - \frac{1}{\pi} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{\pi}{4} + \frac{1}{\sqrt{e^{\pi^2} + e^{\frac{\pi^2}{2}}}} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{e^{\pi^2} + e^{\frac{\pi^2}{2}}}} + \frac{2}{\pi} \cot \left( \frac{\pi}{2} \right) \)
  • (D) \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{e^{\pi}}} + \frac{1}{\pi} \)

Question 259:

The maximum area of a rectangle inscribed in a circle of diameter \( R \) is:

  • (A) \( R^2 \)
  • (B) \( \frac{R^2}{2} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{R^2}{4} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{R^2}{8} \)

Question 260:

Consider the function \( f(x) = \frac{|x-1|}{x^2} \). Then \( f(x) \) is:

  • (A) Increasing in \( (0, 1) \cup (2, \infty) \)
  • (B) Increasing in \( (-\infty, 0) \cup (0, 1) \)
  • (C) Decreasing in \( (-\infty, 0) \cup (2, \infty) \)
  • (D) Decreasing in \( (0, 1) \cup (2, \infty) \)

Question 261:

The maximum volume (in cu. units) of the cylinder which can be inscribed in a sphere of radius 12 units is:

  • (A) \( 384 \sqrt{3} \pi \)
  • (B) \( 768 \sqrt{3} \pi \)
  • (C) \( 768 \pi / \sqrt{3} \)
  • (D) \( 1152 \pi / \sqrt{3} \)

Question 262:

If the angle made by the tangent at the point \((x_0, y_0)\) on the curve \(x = 12(t + \sin t \cos t)\), \(y = 12(1 + \sin t)^2\), with \(0 < t < \frac{\pi}{2}\), with the positive x-axis is \(\frac{\pi}{3}\), then \(y_0\) is equal to:

  • (A) \(6(3 + 2\sqrt{2})\)
  • (B) \(3(7 + 4\sqrt{3})\)
  • (C) 27
  • (D) 48

Question 263:

The altitude of a cone is 20 cm and its semi-vertical angle is \(30^\circ\). If the semi-vertical angle is increasing at the rate of \(2^\circ\) per second, then the radius of the base is increasing at the rate of:

  • (A) 30 cm/sec
  • (B) \(\frac{160}{3}\) cm/sec
  • (C) 10 cm/sec
  • (D) 160 cm/sec

Question 264:

The point of inflexion for the curve \(y = (x - a)^n\), where \(n\) is odd integer and \(n \ge 3\), is:

  • (A) \((a, 0)\)
  • (B) \((0, a)\)
  • (C) \((0, 0)\)
  • (D) None of these

Question 265:

The population \( p(t) \) at time \( t \) of a certain mouse species satisfies the differential equation:
\[ \frac{d p(t)}{dt} = 0.5p(t) - 450. \] If \( p(0) = 850 \), then the time at which the population becomes zero is:

  • (A) \( 2 \ln 18 \)
  • (B) \( \ln 9 \)
  • (C) \( \frac{1}{2} \ln 18 \)
  • (D) \( \ln 18 \)

Question 266:

Evaluate the integral: \[ \int \frac{x^3 - 1}{x^3 + x} dx \]

  • (A) \( x + \log|x| + \frac{1}{2} \log(x^2 + 1) + \sin^{-1}(x) + c \)
  • (B) \( x - \log|x| + \frac{1}{2} \log(x^2 + 1) - \sin^{-1}(x) + c \)
  • (C) \( x + \log|x| - \frac{1}{2} \log(x^2 + 1) + \tan^{-1}(x) + c \)
  • (D) \( x - \log|x| + \frac{1}{2} \log(x^2 + 1) - \tan^{-1}(x) + c \)

Question 267:

Evaluate the integral: \[ \int \sqrt{x + \sqrt{x^2 + 2}} \, dx. \]

  • (A) \(\frac{2}{3} (x + \sqrt{x^2 + 2})^{3/2} - 2(x + \sqrt{x^2 + 2})^{1/2} + C\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{3} (x + \sqrt{x^2 + 2})^{3/2} - 2(x + \sqrt{x^2 + 2})^{1/2} + C\)
  • (C) \( (x + \sqrt{x^2 + 2})^{-3/2} - 2(x + \sqrt{x^2 + 2})^{1/2} + C\)
  • (D) \(\frac{(x+\sqrt{x^2+2})^2 - 6}{3\sqrt{x+\sqrt{x^2+2}}} + C\)

Question 268:

The value of \( \int \(e^\tan \theta\) (\sec \theta - \sin \theta) d\theta \) is:

  • (A) \(\(e^\tan \theta\) \sec \theta + c \)
  • (B) \( \(e^\tan \theta\) \sin \theta + c \)
  • (C) \( \(e^\tan \theta\) (\tan \theta + \sin \theta) + c \)
  • (D) \( \(e^\tan \theta\) \cos \theta + c \)

Question 269:

The value of \( \int_0^\infty \frac{dx}{(x^2 + a^2)(x^2 + b^2)} \) is:

  • (A) \( \frac{\pi ab}{a + b} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{ab}{2(a + b)} \)
  • (C) \(\frac{\pi}{2ab(a+b)} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{\pi (a + b)}{2ab} \)

Question 270:

The value of definite integral \( \int_0^{\pi/2} \log(\tan x) dx \) is:

  • (A) 0
  • (B) \( \frac{\pi}{4} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{\pi}{2} \)
  • (D) \( \pi \)

Question 271:

Evaluate the integral: \[ \int_{5}^{9} \frac{\log 3x^2}{\log 3x^2 + \log (588 - 84x + 3x^2)} dx \]

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 1
  • (C) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
  • (D) 4

Question 272:

Evaluate the integral: \[ \int \frac{x^2 (x \sec^2 x + \tan x)}{(x \tan x + 1)^2} dx \]

  • (A) \( -\frac{x^2}{x \tan x + 1} \)
  • (B) \( 2 \log_e |x \sin x + \cos x| + C \)
  • (C) \( -\frac{x^2}{x \tan x + 1} + 2 \log_e |x \sin x + \cos x| + C \)
  • (D) \( -\frac{x^2}{x \tan x + 1} - 2 \log_e |x \sin x + \cos x| + C \)

Question 273:

Evaluate the following limit: \[ \lim_{n \to \infty} \prod_{r=3}^n \frac{r^3 - 8}{r^3 + 8}. \]

  • (A) \( \frac{2}{7} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{3}{7} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{4}{7} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{6}{7} \)

Question 274:

The value of \( \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{\sin\left( \frac{\pi}{4} + x \right) + \sin\left( \frac{3\pi}{4} + x \right)}{\cos x + \sin x} dx \) is:

  • (A) \( \frac{\pi}{\sqrt{2}} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{\pi}{2\sqrt{2}} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{\pi}{3\sqrt{2}} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{\pi}{4\sqrt{2}} \)

Question 275:

The line \(y = mx\) bisects the area enclosed by lines \(x = 0\), \(y = 0\), and \(x = \frac{3}{2}\) and the curve \(y = 1 + 4x - x^2\). Then, the value of \(m\) is:

  • (A) \( \frac{13}{6} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{13}{2} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{13}{5} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{13}{7} \)

Question 276:

If \( a, c, b \) are in GP, then the area of the triangle formed by the lines \( ax + by + c = 0 \) with the coordinate axes is equal to:

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
  • (D) None of these

Question 277:

The area enclosed by the curves \( y = x^3 \) and \( y = \sqrt{x} \) is:

  • (A) \( \frac{5}{3} \) sq. units
  • (B) \( \frac{5}{4} \) sq. units
  • (C) \( \frac{5}{12} \) sq. units
  • (D) \( \frac{12}{5} \) sq. units

Question 278:

The area of the region bounded by the curves \( x = y^2 - 2 \) and \( x = y \) is:

  • (A) \( \frac{9}{4} \)
  • (B) 9
  • (C) \( \frac{9}{2} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{9}{7} \)

Question 279:

If the area bounded by the curves \( y = ax^2 \) and \( x = ay^2 \) (where \( a > 0 \)) is 3 sq. units, then the value of \( a \) is:

  • (A) \( \frac{2}{3} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{1}{3} \)
  • (C) 1
  • (D) 4

Question 280:

The solution of the differential equation \( (x + 1)\frac{dy}{dx} - y = e^{3x}(x + 1)^2 \) is:

  • (A) \( y = (x + 1)e^{3x} + C \)
  • (B) \( 3y = (x + 1) + e^{3x} + C \)
  • (C) \( \frac{3y}{x+1} = e^{3x} + C \)
  • (D) \( ye^{-3x} = 3(x + 1) + C \)

Question 281:

If \( \frac{dy}{dx} - y \log_e 2 = \(2^\sin x\) (\cos x - 1) \log_e 2 \), then \( y \) is:

  • (A) \( \(2^\sin x\) + c2^x \)
  • (B) \( \(2^\cos x\) + c2^x \)
  • (C) \( \(2^\sin x\) + c2^{-x} \)
  • (D) \( \(2^\cos x\) + c2^{-x} \)

Question 282:

Let \( \mathbf{a} = \hat{i} - \hat{k}, \mathbf{b} = x\hat{i} + \hat{j} + (1 - x)\hat{k} \), and \( \mathbf{c} = y\hat{i} + x\hat{j} + (1 + x - y)\hat{k} \). Then, \( [\mathbf{a} \, \mathbf{b} \, \mathbf{c}] \) depends on:

  • (A) only \( y \)
  • (B) only \( x \)
  • (C) both \( x \) and \( y \)
  • (D) neither \( x \) nor \( y \)

Question 283:

Let \( ABC \) be a triangle and \( \vec{a}, \vec{b}, \vec{c} \) be the position vectors of \( A, B, C \) respectively. Let \( D \) divide \( BC \) in the ratio \( 3:1 \) internally and \( E \) divide \( AD \) in the ratio \( 4:1 \) internally. Let \( BE \) meet \( AC \) in \( F \). If \( E \) divides \( BF \) in the ratio \( 3:2 \) internally then the position vector of \( F \) is:

  • (A) \( \frac{\vec{a} + \vec{b} + \vec{c}}{3} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{\vec{a} - 2\vec{b} + 3\vec{c}}{2} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{\vec{a} + 2\vec{b} + 3\vec{c}}{2} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{\vec{a} - \vec{b} + 3\vec{c}}{3} \)

Question 284:

If \( \vec{a} = 2\hat{i} + \hat{j} + 2\hat{k} \), then the value of \( |\hat{i} \times (\vec{a} \times \hat{i})|^2 + |\hat{j} \times (\vec{a} \times \hat{j})|^2 + |\hat{k} \times (\vec{a} \times \hat{k})|^2 \) is equal to:

  • (A) 17
  • (B) 18
  • (C) 19
  • (D) 20

Question 285:

The magnitude of projection of the line joining \( (3,4,5) \) and \( (4,6,3) \) on the line joining \( (-1,2,4) \) and \( (1,0,5) \) is:

  • (A) \( \frac{4}{3} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{2}{3} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{8}{3} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{1}{3} \)

Question 286:

The angle between the lines whose direction cosines are given by the equations \( 3l + m + 5n = 0 \) and \( 6nm - 2nl + 5lm = 0 \) is:

  • (A) \( \cos^{-1} \left( \frac{1}{6} \right) \)
  • (B) \( \cos^{-1} \left( -\frac{1}{6} \right) \)
  • (C) \( \cos^{-1} \left( \frac{2}{3} \right) \)
  • (D) \( \cos^{-1} \left( -\frac{5}{6} \right) \)

Question 287:

Let the acute angle bisector of the two planes \( x - 2y - 2z + 1 = 0 \) and \( 2x - 3y - 6z + 1 = 0 \) be the plane \( P \). Then which of the following points lies on \( P \)?

  • (A) \( (3, 1, -\frac{1}{2}) \)
  • (B) \( (-2, 0, -\frac{1}{2}) \)
  • (C) \( (0, 2, -4) \)
  • (D) \( (4, 0, -2) \)

Question 288:

Let the foot of perpendicular from a point \( P(1,2,-1) \) to the straight line \( L : \frac{x}{1} = \frac{y}{0} = \frac{z}{-1} \) be \( N \). Let a line be drawn from \( P \) parallel to the plane \( x + y + 2z = 0 \) which meets \( L \) at point \( Q \). If \( \alpha \) is the acute angle between the lines \( PN \) and \( PQ \), then \( \cos \alpha \) is equal to:

  • (A) \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{5}} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{1}{2\sqrt{3}} \)

Question 289:

If the number of available constraints is 3 and the number of parameters to be optimised is 4, then

  • (A) The objective function can be optimised
  • (B) The constraints are short in number
  • (C) The solution is problem oriented
  • (D) None of the above

Question 290:

The probability of getting 10 in a single throw of three fair dice is:

  • (A) \( \frac{1}{6} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{1}{8} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{1}{9} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{1}{5} \)

Question 291:

In a binomial distribution, the mean is 4 and variance is 3. Then, its mode is:

  • (A) 5
  • (B) 6
  • (C) 4
  • (D) None of these

Question 292:

The probability that certain electronic component fails when first used is 0.10. If it does not fail immediately, the probability that it lasts for one year is 0.99. The probability that a new component will last for one year is

  • (A) 0.9
  • (B) 0.01
  • (C) 0.119
  • (D) 0.891
  • (A) \(\frac{2}{5}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{3}{4}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{4}{5}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{3}{7}\)
  • (A) \(\frac{23}{500}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{11}{200}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{7}{100}\)
  • (D) None of these
  • (A) A and B are independent
  • (B) \(P(A'/B) = \frac{3}{4}\)
  • (C) \(P(B'/A') = \frac{1}{2}\)
  • (D) None of these

BITSAT 2025 Question Paper Analysis

Harshal Sir discusses that BITSAT exam was balanced with easy to moderate questions. The overall paper was similar to JEE level but with some exceptions.

  • Physics was moderate, with basic topics like Electrostatics, Current Electricity, and Mechanics; less Optics questions compared to usual.
  • Chemistry: The most challenging part due to questions from removed syllabus portions and more profound concepts.
  • Mathematics: Mostly easy with some challenging Linear Programming questions; Calculus dominated, less coordinate geometry.