TG EDCET (Telangana State Education Common Entrance Test) is a state-level entrance exam conducted by Osmania University, Hyderabad on behalf of the Telangana State Council of Higher Education (TSCHE). It is the gateway for admission into 2-year B.Ed. (Bachelor of Education) regular courses in colleges of education across Telangana.
The TG EDCET 2025 exam consists of 150 multiple-choice questions divided into three parts—General English (25 marks), General Knowledge & Teaching Aptitude (25 marks), and Subject-Specific Content (100 marks)—with a total duration of 2 hours in online mode.
TS EDCET 2025 Question Paper with Solutions PDF Shift 1
Question 1:
If \(\log{\left(\frac{x+y}{3}\right)} = \frac{1}{2} \left(\log{x} + \log{y}\right)\) then the value of \(\frac{x}{y} + \frac{y}{x}\) is?
Question 2:
The number of positive divisors of 68600 is
- (A) 48
- (B) 24
- (C) 18
- (D) 8
Question 3:
Evaluate \(\sqrt[3]{1372} \times \sqrt[3]{1458}\)
- (A) 120
- (B) 126
- (C) 130
- (D) 136
Question 4:
If A = { x : x is a letter of the word MISSISSIPPI}, then \( n(A) = \)
Question 5:
Gopi sold a watch to Ibrahim at 12% gain and Ibrahim sold it to John at a loss of 5%. If John paid ₹ 1,330, then find how much did Gopi sell it?
- (A) ₹ 1400
- (B) ₹ 1500
- (C) ₹ 1600
- (D) ₹ 1700
Question 6:
Rani read \(\frac{3}{5}\) of a book. If she finds that there are still 80 pages left to read, then the total number of pages in the book is.
- (A) 150
- (B) 200
- (C) 250
- (D) 300
Question 7:
The average of the squares of the first 50 natural numbers is
- (A) \( \dfrac{1817}{2} \)
- (B) \( \dfrac{1717}{2} \)
- (C) \( \dfrac{1517}{2} \)
- (D) \( \dfrac{1617}{2} \)
Question 8:
Find the simple interest on ₹ 15,000 at the rate of 8% per annum for 2 years (in Rupees)
- (A) 4200
- (B) 2400
- (C) 2500
- (D) 2200
Question 9:
The roots of the equation \( x^4 - 5x^2 + 4 = 0 \) are
- (A) -2, 1, -2, -1
- (B) 2, -1, -2, 1
- (C) -2, -1, -1, -2
- (D) 2, 1, 1, 2
Question 10:
If \[ \frac{3}{x + y} + \frac{12}{2x - y} = \frac{7}{3} and \frac{6}{x + y} + \frac{18}{2x - y} = \frac{11}{3}, then x^2 + y^2 = \]
- (A) 34
- (B) 41
- (C) 25
- (D) 7
Question 11:
For \((k \neq 0)\), if the quadratic equation \(kx(x - 2) + 6 = 0\) has two equal roots, then find the value of \(k\).
Question 12:
If \(p(x) = 4x^{11} - 8x^9 + 7x^5 + 6x^3 + 4x^2 + 5x + 6\), then the number of zeros is ______ .
Question 13:
If \( \sin x = \dfrac{3}{5} \), then \( \tan x + \cot x = \)
- (A) \( \dfrac{12}{5} \)
- (B) \( \dfrac{5}{12} \)
- (C) \( \dfrac{25}{12} \)
- (D) \( \dfrac{12}{25} \)
Question 14:
The median of the given data is
89, 45, 56, 67, 89, 45, 78, 45, 78, 45, 67
- (A) 67.5
- (B) 134.5
- (C) 67
- (D) 56
Question 15:
The area of the triangle whose vertices are A(2, 3), B(−1, 0) and C(2, −4) (in square units) is
- (A) 11.5
- (B) 10
- (C) 10.5
- (D) 11
Question 16:
Find the total surface area of the cuboid if length is 12 cm, breadth 8 cm and height is 10 cm (in cubic cm.)
- (A) 792
- (B) 692
- (C) 592
- (D) 562
Question 17:
Match the following:
![]()
- (A) i - d, ii - a, iii - c, iv - b
- (B) i - a, ii - b, iii - c, iv - d
- (C) i - d, ii - c, iii - b, iv - a
- (D) i - d, ii - c, iii - a, iv - b
Question 18:
A sector of a circle with radius 14 cm makes an angle 90° at the centre. Then the perimeter of the sector is (in cm).
- (A) 14 + 7π
- (B) 7 + 14π
- (C) 7 + 28π
- (D) 28 + 7π
Question 19:
If two unbiased dice are thrown at a time, then find the probability of getting the sum of the number on the dice is 10?
- (A) \( \frac{1}{6} \)
- (B) \( \frac{1}{12} \)
- (C) \( \frac{1}{9} \)
- (D) \( \frac{1}{8} \)
Question 20:
One card is drawn from a well shuffled deck of 52 cards. Then the probability that the card will be a face card is ________
- (A) \( \frac{1}{13} \)
- (B) \( \frac{3}{13} \)
- (C) \( \frac{5}{13} \)
- (D) \( \frac{7}{13} \)
Question 21:
The resistor of resistance \(R\) is connected between the terminals of a cell of emf \(E\) and internal resistance \(r\). The current \(I\) through the circuit is
- (A) \(\frac{E}{r}\)
- (B) \(\frac{E}{R + r}\)
- (C) \(\frac{R + r}{E}\)
- (D) \(\frac{E}{R + r}\)
Question 22:
Which waves are used in the device 'SONAR'?
- (A) Audible waves
- (B) Ultrasound waves
- (C) Infrasound waves
- (D) Light waves
Question 23:
If 5A current flows through an electric iron, it produces 50J heat in one second, the potential across the electric iron will be
- (A) 10V
- (B) 0.1V
- (C) 225V
- (D) 2.25V
Question 24:
Coal fired power plants emit
- (A) Magnesium (Mg)
- (B) Aluminium (Al)
- (C) Mercury (Hg)
- (D) Silicon (Si)
Question 25:
Blue planet is \hspace{1cm} .
- (A) Earth
- (B) Mars
- (C) Venus or Saturn
- (D) Jupiter
Question 26:
If temperature of warm water is 40°C Celsius and that of warm milk is 95°F Fahrenheit, which one of the following sentences is true?
- (A) Milk has little greater temperature than water and warm.
- (B) Both have same temperature.
- (C) Milk has lesser temperature than water.
- (D) Milk has higher temperature than water and hot.
Question 27:
1 Newton = ______ dyne
- (A) \( 10^3 \)
- (B) \( 10^4 \)
- (C) \( 10^5 \)
- (D) \( 10^6 \)
Question 28:
The temperature of water at the bottom of a large waterfall is higher than that of the water at the top, because
- (A) The falling water absorbs heat from the sun.
- (B) The water at the bottom has greater potential energy.
- (C) The kinetic energy of the falling water is converted into heat.
- (D) Rocks on the bed of the river give out heat.
Question 29:
Which of the following elements is highly reactive?
- (A) K (Potassium)
- (B) Ag (Argentum)
- (C) Al (Aluminium)
- (D) Au (Aurum)
Question 30:
Choose the correct statements of the following.
(i) Bases would be soapy when touched.
(ii) Malic acid is present in apples.
(iii) Stearic acid is present in fats.
(iv) Tooth paste is acidic in nature.
- (A) \( (i) \& (ii) \)
- (B) \( (i), (ii) \& (iii) \)
- (C) \( (ii), (iii) \& (iv) \)
- (D) \( (iv) \, only \)
Question 31:
Which of the following is NOT a fat soluble?
- (A) Vitamin - A
- (B) Vitamin - C
- (C) Vitamin - D
- (D) Vitamin - E
Question 32:
What is the characteristic feature of Eutrophic Lake?
- (A) Low level of nutrients
- (B) Little organic matter
- (C) Low productivity
- (D) Very rich in nutrients
Question 33:
The contraction and expansion movement of the wall of food pipe is known as:
- (A) Peristaltic movement
- (B) Reverse peristaltic movement
- (C) Digestion
- (D) Nutrition
Question 34:
Which of the following cell organelle does not contain DNA?
- (A) Mitochondria
- (B) Nucleus
- (C) Chloroplast
- (D) Lysosome
Question 35:
Which of the following pairs of organs is an example of analogous organs?
- (A) Forelimbs of a human & bird.
- (B) Wings of Butterfly and Bird.
- (C) Heart of human & fish.
- (D) Leaves & tendrils of pea plant.
Question 36:
What is the main cause of acid rain?
- (A) Emission of carbon dioxide from vehicles.
- (B) Release of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) from refrigerators.
- (C) Combustion of fossil fuels, releasing sulphur dioxide, nitrogen oxides.
- (D) Deforestation and land use changes.
Question 37:
Red Data Book contains data of ______ .
(A) Rare species
(B) Endangered species
(C) Fossils
(D) Vulnerable species
- (A) 2, 3 & 4 are correct
- (B) 1 & 3 are correct
- (C) 3 & 4 are correct
- (D) 1, 2 & 4 are correct
Question 38:
Arrange the following living organisms in food chain in CORRECT order.
- (A) Grass → Frog → Snake → Grasshopper → Eagle
- (B) Grass → Frog → Grasshopper → Snake → Eagle
- (C) Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake → Eagle
- (D) Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Eagle → Snake
Question 39:
The number of sex chromosomes in every human cell.
- (A) 22 pairs
- (B) 23 pairs
- (C) 1 pair
- (D) 2 pairs
Question 40:
One of the following is NOT a better option to save the environment from plastics.
- (A) Recycle
- (B) Reduce
- (C) Reuse
- (D) Recover
Question 41:
Which of the following are the second order land forms?
- (A) Mountains, Oceans and Plains
- (B) Plains, Plateaus and Continents
- (C) Mountains, Plains and Plateaus
- (D) Plateaus, Rivers and Plains
Question 42:
Match the following.
![]()
- (A) (A)-(a); (B)-(c); (C)-(d); (D)-(b)
- (B) (A)-(a); (B)-(c); (C)-(b); (D)-(c)
- (C) (A)-(b); (B)-(a); (C)-(c); (D)-(d)
- (D) (A)-(b); (B)-(c); (C)-(d); (D)-(a)
Question 43:
Tamil Nadu state receives low amount of rainfall by south west monsoon because
- (A) due to location in rain shadow area
- (B) located in coastal area
- (C) located near to rayalaseema region
- (D) located away from coastal area
Question 44:
Match List-I with List-II and select correct answer using code given
![]()
- (A) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
- (B) a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2
- (C) a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2
- (D) a-4, b-1, c-3, d-3
Question 45:
The ‘steppes’ in Eurasia are
- (A) Tropical grass lands
- (B) Temperate grass lands
- (C) Tropical deciduous forests
- (D) Temperate evergreen forests
Question 46:
This metal that was not used by the people of the Indus Valley Civilization is
- (A) Copper
- (B) Silver
- (C) Tin
- (D) Iron
Question 47:
The chronological order of the following is
1. Formation of USSR.
2. Japan’s attack on Pearl Harbor.
3. Nazi party came to power in Germany.
4. Germany’s attack on USSR.
- (A) 1, 2, 3, 4
- (B) 1, 3, 2, 4
- (C) 2, 1, 4, 3
- (D) 3, 1, 4, 2
Question 48:
Arrange the following events in chronological order:
- (A) Mahatma Gandhi’s return to India
- (B) Passing of Rowlatt Act
- (C) Ahmedabad Mill Worker’s movement
- (D) Launch of Champaran Satyagraha
Question 49:
Establishment year of League of Nations
- (A) 1921
- (B) 1918
- (C) 1920
- (D) 1919
Question 50:
The writer of Gatha Saptasathi
- (A) Rudra Varma
- (B) Simuka
- (C) Hala
- (D) Balasri
Question 51:
The Article 356 of the Indian constitution deals with
- (A) Financial Emergency
- (B) President Rule
- (C) Grants-in-aids
- (D) Finance Commission
Question 52:
Arrange the following in chronological order.
1) Economic liberalisation.
2) Implementation of Mandal Commission recommendations.
3) End of Emergency.
4) Launch of operation Barga.
- (A) 2, 1, 4, 3
- (B) 3, 4, 2, 1
- (C) 4, 2, 1, 3
- (D) 3, 1, 4, 2
Question 53:
The year in which the Criminal Legal Amendment Act (Nirbhaya Act) was implemented by the Central Government is
- (A) 2013
- (B) 2014
- (C) 2012
- (D) 2015
Question 54:
The government shall give free and compulsory education to the children between 6 years to 14 years. This is a part of the following right
- (A) Right to Education and Culture
- (B) Right to Life
- (C) Right against Exploitation
- (D) Right to Equality
Question 55:
The part of the Telangana Legislative Council members being elected by the teachers is
- (A) \( \frac{1}{12} \) th
- (B) \( \frac{1}{6} \) th
- (C) \( \frac{1}{3} \) rd
- (D) \( \frac{1}{4} \) th
Question 56:
Dearness Allowance is paid to the government employees using
- (A) National income
- (B) Per capita income
- (C) Wholesale price index
- (D) Consumer price index
Question 57:
This is an example of a foreign multinational company
- (A) Ranbaxy
- (B) Asian Paints
- (C) Sundaram Fasteners
- (D) Cargill Foods
Question 58:
Identify the correct statements related to the impact of Industrialisation.
I. It created employment opportunities in urban areas.
II. It led to significant environmental pollution.
III. It decreased the population of urban areas.
IV. It made rural agriculture obsolete.
Question 59:
Identify the final good from the following.
- (A) Idli made by a cook in a family
- (B) Wheat produced and sold by the farmer to the floor mill
- (C) Shirt buttons sold by a shopkeeper to a tailor
- (D) Paper sold by a factory to a book binder
Question 60:
GST is a
- (A) Direct tax levied on income.
- (B) Single tax replacing multiple indirect taxes.
- (C) Tax on wealth.
- (D) State-level direct tax.
Question 61:
The most important characteristic of an effective teacher is
- (A) knowledge in the subject matter.
- (B) knowledge of teaching methods.
- (C) commitment to the learner.
- (D) knowledge of evaluation.
Question 62:
During the course of teaching, the teacher should take the students from
known to the known.
- (A) known to the known.
- (B) known to the unknown.
- (C) unknown to the known.
- (D) unknown to the unknown.
Question 63:
Complete silence in the classroom is an indication of
- (A) Poor management of class room
- (B) Lack of motivation
- (C) Lack of interest
- (D) Fear of punishment
Question 64:
Students learn better if they were
- (A) Taught in their mother tongue
- (B) Punished for their errors
- (C) Taught in foreign language
- (D) Imposing strict discipline
Question 65:
Which one of the following is considered as motivated teaching?
- (A) Students taking notes
- (B) Maximum attendance of the students.
- (C) Students maintain silence in the class.
- (D) Students asking questions.
Question 66:
Those teachers who are popular among the students?
- (A) develop intimacy with them.
- (B) help them to solve their problems.
- (C) award good marks to them.
- (D) punish them in the class.
Question 67:
Remedial teaching is meant for
- (A) intelligent students.
- (B) economically affluent students.
- (C) students with learning difficulties.
- (D) girl students.
Question 68:
The Prime objective of conducting examinations in schools is
- (A) to promote discipline among the students.
- (B) to know whether the objectives of teaching have been achieved.
- (C) to promote reading habit among the students.
- (D) to promote leadership qualities among the students.
Question 69:
Which one among the following is a teacher centred method of teaching?
- (A) Problem solving method.
- (B) Project method.
- (C) Observation method.
- (D) Lecture method.
Question 70:
I prefer teaching profession, because
- (A) it's a leisurely job.
- (B) most remunerative.
- (C) to build the nation.
- (D) to enter into politics.
Question 71:
Teacher should enable the student to
- (A) express freely.
- (B) maintain silence.
- (C) rote learning.
- (D) score more marks.
Question 72:
A teacher should inculcate among the students
- (A) Imposed discipline.
- (B) Self-discipline.
- (C) Robotic characteristics.
- (D) Split personality.
Question 73:
How could you handle a student who is finding it difficult to understand the concept?
- (A) Making the student to stand on the bench.
- (B) Asking the student to write the concept 20 times.
- (C) Asking the student to attend the remedial class.
- (D) By giving corporal punishment.
Question 74:
Teaching should be
- (A) Subject centric
- (B) Student centric
- (C) Teacher centric
- (D) Examination centric
Question 75:
Conceptual clarity is possible, provided if teaching takes place in
- (A) Mother tongue
- (B) Foreign language
- (C) Regional language
- (D) National languages
Question 76:
The school environment that is congenial for children with special needs is
- (A) special schools
- (B) integrated schools
- (C) inclusive schools
- (D) normal schools
Question 77:
The main purpose of giving home-work to the students is
- (A) Keeping them busy at home.
- (B) To help the students to review what they have learned.
- (C) To punish them.
- (D) To reduce teachers work load.
Question 78:
While teaching, if there is some disturbance in the class, then as a teacher what you should do?
- (A) Give a pause and continue.
- (B) Not bother for what is happening in the classroom.
- (C) Punish those who are causing disturbance.
- (D) Send out the students who are causing disturbance.
Question 79:
In which teaching method is the learner’s participation most passive?
- (A) Discussion method.
- (B) Lecture method.
- (C) Demonstration method.
- (D) Project method.
Question 80:
To improve the achievement levels among the students, it is necessary
- (A) to provide high salary to teachers.
- (B) to change the curriculum.
- (C) to change the teaching methods often.
- (D) to evaluate students continuously.
Question 81:
Effective teacher education programmes recognize the complexities of teaching and learning. Teachers are not mere transmitters of knowledge, but facilitators of learning. The national Council for Teachers Education (NCTE) has introduced reforms aimed at enhancing the quality of teacher education in India, focusing on competency-based teacher education.
Teacher education should integrate theoretical foundations with practical applications, enabling teachers to develop a critical understanding of the curriculum, pedagogy, and assessment. Ultimately, the goal of teacher education is to foster a community of practice, where teachers engage in ongoing professional development, reflection, and collaboration.
What is the primary goal of effective teacher education programmes, according to the passage?
- (A) To transmit knowledge to students.
- (B) To enhance the quality of teacher education.
- (C) To develop teacher's learning skills.
- (D) To discourage professional competency.
Question 82:
What are the primary benefits of fostering a community of practice among teachers?
- (A) It promotes isolation among teachers.
- (B) It enables teachers to develop technical skills.
- (C) It facilitates ongoing professional development and collaboration.
- (D) It focuses solely on administrative tasks.
Question 83:
How does competency-based teacher education, as introduced by NCTE, likely impact teachers' education programme?
- (A) It will focus solely on theoretical knowledge.
- (B) It will emphasize the development of specific competencies and skills.
- (C) It will neglect the importance of practical experience.
- (D) It will promote a one-size-fits-all approach.
Question 84:
What is the ultimate goal of effective teacher education, according to the passage?
- (A) To develop teachers as mere transmitters of knowledge.
- (B) To discourage competition.
- (C) To foster a community of practice among teachers.
- (D) To enhance student achievement.
Question 85:
How does effective teacher-education programme define the role of teachers?
- (A) mere transmitters of knowledge.
- (B) dictators of notes.
- (C) unprofessional and uncritical.
- (D) facilitators of learning.
Question 86:
Which of the following expressions is correct?
- (A) Children books
- (B) Childrens books
- (C) Children's books
- (D) Child books
Question 87:
Choose the correct passive form of the sentence: "They had given the students detailed instructions."
- (A) The students were being given detailed instructions.
- (B) The students have been given detailed instructions.
- (C) Detailed instructions were given to the students.
- (D) The students had been given detailed instructions.
Question 88:
Fill in the blank with appropriate verb form.
The accident took place, when she ________ the road.
- (A) is crossing
- (B) has crossed
- (C) was crossing
- (D) would cross
Question 89:
Choose the correct verb to fill the blank
Neither the leader nor his followers ________ present.
- (A) is
- (B) was
- (C) were
- (D) has
Question 90:
Find out the correct sentence:
- (A) I am plan to attend the wedding party tonight.
- (B) I planning to attend the wedding party tonight.
- (C) I am planning to attend the wedding party tonight.
- (D) I am been planning to attend the wedding party tonight.
Question 91:
Choose the opposite of 'pragmatic'
- (A) realistic
- (B) sensible
- (C) idealistic
- (D) logical
Question 92:
Peter’s buoyant attitude was the main reason for their appreciation.
(Choose the meaning of the word underlined)
- (A) hasty
- (B) cheerful
- (C) smart
- (D) cruel
Question 93:
Choose the antonym of the word 'vivid'
- (A) bright
- (B) dull
- (C) clear
- (D) colorful
Question 94:
Rearrange the following sentence to make logical and grammatical sense:
- (A) Although he was ill, he went to work.
- (B) He to work went, although he was ill.
- (C) He was although ill, he went to work.
- (D) He although was ill went to work.
Question 95:
Fill in the blank with suitable homonym:
\textit{They were travelling for many days and they were completely exhausted.
\textit{So, they wanted to take a ______ immediately.
- (A) brake
- (B) break
- (C) breech
- (D) breach
Question 96:
Choose the correct connective to complete the sentence:
"The test was challenging, ________ I managed to finish it on time."
- (A) since
- (B) because
- (C) but
- (D) although
Question 97:
Choose the correct sentence.
- (A) I have returned all the books to the library yesterday.
- (B) Though Ram worked very hardly, he failed.
- (C) Everyone admired his courage.
- (D) I should like to travel in the abroad.
Question 98:
Find the correctly spelt word.
- (A) affedevit
- (B) afidevit
- (C) afidavit
- (D) affidavit
Question 99:
Choose the correct form of reported speech of the sentence:
‘I can finish this project by Monday,’ she said.
- (A) She said she could finish that project by Monday.
- (B) She said I could finish this project by Monday.
- (C) She said she can finish that project by Monday.
- (D) She said she will finish that project by Monday.
Question 100:
No other boy is as _____ as Gopal in the class.
- (A) smart
- (B) smarter
- (C) more smart
- (D) most smart
Question 101:
What day is celebrated as 'Armed Forces Flag Day in India'?
- (A) December 6
- (B) December 7
- (C) December 25
- (D) December 30
Question 102:
Who is the father of Indian Missile Technology?
- (A) Prof U.N. Rao
- (B) Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
- (C) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
- (D) Dr. C.V. Chandrashekhar
Question 103:
Which of the following is the largest public sector undertaking of the Government of India?
- (A) Gas Authority of India Limited
- (B) Indian Railways
- (C) Air India
- (D) Indian Oil Corporation
Question 104:
Who wrote the novel 'The Suitable Boy'?
- (A) M.R. Anand
- (B) V.S. Naipaul
- (C) Vikram Seth
- (D) Chetan Bhagat
Question 105:
Elon Musk is a famous global
- (A) Writer
- (B) Politician
- (C) Musician
- (D) Businessman
Question 106:
In which state 'Rani Durgavathi Tiger Reserve' is located?
- (A) Odisha
- (B) Madhya Pradesh
- (C) Rajasthan
- (D) Kerala
Question 107:
Bihu is the traditional dance form of the state ________.
- (A) Assam
- (B) Nagaland
- (C) Arunachal Pradesh
- (D) Sikkim
Question 108:
The tax paid by Indians which come under 'Direct Tax' is
- (A) G.S.T.
- (B) Excise Duty
- (C) Customs Duty
- (D) Income Tax
Question 109:
The Chairman of the high-level committee on ‘One Nation One Election’ is
- (A) Draupadi Murmu
- (B) Pratibha Patil
- (C) Ramnath Kovind
- (D) D.Y. Chandra Chood
Question 110:
Which line of longitude passes through central India?
- (A) Tropic of Cancer
- (B) Tropic of Capricorn
- (C) Equator
- (D) Polar
Question 111:
‘The Destiny of the Nation is built in her class rooms’ stated by
- (A) Radha Krishna Commission
- (B) Mudhaliyar Commission
- (C) Kotari Commission
- (D) Eshwarbhai Patel Committee
Question 112:
‘Naitalim’ is associated with
- (A) Sri Aurobindo
- (B) M.K. Gandhi
- (C) Rabindranath Tagore
- (D) Jiddu Krishnamurti
Question 113:
The book 'Emile' authored by
- (A) J.J. Rousseau
- (B) John Dewey
- (C) Paul Goodman
- (D) Maria Montessori
Question 114:
'Gurukula system' of education was prevalent in
- (A) Contemporary period
- (B) Modern period
- (C) Medieval period
- (D) Ancient period
Question 115:
A teacher should strive to create \hspace{1cm} climate in the class room.
- (A) authoritarian
- (B) democratic
- (C) laissez-faire
- (D) transformational
Question 116:
'Curriculum for School Education to the Nation' is suggested by
- (A) NUEPA
- (B) NCTE
- (C) NCERT
- (D) SCERT
Question 117:
The chairperson of Telangana Education Commission is
- (A) A Murali
- (B) Hara Gopal
- (C) Riyaz
- (D) Murali Manohar
Question 118:
New pedagogical and curricular structure suggested by NEP 2020 is
- (A) \(3 + 5 + 3 + 4\)
- (B) \(3 + 3 + 3 + 2 + 4\)
- (C) \(10 + 2 + 4\)
- (D) \(5 + 3 + 3 + 4\)
Question 119:
The organization which conducts various entrance examinations at the national level is
- (A) CBSE
- (B) NCERT
- (C) NTA
- (D) UGC
Question 120:
The Right to Education (RTE) Act enacted by the Indian Parliament on
- (A) 31st March, 2008
- (B) 4th August, 2009
- (C) 5th September, 2008
- (D) 3rd December, 2007
Question 121:
Which examination provides eligibility for the recruitment of school teachers at the national level?
- (A) CSIR-NET
- (B) UGC-NET
- (C) CTET
- (D) NTA
Question 122:
The Bhoodan Movement (Land Gift Movement) is associated with
- (A) Vinoba Bhave
- (B) Mahatma Gandhi
- (C) Jaya Prakash Narayan
- (D) Karpuri Thakur
Question 123:
International Literacy Day is observed on
- (A) 15th September
- (B) 8th November
- (C) 8th September
- (D) 11th November
Question 124:
Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA) scheme focuses on
- (A) Pre-primary Education.
- (B) Elementary Education.
- (C) Secondary Education.
- (D) Senior Secondary Education.
Question 125:
Epistemology as a branch of Philosophy deals with
- (A) Values
- (B) Morals
- (C) Society
- (D) Knowledge
Question 126:
The National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 envisions an education system rooted in
- (A) Indian Ethos
- (B) Indian Puranas
- (C) Indian Itihasas
- (D) Indian Polity
Question 127:
PARAKH is an initiative by which national academic body?
- (A) UGC
- (B) NCERT
- (C) CBSE
- (D) NIOS
Question 128:
National Institute of Open Schooling (NIOS) is primarily serving the educational needs of the children
- (A) who are informal schooling.
- (B) who are outside the school.
- (C) with disabilities.
- (D) from deprived sections.
Question 129:
The Annual Status of Education Report (ASER) for India 2023 was released by
- (A) NALSAR Foundation
- (B) Cry Foundation
- (C) Pratham Foundation
- (D) Pehal Foundation
Question 130:
Four Pillars of education was articulated by
- (A) Indian Education Commission.
- (B) American Education Commission.
- (C) British Education Commission.
- (D) UNESCO Education Commission.
Question 131:
Which of the following is not an operating system?
- (A) Mozilla
- (B) Android
- (C) Solaris
- (D) Windows
Question 132:
Operating systems manage computer resources and provide a platform to run software. Which type of operating system allows more than one user to access the computer resources at the same time?
- (A) Single-user
- (B) Real-time
- (C) Multi-user
- (D) Mobile
Question 133:
.txt file belongs to _____
- (A) MS-WORD
- (B) MS-ACCESS
- (C) NOTEPAD
- (D) MS-EXCEL
Question 134:
A set of one or more attributes that can uniquely identify a record in a database is called
- (A) Super key
- (B) Candidate key
- (C) Alternate key
- (D) Primary key
Question 135:
Which of the following is a low-level language?
- (A) Java
- (B) Python
- (C) Assembly
- (D) SQL
Question 136:
While working in MS-Word, which feature helps a document with a different name or location, allowing users to preserve the original file while creating a new copy?
- (A) Print preview
- (B) Save
- (C) Save as
- (D) Edit
Question 137:
In MS-Excel, users work with a grid of cells. Each cell is identified by a combination of row numbers and column letters. What is the reference for a cell in column A and row 4?
- (A) 4A
- (B) A4
- (C) AA
- (D) 44
Question 138:
Which of the following formats, data is stored in relational database management system?
- (A) Graph
- (B) Table
- (C) Binary
- (D) Object
Question 139:
What is an Excel feature that displays only the data in column(s) according to specified criteria?
- (A) Filtering
- (B) Sorting
- (C) Formula
- (D) Pivot
Question 140:
The full form of ‘GPS’ is ________ .
- (A) Graphical Placing System
- (B) Global Positioning System
- (C) Global Placing System
- (D) Graphical Programing system
Question 141:
________ is not a function in MS-Excel.
- (A) AVERAGE
- (B) SUBTRACT
- (C) COUNT
- (D) MAX
Question 142:
In a power point presentation
- (A) Sound clips can be inserted but not movie clips.
- (B) Movie clips can be inserted but not sound clips.
- (C) Sound and movie clips cannot be inserted.
- (D) Movie clips and sound clips can be inserted.
Question 143:
Which of the following font effect is not available in MS-PPT font dialogue box?
- (A) Underline
- (B) Strikethrough
- (C) Shadow
- (D) Emboss
Question 144:
Sorting emails by date will arrange emails
- (A) Alphabetically
- (B) By the sender’s name
- (C) Based on received or sent time
- (D) Based on subject line
Question 145:
In computer, which virus spreads without user intervention?
- (A) Trojan
- (B) Worm
- (C) Spyware
- (D) Ransomware
Question 146:
Which of the following is not related to the Internet?
- (A) URL
- (B) HTTP
- (C) OMR
- (D) COOKIE
Question 147:
Which programming language is most commonly used in AI and ML?
- (A) HTML
- (B) Python
- (C) CSS
- (D) JavaScript
Question 148:
________ is a branch of science that deals with programming the systems in such a way that they automatically learn and improve with experience.
- (A) Machine learning
- (B) Cloud computing
- (C) Neural network
- (D) Internet of things
Question 149:
Which software application design simulates human communication through text or voice?
- (A) Zoom
- (B) Chatbot
- (C) Webex
- (D) Teams
Question 150:
What is the purpose of a web browser’s refresh or reload button?
- (A) Close the current tab.
- (B) To open new tab.
- (C) To return to previous web page.
- (D) To reload the current web page.
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