JNTU Hyderabad was conducted the TS EAMCET 2025 exam on behalf of the Telangana Council of Higher Education. The TS EAMCET 2025 Agriculture and Pharmacy (BiPC) exam on April 29 in shift 2 from 3:00 PM to 6:00 PM.
The TS EAMCET 2025 Agriculture and Pharmacy exam is being held in online CBT mode with a total of 160 questions divided between the three subjects. Physics (40 questions), Chemistry (40 questions) and Biology (Zoology-40, Botany-40) to be completed in 180 minutes (3 hours) for a total of 160 marks. As per the TS EAMCET 2025 marking scheme, +1 marks is given for every correct answer with no negative marking for incorrect answers.
The TS EAMCET 2025 April 29 Shift 2 Question Paper PDF with Solution PDF is available to download here.
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TS EAMCET 2025 Agriculture and Pharmacy April 29 Shift 2 Question Paper with Solution PDF
| TS EAMCET 2025 April 29 Shift 2 Question Paper with Answer Key | Download PDF | Check Solution |
In several fungi and plants, the bisexual condition is denoted by
Match the following:
Match the following:
Identify the sclerenchymatous structures (parts) given below related in dicot and monocot stems:
I. Pericycle in young dicot stem
II. Hypodermis in monocot stem
III. Vascular bundle sheath in monocot stem
IV. Endodermis in dicot stem
Leaf tendrils and foliar stipules are found in this plant
Among the following, Acidic amino acid, Basic amino acid and Neutral amino acids are in the sequence of
Study the lists I, II, III & IV given below and identify the mismatch.
Identify the correctly matched pairs.
A. Leptotene - Synapsis occurs
B. Zygotene - Pairing of homologous chromosomes
C. Pachytene - Crossing over do not occur
D. Diplotene - Nuclear membrane dissolves
E. Diakinesis - Terminalisation of chiasmata
Mycoplasma causes 'X' disease in plants and 'Y' disease in cattle. 'X' and 'Y' diseases serially are
Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Hilum is a scar on the seed coat
Reason (R): Through hilum the developing seeds were attached to the fruit
Identify the correct parts of leaf modifications of the pitcher plant shown in Lists-1 and-2.
Based on the number of coharts, arrange the following series in the descending order.
Which of the following statements are correct about viroids?
How many times the diploid number of chromosomes of Ophioglossum is more than haploid number of chromosomes of Zea mays?
Match the following:
Development of an embryo from an unfertilized egg cell is called as
Study the structural formula given below and identify the compound/substance with its related function
Zygomorphic flowers showing imbricate aestivation are present in
Study the following statements related to lipids and identify the correct statements:
I. Lecithin is a glycolipid
II. Saturated fatty acids possess one or more C=C bond
III. Fatty acids esterified with glycerol forms monoglycerides
IV. Gingely oil has low melting point, hence remains as oil in winter
V. Lipids are generally water insoluble
Study the following showing different organisms with their taxonomic categories:
In a messenger RNA molecule, untranslated regions (UTRs) are present at:
I. 5\textsuperscript{' } end before start codon
II. 3\textsuperscript{' } end after stop codon
III. 3\textsuperscript{' } end before stop codon
IV. 5\textsuperscript{' } end after start codon
In Hibiscus flower, red colour is dominant over white colour. When heterozygous red colour flowers were crossed with white colour flowers, 192 offsprings were produced. Exact Mendelian ratio was obtained. Then the number of phenotype ratio between red and white flowers in F1 is
Parbhani Kranti is a variety of 'A', shows resistance to 'B' disease. 'A' and 'B' serially are
Study the A, B and C equations given below and identify the correct match.
A. C6H12O6 + 2NAD + 2ADP + 2Pi → 2C2H4O3 + 2ATP + 2NADH + 2H+
B. Pyruvic acid + 4NAD + FAD + 2H2O + ADP + Pi → 3CO2 + 4NADH + 4H+ + ATP + FADH2
C.
Identify the wrong statements from the following:
I. DNA polymerase has capability of catalysing the process of elongation of polypeptide chain
II. In splicing, introns are removed and exons are joined
III. In capping, methyl guanosine triphosphate is added to the 5\textsuperscript{' } end of hnRNA
IV. In tailing, adenylate residues are added at 5\textsuperscript{' } end
A fragment of TMV particle having 710 capsomers would have a length of
Cyanobacteria fixing atmospheric nitrogen are
I. Oscillatoria and Anabaena
II. Azospirillum and Nostoc
III. Azotobacter and Rivularia
IV. Nostoc and Ocillatoria
Ubiquinone is a mobile electron carrier between
I. Complex I and complex III
II. Complex II and complex III
III. Complex III and complex IV
IV. Complex I and complex IV
The given figure represents the termination process of transcription in bacteria. Identify A, B and C respectively
Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Water uptake by root hairs from soil occurs through osmosis
Reason (R): Casparian strips in endodermis are suberized
Chemical nature of primers of DNA/RNA
Match the following and choose the correct option from the lists given below:
The disease sickle cell anemia is caused by substitution of 'A' by 'B' of 'C' globin chain of hemoglobin molecule. Identify A, B and C respectively
Find out the correct combinations from the following:
Bt toxin kills insects by
In the given representation of C3 cycle, identify A, B and C and select the correct option
Study the following and identify the correct combinations:
Enzymes that catalyze the removal of groups from substrates by mechanism other than hydrolysis leaving double bonds are
CryIIAb and CryIAb produce toxins that control
The oxygenation activity of RuBisCo enzyme in photorespiration forms
The study of animal behaviour is
Choose the in-situ conservation methods from the following:
I. Sanctuary
II. Cryopreservation
III. Sacred groves
IV. Gene banks
V. National parks
VI. In-vitro culture
Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): In cellular organization, the cells are arranged as loose cell aggregates and do not form tissues and are functionally isolated
Reason (R): Absence of sensory cells and nerve cells
Mesothelium of body cavities is
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: In hyaline cartilage, perichondrium is present except in articular cartilages
Statement-II: Matrix secreting cells in cartilage are chondrocytes
Study the following and choose the incorrect combinations:
I. Phylum: Porifera, Special cells: Lasso cells, Example: Spongilla
II. Phylum: Cnidaria, Special cells: Stinging cells, Example: Hydra
III. Phylum: Ctenophora, Special cells: Choanocytes, Example: Pleurobrachia
IV. Phylum: Platyhelminthes, Special cells: Flame cells, Example: Fasciola
Cydippid larva is found in
Chordates share these features with echinoderms:
I. Protostomeate condition
II. Radial and indeterminate cleavages
III. Schizocoelic coelom
IV. Enterocoelic coelom
V. Deuterostomeate condition
Match the following:
Choose the flagellates having pantonematic flagellum:
I. Euglena
II. Polytoma
III. Monas
IV. Astasia
V. Urceolus
VI. Peranema
The host which harbours the asexual stages of the parasite is
Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Entamoeba histolytica is a cytozoic parasite
Reason (R): It lives in the mucosa and submucosa of large intestine of man
Match the following:
These drugs cause sleeplessness
These cells of hypodermis are believed to secrete wax in cockroach
The following are the parts of alimentary canal of cockroach:
I. Colon,
II. Mesenteron,
III. Crop,
IV. Gizzard,
V. Ileum,
VI. Rectum,
VII. Oesophagus
Arrange them in the correct sequence
Appendages are absent in these segments of head of cockroach
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: When compared to UV-A rays, UV-B and UV-C rays are more harmful to organisms
Statement-II: Oriented locomotor movement of an organism towards or away from the direction of light is called phototaxis
Gymnodinium and Cystodinium are described as
Electrostatic precipitators are used to remove these pollutants from the exhaust of thermal plants
Study the following and pick up the correct statements:
I. Paneth cells of intestinal glands secrete lysozyme
II. Kupfer's cells are the hepatic macrophages
III. Intestinal lipase is called steapsin
IV. Oxidation of one gram of fats yields 4 k.cal of energy
Turbinals support this part of the nasal chamber
Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): During blood clotting, at one stage, soluble fibrin is formed
Reason (R): Factor XIII, released from platelets, converts it into insoluble fibrin fibres. Factor XIII replaces the hydrogen bonds present among the monomers of soluble fibrin with covalent bonds
Observe the list of animals given below:
I. Tracheate arthropods
II. Land snails
III. Hydra
IV. Earth worms
V. Reptiles
VI. Birds
VII. Mammals
VIII. Bony fishes
IX. Amphibians
Among the above, ureotelism is found in
This bone forms the posterior part and most of the base of the human cranium
Match the following:
Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Hypothalamus is the master control centre of the endocrine system
Reason (R): Its secretions directly control the pituitary gland
Match the following:
These cells are capable of producing antibodies
Study the following and choose the correct sequence regarding histology of human uterus (outer to inner)
Choose the correctly matched pair
Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): In human beings, Y-linked genes of non-homologous part are called holandric genes
Reason (R): Y-chromosome is present in males only
If a gene has four alleles, possible number of genotypes are
Study the following and choose the correct statements:
I. Haemophilia-A and Haemophilia-B are X-linked disorders due to recessive genes
II. Sickle cell anaemia is caused by a point mutation where valine at 6th position is replaced by glutamic acid
III. Protonopia is red colour blindness
IV. Phenyl ketonuria is an allosomal metabolic genetic disorder
Transitional form between fishes and amphibians
Study the following and choose the incorrect statements:
I. Biogenetic law states that phylogeny repeats ontogeny
II. Peripatus is a connecting link between Annelida and Mollusca
III. Analogous organs are dissimilar in origin and structure
IV. Natural selection is the driving force of evolution
Golden age of reptiles is
Mating between male parent and female offspring or female parent with male offspring is called
Choose the wrongly matched pair
Wave pattern seen in EEG in people who are drowsy / sleepy with closed eyes is
The fundamental force in nature which operates among heavier elementary particles only is
Which of the following statements is not correct regarding significant figures?
A body is falling freely under gravity from a certain height from the ground. If the sum of the displacements of the body in the second and third seconds of its motion is 32% of the height from which it is falling, then the speed with which the body hits the ground is (Acceleration due to gravity = \(10~m s^{-2}\))
The minimum velocity of a projectile is 50% of its maximum velocity. If the minimum velocity of the projectile is \(10~m s^{-1}\) then the time of flight of the projectile is (Acceleration due to gravity = \(10~m s^{-2}\)
A car of mass 1100 kg is moving on a straight rough horizontal surface with a speed of 43.2 kmph. If the coefficient of friction between the surface and the tyres of the car is 0.3, then the shortest distance in which the car can come to rest is (Acceleration due to gravity = \(10~m s^{-2}\))
A body of mass 50 g is projected vertically upwards from the ground. If the kinetic energy of the body at a height of 32 m is 100% more than its potential energy, then the height at which the potential energy of the body becomes 60% of its kinetic energy is
When a bullet is fired with a velocity of \(150~m s^{-1}\) at a target of thickness 50 cm, it emerges with a velocity of \(100~m s^{-1}\). If another bullet of same mass is fired with same velocity at a second target of thickness 80 cm, then the velocity with which the bullet emerges from the second target is (Retarding forces are equal in both the cases)
The ratio of the masses of two thin uniform circular discs made of same material having same thickness is 4:9. The ratio of the moments of inertia of the two discs about their diameters is
A solid sphere of radius 18 cm is rolling down from rest from the top of an inclined plane of length 14 m and angle of inclination \(30^\circ\). The time taken by the sphere to reach the bottom of the inclined plane is (Acceleration due to gravity = \(10~m s^{-2}\))
A particle is executing simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of 10 cm. If the kinetic energy of the particle at a distance of 6 cm from the mean position is 100 J, then the kinetic energy of the particle at a distance of 2 cm from the mean position is
Two spherical shells of radii \(R\) and \(2R\), masses \(M\) and \(2M\) respectively are arranged concentrically. The net gravitational force acting on a particle of mass \(m\) placed at a distance of \(23R\) from the common centre of the shells is (\(G\) = Universal gravitational constant)
One end of a steel wire of length 2 m is attached to the roof and the other end is loaded with 2 kg mass. Another steel wire of same thickness but 1 m in length is held horizontally and stretched by applying two 20 N forces at its two ends. The ratio of the elongations produced in the two wires is (Acceleration due to gravity = \(10~ms^{-2}\))
The Reynolds number and nature of flow of water flowing with a velocity of \(10~cm s^{-1}\) through a pipe of diameter \(1.8~cm\) is (Coefficient of viscosity of water \(=10^{-3}~Pa s\))
At room temperature, two bubbles of radii 8 cm and 15 cm are connected by a capillary tube. The final radii of the two bubbles respectively are (Neglect the volume of the air in the capillary tube)
10 g of ice at \(-20^\circ\)C is dropped into a calorimeter of water equivalent 20 g, containing 10 g of water at \(20^\circ\)C. At equilibrium, the mass of the ice in the mixture is
A spherical shell of radius 1 m, made of a steel sheet of thickness 5 mm and completely filled with ice at \(0^\circ\)C is immersed in boiling water. The time taken for the ice to melt completely is (Thermal conductivity of steel = \(45~Wm^{-1}K^{-1}\) and density of ice is \(0.9~g cm^{-3}\))
During adiabatic compression of an ideal gas at an initial pressure \(P\), the final density of the gas becomes \(n\) times its initial value. The final pressure of the gas is (\(\gamma\) is the ratio of the specific heats of the gas at constant pressure and constant volume)
The temperature at which the rms speed of hydrogen molecules is same as the rms speed of oxygen molecules at a temperature of \(6495^\circ\)C is
The successive frequencies produced by an organ pipe are 330 Hz, 440 Hz and 550 Hz. If the speed of sound in air is 330 m/s then the length of the organ pipe is
A wire under a tension of 144 N vibrating in its fundamental mode gives 5 beats per second with a tuning fork. When the tension applied to the wire is increased to 169 N, the number of beats heard per second remains the same. The frequency of the tuning fork is
A layer of oil of thickness 5.8 cm is floating on a water layer of thickness 8 cm. If the total apparent depth is 10 cm and the refractive index of water is 3/4, then the refractive index of oil is
In the experiment of a convex lens, if the distance between the object and its real image is 90 cm and the magnification produced by the lens is 2, then the focal length of the convex lens is
The wavelength of the monochromatic light used in Young's double slit experiment is 550 nm and the screen is placed at a distance of 120 cm from the plane of the slits. If third dark fringe is formed on the screen at a distance of 1.5 mm from the central bright fringe, then the distance of separation between the two slits is
When three particles each having a positive charge \(q\) are placed at the three vertices of an equilateral triangle, then the electrostatic force between any two particles is \(F\). If a fourth particle of charge \(3q\) is placed at the midpoint of one of the sides of the triangle, then the net electrostatic force on the fourth particle due to the remaining three particles is
The charge on a parallel plate capacitor is 200 μC and its capacitance is 4 μF. If the distance between the plates of the capacitor is 2 mm, then the electric force between the plates of the capacitor is
When a cell is connected across a resistance \(R\), the current through it is 0.7 A and when the same cell is connected across a resistance \(2R\), the current through it is 0.42 A. If the same cell is connected across a resistance \(3R\), the current through it is
Two resistors of resistances 4 \(\Omega\) and 8 \(\Omega\) are connected in parallel in the left gap of the meter bridge and two resistors of resistances 8 \(\Omega\) and 4 \(\Omega\) are connected in series in the right gap of the meter bridge. The balancing length from the left end of the bridge wire is
If the time period of an alpha particle rotating in a circular path of radius 2 fermi is 3.14 \(\mu\)s, then the magnetic field induced at the centre of the circle is nearly
A galvanometer of resistance 8 \(\Omega\) gives full scale deflection for a current of 4 mA. The resistance to be connected in series to the galvanometer to convert it into a voltmeter to measure a maximum potential difference of 20 V is
If the magnetization of a bar magnet of area of cross-section 0.75 cm\(^2\) and magnetic moment 2.7 Am\(^2\) is \(4 \times 10^5\) Am\(^{-1}\), then the length of the magnet is
A wheel with 12 metallic spokes each 40 cm long is rotated with an angular speed of 15 rads\(^{-1}\) in a plane normal to the horizontal component of earth's magnetic field. If the horizontal component of earth's magnetic field at the place is \(4\times10^{-5}\) T, then the induced emf between the axle and the rim of the wheel is
A 132 V ac source is connected to a pure inductor of inductance 140 mH. If the frequency of the ac source is 50 Hz, then the current passing through the inductor is
Klystron valve is used to produce
The de Broglie wavelength associated with an electron accelerated through a potential difference of 2400 V is nearly
The distance of closest approach of an alpha particle from a nucleus when the alpha particle moves towards a nucleus with a kinetic energy 'E' is 'x'. The distance of closest approach when the alpha particle approaches the same nucleus with kinetic energy 0.4E is
If the mean life of a radioactive sample is 10 minutes, then the time (in minutes) taken for the activity of the radioactive sample to become \(\mathrm{e}^{21}\) times its initial activity is
In a nuclear fusion reaction, if the mass defect is 0.25%, then the energy released in the fusion of 400 \(\mu\)g mass of a substance is
A Zener diode of breakdown voltage 6 V is connected as shown in the circuit. The power dissipated in the Zener diode is
Five logic gates are connected as shown in the figure. If the inputs are A=C=1 and B=D=0, then the values of y1 and y2 respectively are
The height of a television transmitting antenna is 70 m. If the receiving antenna is at the ground level, then the service area covered by the transmitting antenna is nearly (Radius of the earth = 6400 km)
In Hydrogen atom, an electron jumped from an orbit of radius 2592.1 pm to another orbit of radius 211.6 pm. What is the energy difference (in J) between these two states?
Observe the elements from H(Z=1) to Ca(Z=20). The number of elements with 1, 2 and 3 unpaired electrons in their ground state is respectively
In long form of periodic table an element 'X' is present in group 'Y' in which Mn is also an element. X, Y respectively are
Identify the number of metalloids from the following: Sb, Be, P, Ge, Te, S, Cs, Tc, I
The pair of molecules having same number of lone pair of electrons on central atom is
Which of the following statement is not correct?
The slope of isobar of one mole of an ideal gas at p (atm) is 0.082 L K\(^{-1}\). What is the value of p in atm? (R=0.082 L atm mol\(^{-1}\)K\(^{-1}\))
The volume (in L) of CO2(g) obtained at STP by completely burning 10 g of 90% pure CaCO3 is approximately (molar volume of CO2 at STP=22.7L) (Assume CO2 as an ideal gas) (CaCO3=100u)
At T(K) 10 L of an ideal gas was expanded to 12 L against a pressure of 2 atm irreversibly. What is the work done by the gas?
What is the pH of 0.365% (w/V) HCl aqueous solution? (HCl=36.5 u), (log 0.365=−0.4377)
Identify the correct statements from the following
I. In CuSO\(_4\cdot5\)H\(_2\)O, only one molecule of H\(_2\)O is hydrogen bonded.
II. In BaCl\(_2\cdot2\)H\(_2\)O, water is in interstitial positions
III. In CrCl\(_3\cdot6\)H\(_2\)O, only three H\(_2\)O molecules form coordinate bonds with Cr\(^{3+}\)
Identify the correct statements
I. Lithium halides are somewhat covalent in nature
II. NaNO\(_3\) on heating gives NO\(_2\) gas
III. LiHCO\(_3\) is a solid
IV. All alkali metals form ethynides on reaction with ethyne
Which of the following compounds are correctly matched with their uses?
The correct order of atomic radii of Al, Ga, In, Tl is
Which of the following set of Oxides is not correctly matched?
Consider the following statements
Statement-I: Oxides of sulphur and nitrogen are air pollutants
Statement-II: Photochemical smog is a reducing smog
The correct answer is
An isomer of C\(_8\)H\(_{18}\) is X. This has five primary, one tertiary and one quaternary carbon. What is X?
What are X and Y in the following reaction sequence?
2-Methylbutane \(\xrightarrow{KMnO_4}\) X\(\xrightarrow{Y}\) C5H11Cl
Identify the chain isomers from the following
Consider the following statements
Statement I: Benzene undergoes electrophilic substitution with excess chlorine in the presence of anhydrous AlCl\(_3\)
Statement - II: Benzene also undergoes electrophilic substitution with chlorine in the presence of UV light.
The correct answer is
NaCl is crystallized in the presence of small quantity of SrCl\(_2\). The formula of crystallized solid is Na\(_{0.9998}\)Sr\(_{0.0001}\)Cl. The number of cationic vacancies per mole of this solid is (N=6\(\times10^{23}\) mol\(^{-1}\))
Elements A and B form two non-volatile compounds (AB\(_2\) and AB\(_4\)). When 1 g of AB\(_2\) is added to 20 g of C\(_6\)H\(_6\) (molar mass =78 gmol\(^{-1}\)) the freezing point of C\(_6\)H\(_6\) is lowered by 2.3 K. When 1 g of AB\(_4\) is added to 20 g of C\(_6\)H\(_6\), the freezing point of C\(_6\)H\(_6\) was lowered by 1.3 K. The atomic masses of A and B are respectively (K\(_f\)(C\(_6\)H\(_6\))=5.1 K kg mol\(^{-1}\))
Identify the correct statements from the following
I. In Leclanché cell, Mn\(^{2+}\) is oxidized to Mn\(^{3+}\)
II. Electrolysis of aqueous CuCl\(_2\) solution using Pt electrodes liberate Cl\(_2\) (g) at anode
III. Lead storage battery is a secondary battery
A \(\to\) P, is a zero-order reaction. At 300 K, this reaction was started with [A]=0.5 mol L\(^{-1}\). After 100 s, the concentration of A was 0.05 mol L\(^{-1}\). What is the rate constant (in mol L\(^{-1}\)s\(^{-1}\)) of this reaction?
Identify the correct statements from the following
I. Adsorption is an endothermic process.
II. Adsorption of a gas on the surface of a solid is accompanied by a decrease in enthalpy and a decrease in entropy.
III. Adsorption capacity of A, B and C gases on 1g of activated charcoal follows the order A\(>\)B\(>\)C. Their critical temperatures (T\(_c\)) follow the order T\(_c\)(A)\(>\)T\(_c\)(B)\(>\)T\(_c\)(C).
Identify the incorrect match
Arrange the following in the increasing order of oxidation number of nitrogen
A. N\(_2\)O
B. NO\(_3^-\)
C. NO
D. NO\(_2\)
Which of the following sets are correctly matched?
i. P\(_2\)O\(_3\), N\(_2\)O\(_4\) - acidic
ii. N\(_2\)O, NO - neutral
iii. SeO\(_3\), TeO\(_3\) - basic
iv. As\(_2\)O\(_3\), Sb\(_2\)O\(_3\) - amphoteric
The correct option is
Consider the following statements
Statement I: At room temperature H\(_2\)O is a liquid while H\(_2\)S is a gas
Statement II: H\(_2\)O is neutral while H\(_2\)S is acidic.
The correct answer is
The number of non-ionizable valences of Co\(^{3+}\) and Pt\(^{4+}\) ions in the complexes CoCl\(_3\cdot5\)NH\(_3\) and PtCl\(_4\cdot5\)NH\(_3\) is respectively
Permanganate titrations cannot be performed satisfactorily in presence of HCl. The reason is
The catalyst used in the preparation of high density polythene is
The hormone 'X' increases glucose levels in blood. Low levels of other hormone 'Y' causes lethargyness. What are X, Y respectively?
Which of the following is an example of antifertility drug?
Observe the following set of reactions
2-Methylpropene \(\xrightarrow{HBr, (CH_3COO)_2}\) Y
2-Methylpropene \(\xrightarrow{HBr}\) X
Correct statement regarding X and Y is
Identify the sets containing correct order against the property mentioned from the following
An alcohol X (C\(_4\)H\(_{10}\)O) reacts with Conc.HCl/ZnCl\(_2\) to give corresponding chloride. X on dehydration forms Y, which reacts with Baeyer's reagent to give Z. What is Z?
The sequence of reagents required to convert benzoic acid to n-propyl benzene is
What are X, Y, Z respectively in the following reaction sequence?
CH\(_3\)CH=CHCH\(_3\) \(\xrightarrow{X}\) CH\(_3\)COOH \(\xrightarrow{Y}\) CH\(_3\)CO-Cl \(\xrightarrow{Z, C6H5NH2}\) C\(_6\)H\(_5\)NHCOCH\(_3\)
TS EAMCET 2025 BiPC Exam Difficulty Level (Expected)
According to TG EAPCET 2025 past year trends:
Botany and Zoology (Biology) is expected to be of moderate difficulty level with mostly NCERT based questions. Plant Physiology, Human Anatomy, Genetics and Animal Diversity will be some of the most asked topics.
Physics is expected to be tough and lengthy due to the numerical problems. The most asked questions are expected from Thermodynamics and Mechanics and they might be slightly tough.
Chemistry is expected to be the easiest section and the most scoring. The questions are expected to be mostly direct with some tricky questions from Organic Chemistry. Most asked topics include Chemical Bonding, Hydrocarbons and Thermodynamics.
Quick Links:
| Subject | Expected Difficulty Level | Most Asked Topics |
| Botany | Easy to Moderate | Plant Physiology, Genetics, Cell Structure, Ecology |
| Zoology | Moderate | Human Physiology, Reproduction, Genetics, Structural Organisation in Animals |
| Physics | Moderate to Tough | Thermodynamics, Work-Energy-Power, Laws of Motion, Oscillations |
| Chemistry | Easy to Moderate | Atomic Structure, Chemical Bonding, Thermodynamics, Organic Chemistry (Hydrocarbons, Alcohols, Phenols) |
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