The JNTU, Hyderabad, conducted the TS EAMCET 2025 Engineering exam on May 2, 2025, from 9:00 AM and 12:00 PM. The TS EAMCET was conducted in online CBT mode, The exam consists of 160 MCQs, divided into 3 sections: Mathematics (80 questions), Physics (40 questions), and Chemistry (40 questions), with 1 mark for every question and no negative marking.

The TS EAMCET 2025 Shift 1 Question Paper with solution PDF is available here.

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TS EAMCET 2025 Question Paper with Solution PDF

TS EAMCET 2025 May 2 Shift 1 Question Paper with Answer Key Download PDF Check Solution
TS EAMCET 2025 May 2 Shift 1 Question Paper with Answer Key

Question 1:

If \( f(x)=\tan \left(\frac{\pi}{\sqrt{x+1}+4}\right) \) is a real valued function then the range of \( f \) is

  • (A) \( [-1,1] \)
  • (B) \( (0,1] \)
  • (C) \( [-1, \infty) \)
  • (D) \( \mathbb{R} \)

Question 2:

The range of the real valued function \( f(x)=\sin ^{-1}\left(\sqrt{x^{2}+x+1}\right) \) is

  • (A) \( \left[-\frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{\pi}{2}\right] \)
  • (B) \( \left[0, \frac{\pi}{2}\right] \)
  • (C) \( \left[\frac{\pi}{6}, \frac{\pi}{2}\right] \)
  • (D) \( \left[\frac{\pi}{3}, \frac{\pi}{2}\right] \)

Question 3:

1+(1+3)+(1+3+5)+(1+3+5+7)+... to 10 terms =

  • (A) 385
  • (B) 285
  • (C) 506
  • (D) 406

Question 4:

If the augmented matrix corresponding to the system of equations \( x+y-z=1 \), \( 2x+4y-z=0 \) and \( 3x+4y+5z=18 \) is transformed to \( \begin{bmatrix} 1 & a & 0 & -1
0 & 2 & 1 & b
0 & 0 & c & 32 \end{bmatrix} \), then

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 9
  • (D) 16

Question 5:

If \( \begin{vmatrix} 9 & 25 & 16
16 & 36 & 25
25 & 49 & 36 \end{vmatrix} = K \), then \( K, K+1 \) are the roots of the equation

  • (A) \( x^2 - 13x + 42 = 0 \)
  • (B) \( x^2 - 15x + 56 = 0 \)
  • (C) \( x^2 - 19x + 90 = 0 \)
  • (D) \( x^2 - 17x + 72 = 0 \)

Question 6:

If \( A = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & -3 & -5
-2 & 4 & -6
7 & -11 & 13 \end{bmatrix} \), then \( \sqrt{|Adj A|} = \)

  • (A) 64
  • (B) 16
  • (C) 36
  • (D) 216

Question 7:

If \( \Delta_r = \begin{vmatrix} 1 & 2 & r
3r-2 & 3r-5 & 2
0 & 3 & 3r+1 \end{vmatrix} \) (inferred), then \( \sum_{r=1}^{33} \Delta_r' = \)

(Note: Based on the answer options, the question implies a telescoping sum resulting in 0.99, likely \( \sum \frac{3{(3r-2)(3r+1)} \).)

  • (A) 0.99
  • (B) 0.33
  • (C) 0.66
  • (D) 0.55

Question 8:

If \( \frac{2+3i}{i-2} - \frac{4i-3}{3+4i} = x+iy \), then \( 3x+y = \)

  • (A) 4
  • (B) -4
  • (C) -2
  • (D) 2

Question 9:

Let \( z=x+iy \) and \( P(x,y) \) be a point on the Argand plane. If \( z \) satisfies the condition \( Arg\left(\frac{z-3i}{z+2i}\right) = \frac{\pi}{4} \), then the locus of P is

  • (A) \( x^2+y^2-y-6=0, (x,y) \neq (0,-2) \)
  • (B) \( x^2+y^2-x-y-6=0, (x,y) \neq (0,-2) \)
  • (C) \( x^2+y^2+5x-y-6=0, (x,y) \neq (0,-2) \)
  • (D) \( x^2+y^2+x-y-6=0, (x,y) \neq (0,-2) \)

Question 10:

If \( \omega \) is a complex cube root of unity and \( x = \omega^2 - \omega + 2 \) then

  • (A) \( x^2 - 4x + 7 = 0 \)
  • (B) \( x^2 + 4x + 7 = 0 \)
  • (C) \( x^2 - 2x + 4 = 0 \)
  • (D) \( x^2 + 2x + 4 = 0 \)

Question 11:

The product of all the values of \( (\sqrt{3}-i)^{\frac{3}{7}} \) is

  • (A) 8
  • (B) -8
  • (C) 8i
  • (D) -8i

Question 12:

\( \alpha, \beta \) are the roots of the equation \( \sin^2 x + b\sin x + c = 0 \). If \( \alpha + \beta = \frac{\pi}{2} \) then \( b^2 - 1 = \)

  • (A) c
  • (B) 2c
  • (C) \( c^2 \)
  • (D) \( 4c^2 \)

Question 13:

The number of integral values of 'a' for which the quadratic equation \( ax^2 + ax + 5 = 0 \) cannot have real roots is

  • (A) Infinite
  • (B) 20
  • (C) 19
  • (D) 5

Question 14:

If the roots of the equation \( 32x^3 - 48x^2 + 22x - 3 = 0 \) are in arithmetic progression, then the square of the common difference of the roots is

  • (A) \( \frac{1}{4} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{1}{16} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{1}{9} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{1}{25} \)

Question 15:

If the sum of two roots of the equation \( x^4 - 2x^3 + x^2 + 4x - 6 = 0 \) is zero then the sum of the squares of the other two roots is

  • (A) -6
  • (B) 1
  • (C) -2
  • (D) 0

Question 16:

A student has to answer a multiple-choice question having 5 alternatives in which two or more than two alternatives are correct. Then the number of ways in which the student can answer that question is

  • (A) 31
  • (B) 30
  • (C) 27
  • (D) 26

Question 17:

Number of triangles whose vertices are the points \( (x, y) \) in the XY-plane with integer coordinates satisfying \( 0 \le x \le 4 \) and \( 0 \le y \le 4 \) is

  • (A) 2300
  • (B) 2260
  • (C) 2160
  • (D) 2230

Question 18:

If all the letters of the word 'HANDLE' are permuted in all possible ways and the words (with or without meaning) thus formed are arranged in dictionary order, then the rank of the word 'HELAND' is

  • (A) 420
  • (B) 422
  • (C) 456
  • (D) 475

Question 19:

If the coefficient of \(3^{rd}\) term from the beginning in the expansion of \( \left(ax^2 - \frac{8}{bx}\right)^9 \) is equal to the coefficient of \(3^{rd}\) term from the end in the expansion of \( \left(ax - \frac{2}{bx^2}\right)^9 \) then the relation between \( a \) and \( b \) is

  • (A) \( ab = -1 \)
  • (B) \( ab = 1 \)
  • (C) \( a^5 b^5 = -2 \)
  • (D) \( a^5 b^5 = 2 \)

Question 20:

If the expression \( 5^{2n} - 48n + k \) is divisible by 24 for all \( n \in \mathbb{N} \), then the least positive integral value of k is

  • (A) 47
  • (B) 48
  • (C) 24
  • (D) 23

Question 21:

If \( \frac{x^3+3}{(x-3)^3} = a + \frac{b}{x-3} + \frac{c}{(x-3)^2} + \frac{d}{(x-3)^3} \), then \( (a+d)-(b+c) = \)

  • (A) 49
  • (B) 15
  • (C) -30
  • (D) -5

Question 22:

If \( \sin A = -\frac{60}{61} \), \( \cot B = -\frac{40}{9} \) and neither A nor B is in \( 4^{th} \) quadrant then \( 6\cot A + 4\sec B = \)

  • (A) 5
  • (B) \( \frac{26}{5} \)
  • (C) -3
  • (D) 3

Question 23:

The period of the function \( f(x) = \frac{2\sin\left(\frac{\pi x}{3}\right) \cos\left(\frac{2\pi x}{5}\right)}{3\tan\left(\frac{7\pi x}{2}\right) - 5\sec\left(\frac{5\pi x}{3}\right)} \) is

  • (A) 30
  • (B) 60
  • (C) 300
  • (D) 150

Question 24:

If \( A+B+C = 4S \) then \( \sin(2S-A) + \sin(2S-B) + \sin(2S-C) - \sin 2S = \)

  • (A) \( 4\cos\frac{A}{2}\cos\frac{B}{2}\cos\frac{C}{2} \)
  • (B) \( 4\sin\frac{A}{2}\cos\frac{B}{2}\cos\frac{C}{2} \)
  • (C) \( 4\cos\frac{A}{2}\sin\frac{B}{2}\cos\frac{C}{2} \)
  • (D) \( 4\sin\frac{A}{2}\sin\frac{B}{2}\sin\frac{C}{2} \)

Question 25:

The general solution of the equation \( \sqrt{6 - 5\cos x + 7\sin^2 x} - \cos x = 0 \) also satisfies the equation

  • (A) \( \tan x + \cot x = 2 \)
  • (B) \( \cot x + \cosec x = 1 \)
  • (C) \( \tan x + \sec x = 1 \)
  • (D) \( \sec x + \cosec x = 2 \)

Question 26:

\( \tan^{-1}\frac{3}{5} + \tan^{-1}\frac{6}{41} + \tan^{-1}\frac{9}{191} = \)

  • (A) \( \tan^{-1}\frac{9}{10} \)
  • (B) \( \tan^{-1}\frac{18}{19} \)
  • (C) \( \tan^{-1}\frac{3}{191} \)
  • (D) \( \tan^{-1}\frac{6}{205} \)

Question 27:

If \( 2\tanh^{-1}x = \sinh^{-1}\left(\frac{4}{3}\right) \) then \( \cosh^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{x}\right) = \)

  • (A) \( \log(\sqrt{2}+1) \)
  • (B) \( \log(\sqrt{2}-1) \)
  • (C) \( \log(2+\sqrt{3}) \)
  • (D) \( \log(2-\sqrt{3}) \)

Question 28:

If \( p_1, p_2, p_3 \) are the altitudes and \( a=4, b=5, c=6 \) are the sides of a triangle ABC, then \( \frac{1}{p_1^2} + \frac{1}{p_2^2} + \frac{1}{p_3^2} = \)

  • (A) \( \frac{77}{225} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{44}{225} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{308}{225} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{22}{75} \)

Question 29:

Let the angles A, B, C of a triangle ABC be in arithmetic progression. If the exradii \( r_1, r_2, r_3 \) of triangle ABC satisfy the condition \( r_3^2 = r_1 r_2 + r_2 r_3 + r_3 r_1 \), then \( b = \)

  • (A) \( \frac{2a}{\sqrt{3}} \)
  • (B) \( \sqrt{2}a \)
  • (C) \( \sqrt{3}a \)
  • (D) \( a \)

Question 30:

The position vectors of two points A and B are \( \bar{i} + 2\bar{j} + 3\bar{k} \) and \( 7\bar{i} - \bar{k} \) respectively. The point P with position vector \( -2\bar{i} + 3\bar{j} + 5\bar{k} \) is on the line AB. If the point Q is the harmonic conjugate of P, then the sum of the scalar components of the position vector of Q is

  • (A) 6
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 2
  • (D) 0

Question 31:

The point of intersection of the line joining the points \( \bar{i} + 2\bar{j} + \bar{k} \), \( 2\bar{i} - \bar{j} - \bar{k} \) and the plane passing through the points \( \bar{i}, 2\bar{j}, 3\bar{k} \) is

  • (A) \( \bar{i} + 2\bar{j} + 3\bar{k} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{1}{7}(3\bar{i} - \bar{j} + \bar{k}) \)
  • (C) \( \bar{i} - 3\bar{j} - 2\bar{k} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{1}{7}(15\bar{i} - 10\bar{j} - 9\bar{k}) \)

Question 32:

If \( \bar{a} \) and \( \bar{b} \) are two vectors such that \( |\bar{a}|=5 \), \( |\bar{b}|=12 \) and \( |\bar{a}-\bar{b}|=13 \) then \( |2\bar{a}+\bar{b}| = \)

  • (A) \( 2\sqrt{61} \)
  • (B) 15
  • (C) \( 61\sqrt{2} \)
  • (D) 17

Question 33:

If \( \bar{a} = \bar{i} - 2\bar{j} - 2\bar{k} \) and \( \bar{b} = 2\bar{i} + \bar{j} + 2\bar{k} \) are two vectors then \( (\bar{a} + 2\bar{b}) \times (3\bar{a} - \bar{b}) = \)

  • (A) \( 2\bar{i} + 6\bar{j} - 5\bar{k} \)
  • (B) \( 6\bar{i} - 2\bar{j} + 3\bar{k} \)
  • (C) \( 14\bar{i} + 7\bar{j} - 5\bar{k} \)
  • (D) \( 14\bar{i} + 42\bar{j} - 35\bar{k} \)

Question 34:

The shortest distance between the lines \( \bar{r} = (3\bar{i} - 5\bar{j} + 2\bar{k}) + t(4\bar{i} + 3\bar{j} - \bar{k}) \) and \( \bar{r} = (\bar{i} + 2\bar{j} - 4\bar{k}) + s(6\bar{i} + 3\bar{j} - 2\bar{k}) \) is

  • (A) 7
  • (B) 8
  • (C) 9
  • (D) 12

Question 35:

The mean deviation from the median for the following data is

\begin{tabular{|c|c|c|c|c|c|c|
\hline \( x_i \) & 2 & 9 & 8 & 3 & 5 & 7

\hline \( f_i \) & 5 & 3 & 1 & 6 & 6 & 1

\hline
\end{tabular

  • (A) 2
  • (B) \( \frac{8}{3} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{9}{2} \)
  • (D) 9

Question 36:

If three smallest squares are chosen at random on a chess board then the probability of getting them in such a way that they are all together in a row or in a column is

  • (A) \( \frac{73}{5208} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{1}{434} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{96}{217} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{479}{504} \)

Question 37:

If three cards are drawn randomly from a pack of 52 playing cards then the probability of getting exactly one spade card, exactly one king and exactly one card having a prime number is

  • (A) \( \frac{72}{221} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{72}{5525} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{16}{425} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{144}{5525} \)

Question 38:

Urn A contains 6 white and 2 black balls; urn B contains 5 white and 3 black balls and urn C contains 4 white and 4 black balls. If an urn is chosen at random and a ball is drawn at random from it, then the probability that the ball drawn is white is

  • (A) \( \frac{3}{8} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{5}{8} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{3}{4} \)

Question 39:

If three dice are thrown, then the mean of the sum of the numbers appearing on them is

  • (A) 58.5
  • (B) 76.66
  • (C) 71.75
  • (D) 10.5

Question 40:

If \( X \sim B(7, p) \) is a binomial variate and \( P(X=3) = P(X=5) \) then \( p = \)

  • (A) \( \frac{5-\sqrt{10}}{3} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{\sqrt{10}-2}{3} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{5-\sqrt{15}}{2} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{\sqrt{15}-3}{2} \)

Question 41:

If the points A(2,3), B(3,2) form a triangle with a variable point \( p(t, t^2) \), where t is a parameter, then the equation of the locus of the centroid of triangle ABC is

  • (A) \( 9x^2 - 30x - 3y + 20 = 0 \)
  • (B) \( 3x^2 - 10x - y + 10 = 0 \)
  • (C) \( 9y^2 - 30y - 3x + 20 = 0 \)
  • (D) \( 3y^2 - 10y - x + 10 = 0 \)

Question 42:

If \( (h,k) \) is the new origin to be chosen to eliminate first degree terms from the equation \( S = 2x^2 - xy - y^2 - 3x + 3y = 0 \) by translation and if \( \theta \) is the angle with which the axes are to be rotated about the origin in anticlockwise direction to eliminate xy-term from \( S = 0 \), then \( \tan 2\theta = \)

  • (A) \( h+k \)
  • (B) \( h-k \)
  • (C) \( hk \)
  • (D) \( -\frac{h}{3k} \)

Question 43:

A line L perpendicular to the line \( 5x-12y+6=0 \) makes positive intercept on the Y-axis. If the distance from the origin to the line L is 2 units and the angle made by the perpendicular drawn from the origin to the line L with positive X-axis is \( \theta \), then \( \tan \theta + \cot \theta = \)

  • (A) \( \frac{25}{12} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{625}{168} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{169}{60} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{1681}{360} \)

Question 44:

If a line L passing through a point A(2,3) intersects another line \( 4x-3y-19=0 \) at the point B such that \( AB=4 \), then the angle made by the line L with positive X-axis in anti-clockwise direction is

  • (A) \( \tan^{-1}\left(-\frac{3}{4}\right) \)
  • (B) \( \tan^{-1}\left(\frac{3}{4}\right) \)
  • (C) \( \frac{\pi}{4} \)
  • (D) \( -\frac{\pi}{4} \)

Question 45:

A variable straight-line L with negative slope passes through the point (4,9) and cuts the positive coordinate axes in A and B. If O is the origin, then the minimum value of OA + OB is

  • (A) 25
  • (B) 12
  • (C) 13
  • (D) 5

Question 46:

If \( 4x^2+12xy+9y^2+2gx+2fy-1=0 \) represent a pair of parallel lines then

  • (A) \( \frac{f}{g} + \frac{g}{f} + \frac{13}{6} = 0 \)
  • (B) \( f^2 + g^2 = fg \)
  • (C) \( f^2 + g^2 = 6fg \)
  • (D) \( \frac{f}{g} + \frac{g}{f} = \frac{13}{6} \)

Question 47:

If the equation of the circle passing through the points (-1,0), (-1,1), (1,1) is \( ax^2+ay^2+2gx+2fy-2=0 \) then \( a = \)

  • (A) 1
  • (B) -1
  • (C) 2
  • (D) -2

Question 48:

For the circle \( x-2=5\cos\theta \), \( y+1=5\sin\theta \) where \( \theta \) is the parameter, the line \( x=1+\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}r \), \( y=-2+\frac{r}{2} \) where \( r \) is the parameter, is a

  • (A) Chord of the circle other than diameter
  • (B) Tangent of the circle
  • (C) Diameter of the circle
  • (D) Line that does not meet the circle

Question 49:

If \( x-2y=0 \) is a tangent drawn at a point P on the circle \( x^2+y^2-6x+2y+c=0 \), then the distance of the point (6,3) from P is

  • (A) \( \sqrt{5} \)
  • (B) \( 2\sqrt{5} \)
  • (C) \( 4\sqrt{5} \)
  • (D) \( 5\sqrt{2} \)

Question 50:

If A, B are the points of contact of the tangents drawn from the point (-3,1) to the circle \( x^2+y^2-4x+2y-4=0 \), then the equation of the circumcircle of the triangle PAB is

  • (A) \( x^2+y^2-6x+2y-6=0 \)
  • (B) \( x^2+y^2-x+7=0 \)
  • (C) \( x^2+y^2+x-7=0 \)
  • (D) \( x^2+y^2+6x-2y-6=0 \)

Question 51:

If the angle between the circles \( x^2+y^2-2x+ky+1=0 \) and \( x^2+y^2-kx-2y+1=0 \) is \( \cos^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{4}\right) \) and \( k\textless0 \) then the point which lies on the radical axis of the given circles is

  • (A) \( (1,-3) \)
  • (B) \( (-1,3) \)
  • (C) \( (-1,-3) \)
  • (D) \( (1,3) \)

Question 52:

A circle C passing through the point (1,1) bisects the circumference of the circle \( x^2+y^2-2x=0 \). If C is orthogonal to the circle \( x^2+y^2+2y-3=0 \) then the centre of the circle C is

  • (A) \( \left(-\frac{5}{2}, 0\right) \)
  • (B) \( \left(\frac{5}{2}, 0\right) \)
  • (C) \( \left(0, \frac{5}{2}\right) \)
  • (D) \( \left(0, -\frac{1}{2}\right) \)

Question 53:

If the normal drawn at P(8,16) to the parabola \( y^2=32x \) meets the parabola again at Q, then the equation of the tangent drawn at Q to the parabola is

  • (A) \( x+3y+72=0 \)
  • (B) \( x-y-120=0 \)
  • (C) \( 3x-y-264=0 \)
  • (D) \( x+y-24=0 \)

Question 54:

The focal distance of a point (5,5) on the parabola \( x^2-2x-4y+5=0 \) is

  • (A) 5
  • (B) 8
  • (C) 10
  • (D) 12

Question 55:

If S and S' are the foci of an ellipse \( \frac{x^2}{169} + \frac{y^2}{144} = 1 \) and the point B lying on positive Y-axis is one end of its minor axis, then the incentre of the triangle SBS' is

  • (A) \( \left(0, \frac{10}{3}\right) \)
  • (B) \( \left(\frac{13}{3}, \frac{10}{3}\right) \)
  • (C) \( \left(\frac{10}{3}, \frac{13}{3}\right) \)
  • (D) \( \left(0, \frac{13}{3}\right) \)

Question 56:

One of the foci of an ellipse is \( (2,-3) \) and its corresponding directrix is \( 2x+y=5 \). If the eccentricity of the ellipse is \( \frac{\sqrt{5}}{3} \) then the coordinates of the other focus are

  • (A) \( (18, 5) \)
  • (B) \( (4, -2) \)
  • (C) \( (-2, -5) \)
  • (D) \( (-4, -6) \)

Question 57:

If the product of the perpendicular distances from any point on the hyperbola \( \frac{x^2}{a^2} - \frac{y^2}{b^2} = 1 \) to its asymptotes is \( \frac{36}{13} \) and its eccentricity is \( \frac{\sqrt{13}}{3} \), then \( a - b = \)

  • (A) 4
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 2
  • (D) 1

Question 58:

If A(0,3,4), B(1,5,6), C(-2,0,-2) are the vertices of a triangle ABC and the bisector of angle A meets the side BC at D, then AD =

  • (A) \( \frac{\sqrt{21}}{5} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{\sqrt{42}}{10} \)
  • (C) 10
  • (D) 4

Question 59:

If the direction cosines of two lines satisfy the equations \( 2l+m-n=0 \), \( l^2-2m^2+n^2=0 \) and \( \theta \) is the angle between the lines then \( \cos\theta = \)

  • (A) \( \frac{1}{5} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{\pi}{4} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{2}{3} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{\pi}{3} \)

Question 60:

If the equation of the plane passing through the points (2,1,2), (1,2,1) and perpendicular to the plane \( 2x-y+2z=1 \) is \( ax+by+cz+d=0 \) then \( \frac{a+b}{c+d} = \)

  • (A) 0
  • (B) 1
  • (C) -1
  • (D) 2

Question 61:

If [x] is the greatest integer function then \( \lim_{x \to 3^-} \frac{(3-|x| + \sin|3-x|) \cos(9-3x)}{|3-x|[3x-9]} = \)

  • (A) 0
  • (B) 1
  • (C) 2
  • (D) -2

Question 62:

Let 'a' be a positive real number. If a real valued function \( f(x) = \begin{cases} \frac{6^x - 3^x - 2^x + 1}{1 - \cos\left(\frac{x}{a}\right)} & if x \neq 0
\log 3 \log 4 & if x = 0 \end{cases} \) is continuous at \( x=0 \), then \( a = \)

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4

Question 63:

If \( f(x)=\sqrt{\cos ^{-1} \sqrt{1-x^{2}}} \), then \( f^{\prime}\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)= \)

  • (A) \( \sqrt{\frac{2}{\pi}} \)
  • (B) \( \sqrt{\frac{\pi}{2}} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{2}{\sqrt{\pi}} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{\sqrt{\pi}}{2} \)

Question 64:

If \( y = f(\cosh x) \) and \( f'(x) = \log(x + \sqrt{x^2-1}) \) then \( \frac{d^2 y}{dx^2} = \)

  • (A) \( \sinh x + x \cosh x \)
  • (B) \( x \sinh x \)
  • (C) \( \log(x + \sqrt{x^2+1}) \)
  • (D) \( \frac{x(2\sqrt{x^2-1}+1)}{\sqrt{x^2-1}(x^2+\sqrt{x^2-1})} \)

Question 65:

If \( (x^2-3x+2)e^{\frac{y}{x-1}} = x+2 \) then \( \left(\frac{dy}{dx}\right)_{x=0} = \)

  • (A) 2
  • (B) -2
  • (C) 1
  • (D) -1

Question 66:

If \( x = \frac{t^2}{1+t^5} \), \( y = \frac{2t^3}{1+t^5} \) and \( t \neq -1 \) is a parameter then \( \frac{dy}{dx} = \)

  • (A) \( \frac{2(3+2t^5)}{(2-3t^5)} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{2t(3-2t^5)}{(2-3t^5)} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{2t(3-2t^5)}{(2+3t^5)} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{2(3+2t^5)}{(2+3t^5)} \)

Question 67:

The acute angle between the curves \( y = 3x^2 - 2x - 1 \) and \( y = x^3 - 1 \) at their point of intersection which lies in the first quadrant is

  • (A) \( \tan^{-1}\left(\frac{2}{121}\right) \)
  • (B) \( \tan^{-1}(2) \)
  • (C) \( \tan^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{13}\right) \)
  • (D) \( \frac{\pi}{2} \)

Question 68:

If the rate of change of the slope of the tangent drawn to the curve \( y = x^3 - 2x^2 + 3x - 2 \) at the point (2,4) is k times the rate of change of its abscissa, then k =

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 6
  • (D) 8

Question 69:

If \( 1^\circ = 0.0175 \) radians, then the approximate value of \( \sec 58^\circ \) is

  • (A) 1.9899
  • (B) 1.8788
  • (C) 1.8511
  • (D) 1.9677

Question 70:

If \( f(x)=x+\log \left(\frac{x-1}{x+1}\right) \) is a well-defined real valued function then \( f \) is

  • (A) monotonically decreasing function
  • (B) monotonically increasing function
  • (C) increasing in \( (1, \infty) \) and decreasing in \( (-\infty, -1) \)
  • (D) decreasing in \( (1, \infty) \) and increasing in \( (-\infty, -1) \)

Question 71:

A real valued function \( f(x)=\left|x^{2}-3x+2\right|+2x-3 \) is defined on \( [-2,1] \). If m and M are absolute minimum and absolute maximum values of \( f \) respectively then \( M-4m= \)

  • (A) 0
  • (B) 1
  • (C) 15
  • (D) 10

Question 72:

\( \int \frac{2\sin x - 3\cos x}{4\cos x - 3\sin x} dx = \)

  • (A) \( \frac{1}{25}[17\log|4\cos x-3\sin x|-6x]+c \)
  • (B) \( \frac{1}{25}[x-18\log|4\cos x-3\sin x|]+c \)
  • (C) \( \frac{1}{25}[\log|4\cos x-3\sin x|-18x]+c \)
  • (D) \( \frac{1}{25}[17x-6\log|4\cos x-3\sin x|]+c \)

Question 73:

\( \int e^{4x}(\sin 3x - \cos 3x) dx = \)

  • (A) \( \frac{e^{4x}}{25}(7\sin 3x - \cos 3x) + c \)
  • (B) \( \frac{e^{4x}}{25}(\sin 3x - 7\cos 3x) + c \)
  • (C) \( \frac{e^{4x}}{5}(7\sin 3x + \cos 3x) + c \)
  • (D) \( \frac{e^{4x}}{5}(\sin 3x + 7\cos 3x) + c \)

Question 74:

\( \int \left( \frac{1-\log x}{1+(\log x)^2} \right)^2 dx = \)

  • (A) \( \frac{1}{1+(\log x)^2} + c \)
  • (B) \( \frac{\log x}{1+(\log x)^2} + c \)
  • (C) \( \frac{x}{1+(\log x)^2} + c \)
  • (D) \( \frac{x^2}{1+(\log x)^2} + c \)

Question 75:

If \( \int(x+2) \sqrt{x^{2}-x+2} d x=\frac{1}{3} f(x)+\frac{5}{8} g(x)+\frac{35}{16} h(x)+c \) then \( f(-1)+g(-1)+h\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)= \)

  • (A) -4
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 4
  • (D) -2

Question 76:

\( \int_{0}^{2} \sqrt{(x+3)(2-x)} d x= \)

  • (A) \( \frac{25}{8} \cos ^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{5}\right)-\frac{\sqrt{6}}{4} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{25}{8} \sin ^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{5}\right)-\frac{\sqrt{6}}{4} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{\pi}{2} \)
  • (D) \( \pi \)

Question 77:

\( \int_{0}^{\pi / 4} x^{2} \sin 2 x d x= \)

  • (A) \( \frac{\pi^{2}-2}{8} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{\pi(\pi-2)}{8} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{\pi-2}{8} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{\pi+2}{8} \)

Question 78:

\( \int_{-2 \pi}^{2 \pi} \sin ^{4} x \cos ^{6} x d x= \)

  • (A) \( \frac{3\pi}{128} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{9\pi}{32} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{9\pi}{64} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{3\pi}{64} \)

Question 79:

If \( \cos x \frac{dy}{dx} = y \sin x - 1, x \neq (2n+1)\frac{\pi}{2}, n \in \mathbb{Z} \) is the differential equation corresponding to the curve \( y = f(x) \) and \( f(0)=1 \) then \( f(x)= \)

  • (A) \( (1-x)\sec x + \tan x \)
  • (B) \( (1+x)\sec x \)
  • (C) \( (1-x)\sec x \)
  • (D) \( \sec x - x \)

Question 80:

The general solution of the differential equation \( 2dx + dy = (6xy + 4x - 3y)dx \) is

  • (A) \( 2\log|2x-1| = 3y^2 + 4y + c \)
  • (B) \( \log|3y+2| = 3x^2 - 3x + c \)
  • (C) \( \log|3y+2| = x^2 - x + c \)
  • (D) \( \log|2x-1| = 3y^2 - 4y + c \)

Question 81:

For any fixed distance, the electromagnetic force between two protons is \( 10^n \) times of the gravitational force between them. Then \( n = \)

  • (A) 26
  • (B) 13
  • (C) 39
  • (D) 36

Question 82:

If A, B and C are three different physical quantities with different dimensional formulae, then the combination which can never give a proper physical quantity is

  • (A) \( \frac{A}{BC} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{AB - C^2}{BC} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{A-C}{B} \)
  • (D) \( AC - B \)

Question 83:

The driver of a bus moving with a velocity of 72 kmph observes a boy walking across the road at a distance of 50 m in front of the bus and decelerates the bus at 5 \( ms^{-2} \) by applying brakes and is just able to avoid an accident. The reaction time of the driver is

  • (A) 4 s
  • (B) 3.5 s
  • (C) 0.5 s
  • (D) 4.5 s

Question 84:

A helicopter flying horizontally with a velocity of 288 kmph drops a bomb. If the line joining the point of dropping the bomb, and the point where bomb hits the ground makes an angle \( 45^\circ \) with the horizontal, then the height at which the bomb was dropped is (Acceleration due to gravity = \( 10 \, ms^{-2} \))

  • (A) 1320 m
  • (B) 1280 m
  • (C) 320 m
  • (D) 640 m

Question 85:

A man of mass 60 kg is standing in a lift moving up with a retardation of \( 2.8 \, ms^{-2} \). The apparent weight of the man is

  • (A) 756 N
  • (B) 168 N
  • (C) 588 N
  • (D) 420 N

Question 86:

The initial and final velocities of a body projected vertically from the ground are \( 20 \, ms^{-1} \) and \( 18 \, ms^{-1} \) respectively. The maximum height reached by the body is (Acceleration due to gravity = \( 10 \, ms^{-2} \))


Question 87:

A particle is acted upon by a force of constant magnitude such that its velocity and acceleration are always perpendicular to each other, then its

  • (A) linear momentum is constant
  • (B) kinetic energy is constant
  • (C) velocity is constant
  • (D) acceleration is constant

Question 88:

If the moment of inertia of a uniform solid cylinder about the axis of the cylinder is \( \frac{1}{n} \) times its moment of inertia about an axis passing through its midpoint and perpendicular to its length, then the ratio of the length and radius of the cylinder is

  • (A) \( \sqrt{2(3n+1)} \)
  • (B) \( \sqrt{2(3n-1)} \)
  • (C) \( \sqrt{3(2n+1)} \)
  • (D) \( \sqrt{3(2n-1)} \)

Question 89:

Two blocks of masses in the ratio \( m:n \) are connected by a light inextensible string passing over a frictionless fixed pulley. If the system of the blocks is released from rest, then the acceleration of the centre of mass of the system of the blocks is (g = acceleration due to gravity)

  • (A) \( \left(\frac{m+n}{m-n}\right)^2 g \)
  • (B) \( \left(\frac{m-n}{m+n}\right)^2 g \)
  • (C) \( \left(\frac{m+n}{m-n}\right) g \)
  • (D) \( \left(\frac{m-n}{m+n}\right) g \)

Question 90:

The amplitude of a particle executing simple harmonic motion is 6 cm. The distance of the point from the mean position at which the ratio of the potential and kinetic energies of the particle becomes 4:5 is

  • (A) 6 cm
  • (B) 4 cm
  • (C) 3 cm
  • (D) 2 cm

Question 91:

If a body is projected vertically from the surface of the earth with a speed of \( 8000 \, ms^{-1} \), then the maximum height reached by the body is (Radius of the earth = 6400 km and acceleration due to gravity = \( 10 \, ms^{-2} \))

  • (A) 1600 km
  • (B) 9600 km
  • (C) 6400 km
  • (D) 3200 km

Question 92:

If a brass sphere of radius 36 cm is submerged in a lake at a depth where the pressure is \( 10^7 \) Pa, then the change in the radius of the sphere is (Bulk modulus of brass = 60 GPa)

  • (A) \( 4 \times 10^{-2} \) cm
  • (B) \( 2 \times 10^{-3} \) cm
  • (C) \( 4 \times 10^{-3} \) cm
  • (D) \( 2 \times 10^{-2} \) cm

Question 93:

The work done in blowing a soap bubble of diameter 3 cm is (Surface tension of soap solution = 0.035 \( Nm^{-1} \))

  • (A) \( 792 \, \muJ \)
  • (B) \( 99 \, \muJ \)
  • (C) \( 396 \, \muJ \)
  • (D) \( 198 \, \muJ \)

Question 94:

If the terminal velocity of a metal sphere of mass 8 g falling through a liquid is 3 \( cms^{-1} \), then the terminal velocity of another sphere of mass 64 g made of the same metal falling through same liquid is

  • (A) \( 6 \, cms^{-1} \)
  • (B) \( 3 \, cms^{-1} \)
  • (C) \( 12 \, cms^{-1} \)
  • (D) \( 18 \, cms^{-1} \)

Question 95:

The length of a metal rod is 20 cm and its area of cross-section is \( 4 \, cm^2 \). If one end of the rod is kept at a temperature of \( 100^\circC \) and the other end is kept in ice at \( 0^\circC \), then the mass of the ice melted in 7 minutes is
(Thermal conductivity of the metal = \( 90 \, Wm^{-1}K^{-1} \) and latent heat of fusion of ice = \( 336 \times 10^3 \, Jkg^{-1} \))

  • (A) 90 g
  • (B) 67.5 g
  • (C) 22.5 g
  • (D) 45 g

Question 96:

The heat required to convert 8 g of ice at a temperature of \( -20^\circC \) to steam at \( 100^\circC \) is
[Specific heat capacity of ice = \( 2100 \, Jkg^{-1}K^{-1} \), specific heat capacity of water = \( 4200 \, Jkg^{-1}K^{-1} \), latent heat of fusion of ice = \( 336 \times 10^3 \, Jkg^{-1} \) and latent heat of steam = \( 2.268 \times 10^6 \, Jkg^{-1} \)]

  • (A) 5400 cal
  • (B) 5840 cal
  • (C) 5760 cal
  • (D) 5120 cal

Question 97:

Two moles of a gas at a temperature of \( 327^\circC \) expands adiabatically such that its volume increases by 700%. If the ratio of the specific heat capacities of the gas is \( \frac{4}{3} \), then the work done by the gas is
(Universal gas constant = \( 8.3 \, Jmol^{-1}K^{-1} \))

  • (A) 14.94 kJ
  • (B) 29.88 kJ
  • (C) 44.82 kJ
  • (D) 59.76 kJ

Question 98:

The molar specific heat of a monoatomic gas at constant pressure is
(Universal gas constant = \( 8.3 \, Jmol^{-1}K^{-1} \))

  • (A) \( 24.9 \, Jmol^{-1}K^{-1} \)
  • (B) \( 20.75 \, Jmol^{-1}K^{-1} \)
  • (C) \( 41.5 \, Jmol^{-1}K^{-1} \)
  • (D) \( 16.6 \, Jmol^{-1}K^{-1} \)

Question 99:

The fundamental frequency of transverse wave of a stretched string subjected to a tension \( T_1 \) is 300 Hz. If the length of the string is doubled and subjected to a tension of \( T_2 \), the fundamental frequency of the transverse wave in the string becomes 100 Hz, then \( T_2 : T_1 = \)
(Linear density of the string is constant)

  • (A) 1:2
  • (B) 3:4
  • (C) 2:3
  • (D) 4:9

Question 100:

Two sound waves each of intensity I are superimposed. If the phase difference between the waves is \( \frac{\pi}{2} \), then the intensity of the resultant wave is

  • (A) 2 I
  • (B) 3 I
  • (C) 4 I
  • (D) I

Question 101:

The angle of a prism made of a material of refractive index \( \sqrt{2} \) is \( 90^\circ \). The angle of incidence for a light ray on the first face of the prism such that the light ray suffers total internal reflection at the second face is

  • (A) \( 0^\circ \)
  • (B) \( 90^\circ \)
  • (C) \( 60^\circ \)
  • (D) \( 45^\circ \)

Question 102:

The total magnification produced by a compound microscope is 24 when the final image is formed at the least distance of distinct vision. If the focal length of the eyepiece is 5 cm, the magnification produced by the objective is

  • (A) 4
  • (B) 4.8
  • (C) 120
  • (D) 6

Question 103:

In Young's double slit experiment with light of wavelength \( \lambda \), the intensity of light at a point on the screen where the path difference becomes \( \frac{\lambda}{3} \) is (I is intensity of the central bright fringe)

  • (A) I
  • (B) \( \frac{I}{2} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{I}{3} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{I}{4} \)

Question 104:

A thin spherical shell of radius R and surface charge density \( \sigma \) is placed in a cube of side 5R with their centers coinciding. The electric flux through one face of the cube is (\( \epsilon_o \) = Permittivity of free space)

  • (A) \( \frac{2\pi R^2 \sigma}{3 \epsilon_o} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{\pi R^2 \sigma}{3 \epsilon_o} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{\sigma}{6 \epsilon_o} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{\sigma}{4\pi \epsilon_o R^2} \)

Question 105:

As shown in the figure, a dielectric of constant K is placed between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor and is charged to a potential V using a battery. If the dielectric is pulled out after disconnecting the battery from the capacitor, the final potential difference across the plates of the capacitor is


  • (A) \( \left(1 + \frac{1}{K}\right) 2V \)
  • (B) \( 2KV \)
  • (C) \( \frac{2V}{\left(1 + \frac{1}{K}\right)} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{V}{2}\left(1 + \frac{1}{K}\right) \)

Question 106:

The drift speed of electrons in a material is found to be \( 0.3 \, ms^{-1} \) when an electric field of \( 2 \, Vm^{-1} \) is applied across it. The electron mobility (in \( m^2 V^{-1} s^{-1} \)) in the material is

  • (A) \( 60 \times 10^{-2} \)
  • (B) \( 15 \times 10^{-2} \)
  • (C) \( 1350 \times 10^6 \)
  • (D) \( 5400 \times 10^6 \)

Question 107:

The power of an electric motor is 242 W when connected to a 220 V supply. When the motor is operated at 200 V, the current drawn by it is

  • (A) 1.21 A
  • (B) 1.1 A
  • (C) 1.5 A
  • (D) 1 A

Question 108:

A proton and an alpha particle moving with equal speeds enter normally into a uniform magnetic field. The ratio of times taken by the proton and the alpha particle to make one complete revolution in the magnetic field is

  • (A) \( 1 : \sqrt{2} \)
  • (B) \( 1 : 2 \)
  • (C) \( \sqrt{2} : 1 \)
  • (D) \( 2 : 1 \)

Question 109:

A solenoid of length 50 cm and radius 10 cm has two closely wound layers of windings 100 turns each. If a current of 2.5 A is passing through the windings, the magnetic field (in \( 10^{-4} \) T) at a point 5 cm from the axis is

  • (A) \( 2\pi \)
  • (B) 31.4
  • (C) \( 4\pi \)
  • (D) Zero

Question 110:

If the magnetic susceptibility of a substance is 0.6, then the ratio of permeability of the substance and permeability of free space is

  • (A) 6:5
  • (B) 7:4
  • (C) 8:5
  • (D) 3:5

Question 111:

The plane of a circular coil of resistance 7.5 \( \Omega \) is placed perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field. The flux \( \phi \) (in weber) through the coil varies with time t (in second) as \( \phi = 2t^2 + 3t - 2 \). The induced power in the coil at time t = 3s is

  • (A) 7.5 W
  • (B) 15 W
  • (C) 30 W
  • (D) 20 W

Question 112:

The frequency of an alternating voltage is 50 Hz. The time taken for instantaneous voltage to increase from zero to half of its peak voltage is

  • (A) \( \frac{1}{800} \) s
  • (B) \( \frac{1}{600} \) s
  • (C) \( \frac{1}{300} \) s
  • (D) \( \frac{1}{200} \) s

Question 113:

The dielectric constant of a medium is 8 and its relative permeability is 200. If an electromagnetic wave of frequency 100 MHz travels in this medium, then its wavelength is

  • (A) 15 m
  • (B) 15 cm
  • (C) 7.5 m
  • (D) 7.5 cm

Question 114:

Photons of energy 4.5 eV are incident on a photosensitive material of work function 3 eV. The de Broglie wavelength associated with the photoelectrons emitted with maximum kinetic energy is nearly

  • (A) 10 \AA
  • (B) 5 \AA
  • (C) 20 \AA
  • (D) 15 \AA

Question 115:

If the difference in the frequencies of the first and second lines of Lyman series of hydrogen atom is f, then the difference in frequencies of the first and second lines of Balmer series of hydrogen atom is

  • (A) \( \frac{3f}{4} \)
  • (B) f
  • (C) \( \frac{7f}{20} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{9f}{16} \)

Question 116:

The average energy of a neutron produced in the fission of \( ^{235}_{92}U \) is

  • (A) \( 160 \times 10^{-13} \) J
  • (B) \( 320 \times 10^{-15} \) J
  • (C) \( 320 \times 10^{-13} \) J
  • (D) \( 160 \times 10^{-15} \) J

Question 117:

If 96.875% of a radioactive substance decays in 10 days, then the half life of the substance is (in days)

  • (A) 10
  • (B) 5
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 2

Question 118:

The power gain and voltage gain of a transistor connected in common emitter configuration are 1800 and 60 respectively. If the change in the emitter current is 0.62 mA, then the change in the collector current is

  • (A) 0.60 mA
  • (B) 0.58 mA
  • (C) 0.52 mA
  • (D) 0.48 mA

Question 119:

Six logic gates are connected as shown in the figure. The values of \( y_1, y_2 \) and \( y_3 \) respectively are

  • (A) (0,1,0)
  • (B) (1,0,0)
  • (C) (0,0,1)
  • (D) (0,0,0)

Question 120:

For commercial telephonic communication, the frequency range adequate for speech signals is

  • (1) 20 Hz - 20 kHz
  • (2) 300 Hz - 3100 Hz
  • (3) 200 MHz - 600 MHz
  • (4) 300 kHz - 8000 kHz

Question 121:

The radius of stationary state (\(n=2\)) of hydrogen atom is \(x\) pm. The radius of stationary state (\(n=3\)) of \( He^{+} \) ion (in pm) is

  • (A) \( \frac{9}{8}x \)
  • (B) \( \frac{9x}{8} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{16x}{9} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{9}{16x} \)

Question 122:

When electromagnetic radiation of wavelength 310 nm falls on the surface of a metal having work function 3.55 eV, the velocity of photoelectrons emitted is \( x \times 10^5 ms^{-1} \). The value of \( x \) is (Nearest integer) (\( m_e = 9 \times 10^{-31} kg \))

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 5
  • (D) 6

Question 123:

In which of the following options, elements are correctly arranged in the increasing order of their atomic radius?

  • (A) \( Si \textless P \textless Na \textless N \textless F \)
  • (B) \( Na \textless Si \textless P \textless N \textless F \)
  • (C) \( F \textless N \textless P \textless Si \textless Na \)
  • (D) \( N \textless F \textless Si \textless P \textless Na \)

Question 124:

A, B, C, D and E are elements with atomic numbers 13, 11, 9, 7 and 16 respectively. Among these elements, ion of an element X has largest size and ion of an element Y has smallest size. X and Y are respectively (Assume that all ions have nearest inert gas configuration)

  • (A) D, A
  • (B) A, D
  • (C) E, A
  • (D) D, E

Question 125:

Identify the pair of molecules in which the hybridization of the central atom is \( sp^2 \) with bent geometry

  • (A) \( H_2O, SO_2 \)
  • (B) \( SO_2, O_3 \)
  • (C) \( H_2O, O_3 \)
  • (D) \( N_2O, H_2O \)

Question 126:

Consider the following statements.

I. In the conversion of \( O_2 \) to \( O_2^{2+} \) bond order decreases.

II. In the conversion of \( O_2 \) to \( O_2^{+} \) magnetic property is not changed.

III. In the conversion of \( O_2 \) to \( O_2^{+} \) bond length decreases.

IV. \( O_2^{2-} \) and \( B_2 \) have same bond order.

Identify the correct statements

  • (A) I \& III only
  • (B) II \& III only
  • (C) III \& IV only
  • (D) I \& IV only

Question 127:

The RMS velocity of dihydrogen is \( \sqrt{7} \) times more than that of dinitrogen. If \( T_{H_2} \) and \( T_{N_2} \) are the temperatures of dihydrogen and dinitrogen, then the correct relationship between them is

  • (A) \( T_{H_2} = T_{N_2} \)
  • (B) \( T_{H_2} \textgreater T_{N_2} \)
  • (C) \( T_{H_2} = \sqrt{7} T_{N_2} \)
  • (D) \( T_{H_2} = \frac{T_{N_2}}{2} \)

Question 128:

Which of the following solution has highest amount of solute?

  • (A) 1.0 L of 0.25 M \( Na_2CO_3 \)
  • (B) 0.25 L of 0.2 M \( Na_2SO_4 \)
  • (C) 0.5 L of 1.0 M \( KMnO_4 \)
  • (D) 0.75 L of 0.5 M \( (NH_2)_2CO \)

Question 129:

At 298 K, the enthalpy change (in kJ) for the reaction given below is: \( CH_4(g) + O_2(g) \to C(s) + 2H_2O(l) \)
(Given: \( H_2(g) + \frac{1}{2}O_2(g) \to H_2O(l); \Delta H^\ominus = -286 kJ \) \( C(s) + O_2(g) \to CO_2(g); \Delta H^\ominus = -394 kJ \) \( CH_4(g) + 2O_2(g) \to CO_2(g) + 2H_2O(l); \Delta H^\ominus = -890 kJ \))

  • (A) +496
  • (B) -496
  • (C) -1284
  • (D) +680

Question 130:

For the reaction \( N_2O_4(g) \rightleftharpoons 2NO_2(g) \), the correct relation between degree of dissociation (\(\alpha\)) of \( N_2O_4(g) \) and equilibrium constant, \( K_p \) is (P = total pressure of mixture)

  • (A) \( \alpha = \frac{K_p}{4+K_p} \)
  • (B) \( \alpha = \frac{K_p}{4+K_p} \)
  • (C) \( \alpha = \left( \frac{K_p/P}{4 + K_p/P} \right)^{1/2} \)
  • (D) \( \alpha = \left( \frac{K_p}{4+K_p} \right)^{1/2} \)

Question 131:

Oxidation state of hydrogen in compound X is -1 and in compound Y is +1. X and Y are respectively

  • (A) \( LiAlH_4, H_2O \)
  • (B) \( NH_3, NaH \)
  • (C) \( CH_4, H_2O \)
  • (D) \( H_2S, NaBH_4 \)

Question 132:

Match the following

\begin{tabular{|l|l|l|l|
\hline
& List - 1 (Chemical) & & List - 2 (Use)

\hline
A & KOH & I & Coolant

\hline
B & Na(l) & II & Antacid

\hline
C & Li & III & Electrochemical cells

\hline
D & Mg(OH)\(_2\) & IV & Absorbent for CO\(_2\)

\hline
\end{tabular

  • (A) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • (B) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
  • (C) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • (D) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Question 133:

When burnt in excess of oxygen, sodium forms a compound X and potassium forms a compound Y. The magnetic natures of X and Y respectively are

  • (A) Both X and Y are paramagnetic in nature
  • (B) X is diamagnetic and Y is paramagnetic in nature
  • (C) X is paramagnetic and Y is diamagnetic in nature
  • (D) Both X and Y are diamagnetic in nature

Question 134:

The correct order of atomic radii of group 13 elements is

  • (A) Al \( \textgreater \) Tl \( \textgreater \) Ga \( \textgreater \) In
  • (B) Al \( \textgreater \) Ga \( \textgreater \) In \( \textgreater \) Tl
  • (C) Tl \( \textgreater \) In \( \textgreater \) Ga \( \textgreater \) Al
  • (D) Tl \( \textgreater \) In \( \textgreater \) Al \( \textgreater \) Ga

Question 135:

Observe the following oxides. The number of amphoteric oxides from the given list is
\( CO, B_2O_3, SiO_2, PbO_2, Ga_2O_3, SnO, PbO, CO_2 \)

  • (A) 3
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 5
  • (D) 6

Question 136:

Among the following compounds, which one is not primarily responsible for depletion of ozone layer in stratosphere?

  • (A) \( NO \)
  • (B) \( CF_2Cl_2 \)
  • (C) \( CH_4 \)
  • (D) \( Cl_2 \)

Question 137:

Consider the following sequence of reactions. In 'Z' the number of sp\(^3\) carbons is 'a' and sp\(^2\) carbons is 'b'. Value of (a + b) is

  • (A) 8
  • (B) 7
  • (C) 6
  • (D) 9

Question 138:

Which one of the following represents hyperconjugation effect?

  • (A)  
  • (B) 
  • (C) 
  • (D) 

Question 139:

Which of the following compounds will be suitable for estimation of nitrogen by Kjeldahl's method?

  • (A) I \& V only
  • (B) I, II, III only
  • (C) II \& V only
  • (D) III \& IV only

Question 140:

For the alkyne with formula \( C_6H_{10} \), the number of alkynes with acidic hydrogens is \( x \) and number of alkynes with no acidic hydrogens is \( y \). \( x \) and \( y \) are respectively

  • (A) 2, 5
  • (B) 3, 4
  • (C) 4, 3
  • (D) 5, 2

Question 141:

A substance has a density of \( 2 \, g cm^{-3} \). It crystallizes in the fcc crystal with an edge length of 600 pm. The molar mass of the substance (in \( g mol^{-1} \)) is (\( N_A = 6 \times 10^{23} \, mol^{-1} \))

  • (A) 54.8
  • (B) 64.8
  • (C) 74.8
  • (D) 84.7

Question 142:

Observe the following statements.

Statement - I: The boiling point of 0.1 M urea solution is less than that of 0.1 M KCl solution.

Statement - II: Elevation of boiling point is inversely proportional to molar mass of solute.

The correct answer is

  • (A) Both statements I and II are correct
  • (B) Statement I is correct, but statement II is not correct
  • (C) Statement I is not correct, but statement II is correct
  • (D) Both statements I and II are not correct

Question 143:

At 298 K, if emf of the cell corresponding to the reaction, \( Zn(s) + 2H^+ (aq) \to Zn^{2+} (0.01 M) + H_2 (g) \) (1 atm) is 0.28 V, then the pH of the solution at the hydrogen electrode is \( \left( \frac{2.303 RT}{F} = 0.06 V \right) \), \( E^0_{Zn^{2+}|Zn} = -0.76 V \)

  • (A) 8
  • (B) 7
  • (C) 9
  • (D) 10

Question 144:

For the reaction \( R \to P \), half life is independent of initial concentration of the reactant, R. Which one of the following graphs is not correct for this reaction?

  • (A)
  • (B)
  • (C)
  • (D)

Question 145:

Which of the following is not correct about Freundlich adsorption isotherm?

  • (A) \( \frac{x}{m} = k p^{1/n} (n \textgreater 1) \)
  • (B) Extent of adsorption of gas is more at high temperature than at low temperature
  • (C) \( \frac{1}{n} \) represents the slope of the isotherm (log-log plot)
  • (D) \( \log \frac{x}{m} = \log k + \frac{1}{n} \log p \) holds good over a limited range of pressures

Question 146:

Which of the following is not related to extraction of copper?

  • (A) \( 2Cu_2S + 3O_2 \to 2Cu_2O + 2SO_2 \)
  • (B) \( 2FeS + 3O_2 \to 2FeO + 2SO_2 \)
  • (C) \( FeO + SiO_2 \to FeSiO_3 \)
  • (D) \( SiO_2 + CaO \to CaSiO_3 \)

Question 147:

Phosphorus on reaction with sulphuryl chloride gives a compound X, which on complete hydrolysis gives Y. X and Y are respectively

  • (A) \( PCl_3, H_3PO_3 \)
  • (B) \( PCl_5, POCl_3 \)
  • (C) \( PCl_5, H_3PO_4 \)
  • (D) \( PCl_3, H_3PO_2 \)

Question 148:

Xenon hexafluoride on partial hydrolysis gives 'X' and HF. The shape of 'X' is

  • (A) Pyramidal
  • (B) Tetrahedral
  • (C) Square pyramidal
  • (D) Linear

Question 149:

Which of the following pairs of oxoacids has basicity as 2?

  • (A) \( H_3PO_3, H_2SO_4 \)
  • (B) \( H_3PO_2, H_2SO_3 \)
  • (C) \( H_3PO_4, H_3PO_2 \)
  • (D) \( H_2S_2O_8, H_3PO_2 \)

Question 150:

In acidic medium one mole each of \( MnO_4^- \) and \( Cr_2O_7^{2-} \) is reduced by x and y moles of ferrous ions. The sum of x and y is

  • (A) 14
  • (B) 12
  • (C) 10
  • (D) 11

Question 151:

Which one of the following is not an ambidentate ligand?

  • (A) \( CN \)
  • (B) \( SCN^- \)
  • (C) \( SO_4^{2-} \)
  • (D) \( NO_2^- \)

Question 152:

'X' is a polymer, which is mainly used for making unbreakable cups and laminated sheets. The monomers of 'X' are

  • (A) Urea and formaldehyde
  • (B) Ethylene glycol and phthalic acid
  • (C) Phenol and formaldehyde
  • (D) 1,3-Butadiene and styrene

Question 153:

Which of the following hormones is an example of polypeptide?

  • (A) Epinephrine
  • (B) Insulin
  • (C) Estrogen
  • (D) Androgen

Question 154:

The structure of which artificial sweetener contains aspartic acid and phenylalanine parts?

  • (A) Saccharin
  • (B) Sucralose
  • (C) Alitame
  • (D) Aspartame

Question 155:

Which of the following is the most reactive towards \( S_N1 \) mechanism?

  • (A)
  • (B)
  • (C)
  • (D)

Question 156:

\( (CH_3)_3CH \xrightarrow{KMnO_4} X \xrightarrow[573K]{Cu} Y \). The number of \( sp^3 \) and \( sp^2 \) carbons in Y are respectively

  • (A) 3, 1
  • (B) 1, 3
  • (C) 2, 2
  • (D) 4, 0

Question 157:

Consider the following reaction sequence. \( CH_3CHO \xrightarrow[(ii) H_2O / H^+]{(i) CH_3MgBr} (A) \xrightarrow{H_2SO_4, \Delta} (B) \xrightarrow[(ii) H_2O_2 / OH^-]{(i) B_2H_6} (C) \)
(A) and (C) are

  • (A) Functional isomers
  • (B) Metamers
  • (C) Optical isomers
  • (D) Position isomers

Question 158:

The increasing order of acidic strength of the following in aqueous solution is


  • (A) IV \( \textless \) II \( \textless \) III \( \textless \) I
  • (B) I \( \textless \) III \( \textless \) II \( \textless \) IV
  • (C) I \( \textless \) II \( \textless \) III \( \textless \) IV
  • (D) III \( \textless \) I \( \textless \) II \( \textless \) IV

Question 159:

The increasing order of boiling points of the following is


  • (A) I \( \textless \) III \( \textless \) II \( \textless \) IV
  • (B) III \( \textless \) I \( \textless \) II \( \textless \) IV
  • (C) I \( \textless \) IV \( \textless \) III \( \textless \) II
  • (D) III \( \textless \) I \( \textless \) IV \( \textless \) II

Question 160:

The major products P and Q from the following reactions are

Reaction 1: \( P \leftarrow[(ii) H_2O]{(i) LiAlH_4} C_6H_5CONH_2 \)
Reaction 2: \( C_6H_5CONH_2 \xrightarrow{Br_2 / NaOH} Q \)

  • (A) \( P = C_6H_5NH_2 \); \( Q = C_6H_5CH_2NH_2 \)
  • (B) \( P = C_6H_5CH_2NH_2 \); \( Q = C_6H_5NH_2 \)
  • (C) \( P = C_6H_5-CH_2-NH_2 \); \( Q = C_6H_5COONa \)
  • (D) \( P = C_6H_5CN \); \( Q = C_6H_5Br \)

TS EAMCET 2025 Expected Difficulty Level

The TS EAMCET 2025 Engineering exam is expected to follow a similar pattern as the previous years, with a well-balanced question distribution among all three subjects: Mathematics, Physics, and Chemistry.

As per the previous years’ analysis, the difficulty level is likely to be easy to moderate, with certain sections demanding high conceptual clarity and time management.

TS EAMCET Difficulty Level – Subject-wise (Expected)

Mathematics

Parameter Details
Expected Difficulty Moderate to Lengthy
Key Topics
  • Calculus
  • Algebra
  • Coordinate Geometry
  • Vectors
Nature of Questions Questions are expected to be conceptual and lengthy, with moderate calculations
Previous year Trend (TS EAMCET 2024) 48% of students rated it as the toughest section

Physics

Parameter Details
Expected Difficulty Moderate
Key Topics
  • Thermodynamics
  • Current Electricity
  • Kinematics
Nature of Questions Questions are expected to be Concept-based, mixed with formula-driven problems
Previous year Trend (TS EAMCET 2024) 40% questions were rated conceptual, 35% formulaic

Chemistry

Parameter Details
Expected Difficulty Easy to Moderate
Key Topics
  • Organic Chemistry
  • Surface Chemistry
  • Environmental
Nature of Questions Questions will be mostly direct and NCERT-based
Previous Year Trend (TS EAMCET 2024) 60% of questions were factual and memory-based

TS EAMCET 2025 Expected Cut-off

The TS EAMCET 2025 cut-off marks are the minimum marks required by the candidates to get admitted to the best engineering colleges in Telangana. Cut-off varies every year depending on factors like the number of candidates, paper difficulty level, number of seats available, and trends of the previous year.

TS EAMCET 2025 College-Wise Cut-off (General Category)

College Name Expected Closing Rank (All Branches)
JNTU Hyderabad (JNTUH) 1 – 4,000
Osmania University - College of Engineering (OUCE) 1 – 5,000
Chaitanya Bharathi Institute of Technology (CBIT) 500 – 6,000
Vasavi College of Engineering, Hyderabad 1,500 – 7,000
VNR Vignana Jyothi Institute of Engineering & Tech 2,000 – 8,000
Gokaraju Rangaraju Institute of Engineering & Tech 2,500 – 9,000
Mahatma Gandhi Institute of Technology (MGIT) 3,000 – 10,000
CVR College of Engineering 3,000 – 11,000
Malla Reddy College of Engineering (Autonomous) 4,000 – 13,000
Institute of Aeronautical Engineering (IARE) 4,500 – 14,000
Anurag University (formerly CVSR) 5,000 – 15,000
CMR College of Engineering and Technology 5,500 – 16,000
Keshav Memorial Institute of Technology (KMIT) 2,000 – 7,000
Sreenidhi Institute of Science & Technology (SNIST) 3,000 – 9,000