GATE 2021 Agriculture Engineering (AG) Question Paper with Solutions PDFs is now available. GATE AG 2021 paper was held on Feb 7 in forenoon session between 9:30 AM to 12:30 PM. Overall difficulty level of the exam Moderate to Difficult. GATE AG Question Paper consists of 10 questions from General Aptitude and 55 questions from core discipline- Agriculture Engineering.

Candidates interested in taking the GATE Exam in the future can download the GATE AG 2021 question paper with answer keys in PDF format to obtain a better sense of the types of questions that will be asked.

GATE 2021 Agriculture Engineering (AG) Question Paper with Solutions

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Question 1:

The people _______ were at the demonstration were from all sections of society.

  • (A) whose
  • (B) which
  • (C) who
  • (D) whom

Question 2:

A transparent square sheet shown above is folded along the dotted line. The folded sheet will look like _______.

  • (A) Option A
  • (B) Option B
  • (C) Option C
  • (D) Option D

Question 3:

For a regular polygon having 10 sides, the interior angle between the sides of the polygon, in degrees, is:

  • (A) 396
  • (B) 324
  • (C) 216
  • (D) 144

Question 4:

Which one of the following numbers is exactly divisible by \(\left(11^{13}+1\right)\)?

  • (A) \(11^{26}+1\)
  • (B) \(11^{33}+1\)
  • (C) \(11^{39}-1\)
  • (D) \(11^{52}-1\)

Question 5:

Oasis is to sand as island is to _____. Which one of the following options maintains a similar logical relation in the above sentence?

  • (A) Stone
  • (B) Land
  • (C) Water
  • (D) Mountain

Question 6:

The importance of sleep is often overlooked by students when they are preparing for exams. Research has consistently shown that sleep deprivation greatly reduces the ability to recall the material learnt. Hence, cutting down on sleep to study longer hours can be counterproductive.
Which one of the following statements is the CORRECT inference from the above passage?

  • (A) Sleeping well alone is enough to prepare for an exam. Studying has lesser benefit.
  • (B) Students are efficient and are not wrong in thinking that sleep is a waste of time.
  • (C) If a student is extremely well prepared for an exam, he needs little or no sleep.
  • (D) To do well in an exam, adequate sleep must be part of the preparation.

Question 7:

In the figure, each inside square is formed by joining the midpoints of the sides of the next larger square. The area of the smallest shaded square is to be found. The outermost square has a side length of 10 cm.

  • (A) 12.50
  • (B) 6.25
  • (C) 3.125
  • (D) 1.5625

Question 8:

Let \(X\) be a continuous random variable denoting the temperature measured.
The range of temperature is \([0, 100]\) degree Celsius and the probability density function of \(X\) be \(f(x) = 0.01\) for \(0 \le X \le 100\).
The mean of \(X\) is _______

  • (A) 2.5
  • (B) 5.0
  • (C) 25.0
  • (D) 50.0

Question 9:

The number of students passing or failing in an exam are shown in the bar chart.
Students who pass do not appear again.
Students who fail must reappear the next year and always pass in their second attempt.
Find the number of students who took the exam for the first time in Year 2 and Year 3.

  • (A) 65 and 53
  • (B) 60 and 50
  • (C) 55 and 53
  • (D) 55 and 48

Question 10:

Seven cars P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are parked in a row not necessarily in that order.
The cars T and U should be parked next to each other.
The cars S and V also should be parked next to each other, whereas P and Q cannot be parked next to each other.
Q and S must be parked next to each other.
R is parked to the immediate right of V.
T is parked to the left of U.
Based on the above statements, the only INCORRECT option is:

  • (A) There are two cars parked in between Q and V.
  • (B) Q and R are not parked together.
  • (C) V is the only car parked in between S and R.
  • (D) Car P is parked at the extreme end.

Question 11:

In a field test of a drip irrigation system:
Min = 45 L/h, Max = 65 L/h, Avg = 50 L/h.
Application efficiency = 90%.
Emitter coefficient of variation = 0.07.
One emitter per plant.
Find the drip irrigation efficiency (round off to 2 decimals).


Question 12:

Trace the matrix
\[ \begin{bmatrix} 3 & 2 & 1 & 4 \\
5 & 7 & 8 & 1 \\
2 & 4 & 6 & 7 \\
9 & 6 & 4 & 2 \end{bmatrix} \]
(answer in integer).


Question 13:

Given: P(A) = 0.35, P(B) = 0.25.
A and B are mutually exclusive.
Find P(A ∪ B) (round to 3 decimals).


Question 14:

Stoichiometric air–fuel ratio = 14.7:1. Equivalence ratio λ = 0.92.
Find actual air–fuel ratio (round to 2 decimals).


Question 15:

Cutting power = 300 W, propelling = 350 W.
Conveying power = 50% of cutting power.
Find total header unit power (answer in integer).


Question 16:

Gear pump displacement = 120 cm\(^3\)/rev, speed = 1500 rpm,
pressure = 18 MPa, torque efficiency = 90%.
Find actual torque (Nm) (round to 2 decimals).


Question 17:

Useful soil reaction forces on a tractor–drawn mould board plough are 2.0 kN (longitudinal), 0.9 kN (transverse), and 0.6 kN (vertical). Soil–metal friction angle is \(25^\circ\). Neglecting implement weight and vertical soil reaction, estimate the draft (round off to one decimal place).


Question 18:

A cohesionless soil forms a natural infinite slope at \(25^\circ\). If the effective friction angle is \(30^\circ\), determine the factor of safety (round off to 2 decimals).


Question 19:

A pump delivering 80 L/s irrigates 2 ha in 10 h. Soil moisture increases from 18% to 30% in a 50 cm root zone. Soil bulk density is 1500 kg/m\(^3\). Compute water application efficiency (round off to two decimals).


Question 20:

A pumping test pumps 5400 L/min for 24 h from a well. Observation wells at 30 m and 90 m show drawdowns of 1.11 m and 0.53 m. Well diameter = 30 cm. Estimate drawdown in the pumped well (round off to 2 decimals), using steady–state flow and \(\pi = 3.14\).


Question 21:

Given: Mg\(^{2+}\)=5.68 meq/L, Na\(^{+}\)=9.90 meq/L, HCO\(_3^{-}\)=11.20 meq/L. \[ \frac{HCO_3^-}{Ca^{2+}}=2.8 \]
Find Sodium Adsorption Ratio (SAR).


Question 22:

Fresh potatoes = 1000 kg, initial solids = 14%, final solids = 93%.
Loss in peeling = 7%.
Find product yield percent (integer).


Question 23:

Draught = 12 mm water column.
Density of water = 1000 kg/m\(^3\).
Find pressure difference in Pa (round to 1 decimal).


Question 24:

Ball mill diameter = 200 cm.
Ball sizes: 10 cm (dry), 20 cm (wet).
Find change in operating speed (rpm) (round to 2 decimals).
(Take π = 3.14, g = 9.81)


Question 25:

Rushton turbine, impeller diameter = 20 cm.
Speed = 200 rpm.
Flow rate = 0.2 m\(^3\)/min.
Find the Froude number \(N_{Fr}\) (round to 2 decimals).


Question 26:

Solution of the differential equation \(y'' + y' + 0.25y = 0\) with the initial values \(y(0)=3.0\) and \(y'(0)=-3.5\) is

  • (A) \(y = (3 - 2x)e^{0.5x}\)
  • (B) \(y = (3 - 2x)e^{-0.25x}\)
  • (C) \(y = (3 - 2x)e^{-0.5x}\)
  • (D) \(y = (2 - 3x)e^{-0.5x}\)

Question 27:

A shear annulus with inner and outer diameters of 240 mm and 300 mm is used to measure soil shear strength. The torque at failure is 50 N·m. Shear strength of soil in kPa is (Take \(\pi = 3.14\))

  • (A) 14.49
  • (B) 18.94
  • (C) 21.54
  • (D) 28.98

Question 28:

A bushy crop stem of diameter 6 mm is cut by bending. Modulus of elasticity = 1500 N·mm\(^{-2}\), ultimate tensile strength = 35 N·mm\(^{-2}\). Determine force causing failure at 50 mm height. (Take \(\pi = 3.14\))

  • (A) 14.84
  • (B) 23.52
  • (C) 29.69
  • (D) 44.53

Question 29:

The current in A that can be supplied by the two panels at the maximum power output is

  • (A) 2.17
  • (B) 3.01
  • (C) 4.34
  • (D) 8.68

Question 30:

The speed ratio of ground wheel to metering wheel will be

  • (A) 1.40 : 1
  • (B) 2.52 : 1
  • (C) 3.64 : 1
  • (D) 4.76 : 1

Question 31:

The dry density (in g·cm\(^{-3}\)) and porosity (in per cent) of the soil sample, respectively, are:

  • (A) 1.53 and 43.50
  • (B) 1.53 and 77.00
  • (C) 1.65 and 43.50
  • (D) 1.65 and 77.00

Question 32:

It is proposed to develop bench terraces in an area having land slope of 10%. If the vertical interval between the bench terraces is 2.5 m and the batter slope is 100%, working width (in m) and the area lost for cultivation (in percent), respectively will be

  • (A) 22.50 and 0.05
  • (B) 25.00 and 0.50
  • (C) 22.50 and 10.45
  • (D) 25.00 and 10.45

Question 33:

While carrying out a traverse survey ABCDA' using a theodolite with the originating station A, the departures and latitudes of the lines are shown in the figure. Due to observational errors, the computed closing point A' does not coincide with A. For this survey, the ‘closing error’ in m is:

  • (A) 6.33
  • (B) 7.62
  • (C) 33.73
  • (D) 35.21

Question 34:

The shape of the Instantaneous Unit Hydrograph (IUH) of a catchment is an isosceles triangle with a peak of 60 m\(^3\)s\(^{-1}\) and time to peak of 3 h. If the constant baseflow is 7.5 m\(^3\)s\(^{-1}\), the peak of the 3-h Unit Hydrograph (UH) in m\(^3\)s\(^{-1}\) is

  • (A) 43.33
  • (B) 50.83
  • (C) 52.50
  • (D) 60.00

Question 35:

Match the following hulling mechanisms (Column 1) with the corresponding machines (Column 2).
\[ \begin{array}{c|c} \textbf{Column 1} & \textbf{Column 2}
\hline P: Shear and compression & 1: Blade type emery scourer
Q: Friction and abrasion & 2: Horizontal \emph{Gota machine}
R: Shear, compression and friction & 3: Rubber roll dehusker
S: Impact, abrasion and friction & 4: Under runner disc sheller
\end{array} \]

  • (A) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1
  • (B) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4
  • (C) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2
  • (D) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

Question 36:

Match the correct items in Column 1 with Column 2:



\begin{tabular{|c|c|
\hline
Column 1 & Column 2

\hline
P: Pipe-in-pipe heat exchanger & 1: Cooling of air

Q: Shell and tube heat exchanger & 2: Simultaneous co-current and counter-current heat exchange

R: 1-2 shell and tube heat exchanger & 3: Large flow rate

S: Cross flow heat exchanger & 4: Small heat exchange area

\hline
\end{tabular

  • (A) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3
  • (B) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
  • (C) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
  • (D) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

Question 37:

A 30 μm thick membrane having 3 m\(^2\) surface area is used to separate NaCl at steady state.
Mass transfer coefficient on solution side = \(1\times 10^{-6}\) m·s\(^{-1}\),
on membrane side = \(3\times 10^{-7}\) m·s\(^{-1}\).
NaCl concentration = 0.03 g·(100 mL)\(^{-1}\); concentration on permeate side = 0.
Permeability = \(9\times 10^{-6}\) m·s\(^{-1}\).
Find the rate of NaCl removal (g·h\(^{-1}\)).

  • (A) 0.73
  • (B) 0.81
  • (C) 0.86
  • (D) 0.93

Question 38:

In a size reduction operation, the power required to crush 2 ton of feed material per hour is 7.2 kW.
Eighty per cent of the feed and product material pass through 4.75 mm and 0.5 mm sieve openings, respectively.
The work index of the material is:

  • (A) 6.5
  • (B) 7.4
  • (C) 11.9
  • (D) 14.8

Question 39:

A committee consists of 4 B. Tech, 3 M. Tech, and 2 Ph.D. students. Find the probability of removing 2 students from the same category and the third one from any other category.


Question 40:

Find the sum of eigenvalues of the matrix:
\[ \begin{bmatrix} 4 & 1
3 & 6 \end{bmatrix} \]


Question 41:

Tractor weight = 20 kN, sandy soil, 26.5° angle of internal friction. Weight distribution at front and rear axles = 35% and 65%. An extra 2.5 kN is added to rear wheels. Find the change in maximum thrust in percentage.


Question 42:

PTO-driven rotavator with rotor radius 30 cm, speed = 4.5 km/h, working at 12 cm depth. Find the torsional moment on the blade.


Question 43:

Fixed cost per year and variable cost per hour of a tractor were estimated based on its annual usage of 800 h. The total cost of operation was found to be Rs. 540 per hour. It was later re-estimated and found that the total cost of operation would be Rs. 510 per hour, if the annual hours of use were increased to 1000 h. Considering all the components of annual usage cost to be the same, the variable cost in Rs. per hour would be ______ (answer in integer).


Question 44:

Two meshed involute gears transmit 1.0 kW power. The pressure angle is \(20^\circ\) and the pitch circle diameter of the large gear is 20 cm. If only a pair of teeth meshes at a time, the normal force acting between the meshed teeth in N will be ______ (round off to one decimal place).


Question 45:

A horizontal axis lift type wind rotor of diameter 4 m is used to pump water at a wind velocity of 15 km/h at standard atmospheric pressure and temperature (density of air is 1.23 kg/m\(^3\)). If velocity of wind leaving the rotor blade is reduced to one-third of the approaching wind velocity, the thrust acting on the blade of the wind rotor in N is ______ (round off to two decimal places).


Question 46:

A small watershed receives 90 mm of rainfall in a day. If the initial abstraction is considered as 25% of the potential maximum retention of soil, and the land use changes from forest (with \(S = 136\) mm) to cultivated land (with \(S = 64\) mm), the change in daily runoff volume in percent is ______ (round off to one decimal place).


Question 47:

The most economical trapezoidal channel section with 1:1 (horizontal:vertical) side slope is designed to carry a maximum of 40 cm depth of water at its full capacity. The bed slope of the channel is 1:2500 and the Manning’s roughness coefficient of channel section is 0.01. The estimated discharge capacity of the channel in m\(^3\).s\(^{-1}\) is ______ (round off to 2 decimal places).


Question 48:

A windbreak of 15 m height and 200 m length is established to protect land from wind erosion. The minimum wind velocity at the height of 15 m above the ground required to move the most erodible soil fraction is 9.6 m/s. The wind direction deviates by 20° from the line perpendicular to the windbreak. The area protected by the windbreak is _______ ha.


Question 49:

Water is discharged from a tank through a rectangular orifice of width 1.5 m and height 1.2 m. The water level in the tank is 3.5 m above the top edge of the orifice. The coefficient of discharge is 0.62. Find the discharge through the orifice in m³·s⁻¹.


Question 50:

Two fully penetrating wells are dug 1.4 km apart in a confined aquifer. The difference in their piezometric levels is 4.0 m. The aquifer has a hydraulic conductivity of 3.5 m/day and effective porosity of 40%. The time taken for water to move from one well to the other in days is _______.


Question 51:

Food cans are sterilized in a retort to inactivate Clostridium botulinum. The process time \(F_0\) is 150 s and z value is 10°C. The temperatures at the slowest heating region are measured as 71.1°C, 98.9°C, and 110°C. Find the actual process time required for sterilization at 121.1°C.


Question 52:

Molecular masses of water and air are 18.02 kg/(mol·mol) and 28.97 kg/(mol·mol), respectively. The room temperature is 40°C under total pressure 101.3 kPa. The relative humidity at 40°C is 73.7 kPa. Find the relative humidity in percent.


Question 53:

A cylindrical storage bin with an internal diameter of 4 m and a height of 16 m is completely filled with paddy having bulk density of 640 kg·m\(^3\). The angle of internal friction between grain and bin wall is \(30^\circ\) and the ratio of horizontal to vertical pressures is 0.4. When the grain filling rises from 4 m to 16 m in height, the lateral pressure increases by a multiple of ______.


Question 54:

An air screen grain cleaner unit of capacity one ton·h\(^{-1}\) with two screens was evaluated with a feed containing 8.5% impurities. During the operation, the clean grain at blower outlet, overflow of first screen, and underflow of second screen were found to be 0.3%, 1.2% and 0.8%, respectively. If the clean grain contains 0.6% impurities, the cleaning efficiency of the cleaner unit in percent would be ______ (round off to one decimal place).


Question 55:

One side of a solid food block of 10 cm thickness is subjected to a heating medium having a film heat transfer coefficient of 70 W·(m\(^2\)·°C)\(^{-1}\). The other side of the food block is being cooled by a medium having a film heat transfer coefficient of 100 W·(m\(^2\)·°C)\(^{-1}\). The food block has a thermal conductivity of 0.2 W·(m·°C)\(^{-1}\) and the contact area of the block available for heat transfer is 1 m\(^2\). Heat transfer rate in the block at steady state is 100 J·s\(^{-1}\). The temperature difference between the two sides of the block in °C is ______ (round off to 2 decimal places).



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GATE 2021 AG Paper Analysis

  • Overall difficulty level of the exam was between moderate to easy.
  • Difficulty level of AG section was moderate.
  • Difficulty level of General aptitude section was easy to moderate.
  • Number of good attempts was 40+.
  • Maximum score was expected at 60 and above.
  • GATE 2021 AG consisted 100 marks worth 65 questions.
  • Negative marking used for MCQ questions, with 1/3rd for 1 mark questions and 2/3rd for 2 mark questions.
  • The MSQ and NAT questions have no negative marking.
  • The cut-off marks for GATE exam are determined by a number of factors, including the difficulty level of the exam and the number of candidates who appear.
  • Refer to the previous year's cut-off marks when IIT Bombay releases GATE 2021 AG Cut-off Marks.
Year General OBC (NCL) SC/ ST/ PWD
2020 26.3 23.6 17.5
2019 28.3 25.5 18.9
2018 25 22.5 16.6

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