Students can download GATE 2021 Question Papers with Answer Key. GATE 2021 was conducted in the Afternoon Session (3:00 PM to 6:00 PM) by IIT Bombay. The question paper listed a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks in total. A news type question i.e. MSQ (Multiple Select Questions) were listed in GATE 2021 AR.

GATE 2021 Architecture and planning  Engineering (AR) overall difficulty level was moderate to difficult. While the difficulty level of sections specifically related to the core Architecture was slightly difficult, it carried 70% weightage. The General Aptitude section was easy to attempt.

Candidates can download GATE Question Papers and Answer Keys to enhance their level of preparation.

GATE 2021 Architecture and planning  Engineering (AR) Question Paper with Solutions

GATE 2021 Architecture and planning  Engineering (AR) Question Paper download iconDownload Check Solutions
GATE 2021 Architecture and planning  Engineering (AR) Question Paper with Solutions



Question 1:

Which of the following sentences are grammatically CORRECT?
(i) Arun and Aparna are here.
(ii) Arun and Aparna is here.
(iii) Arun's families is here.
(iv) Arun's family is here.

  • (A) (i) and (ii)
  • (B) (i) and (iv)
  • (C) (ii) and (iv)
  • (D) (iii) and (iv)

Question 2:

The mirror image of the above text about the x-axis is

  • (A) PHΛYAXIS
  • (B) pHΛYAXIS
  • (C) dHΛYAXIS
  • (D) þHΛYAXIS

Question 3:

Two identical cube-shaped dice each with faces numbered 1 to 6 are rolled simultaneously. The probability that an even number is rolled out on each dice is:

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{36}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{12}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{8}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{4}\)

Question 4:

\(\oplus\) and \(\odot\) are two operators on numbers \(p\) and \(q\) such that \(p \odot q = p - q\) and \(p \oplus q = p \times q\). Find the value of \((9 \odot (6 \oplus 7)) \odot (7 \oplus (6 \odot 5))\).

  • (A) 40
  • (B) -26
  • (C) -33
  • (D) -40

Question 5:

Four persons P, Q, R and S are to be seated in a row. R should not be seated at the second position from the left end. The number of distinct seating arrangements possible is:

  • (A) 6
  • (B) 9
  • (C) 18
  • (D) 24

Question 6:

On a planar field, you travelled 3 units East from a point O. Next you travelled 4 units South to arrive at point P. Then you travelled from P in the North-East direction such that you arrive at a point that is 6 units East of point O. Next, you travelled in the North-West direction, so that you arrive at point Q that is 8 units North of point P. The distance of point Q to point O, in the same units, should be ________

  • (A) 3
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 5
  • (D) 6

Question 7:

Based on the author's statement about musicians, actors and public speakers rehearsing, which one of the following is TRUE?

  • (A) The author is of the opinion that rehearsing is important for musicians, actors and public speakers.
  • (B) The author is of the opinion that rehearsing is less important for public speakers than for musicians and actors.
  • (C) The author is of the opinion that rehearsing is more important only for musicians than public speakers.
  • (D) The author is of the opinion that rehearsal is more important for actors than musicians.

Question 8:

1. Some football players play cricket.
2. All cricket players play hockey.
Among the options given below, the statement that logically follows from the two statements 1 and 2 above, is:

  • (A) No football player plays hockey.
  • (B) Some football players play hockey.
  • (C) All football players play hockey.
  • (D) All hockey players play football.

Question 9:

In the figure, PQRS is a square. The shaded part is formed by the intersection of sectors of two circles of radius equal to the side of the square and centers at S and Q.

The probability that a random point inside the square lies in the shaded region is:

  • (A) \(4 - \frac{\pi}{2}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\pi}{2} - 1\)
  • (D) \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)

Question 10:

In an equilateral triangle PQR, side PQ is divided into four equal parts, side QR is divided into six equal parts and side PR is divided into eight equal parts.
The length of each subdivided part in cm is an integer.
The minimum area of the triangle PQR possible, in cm\(^2\), is:

  • (A) 18
  • (B) 24
  • (C) \(48\sqrt{3}\)
  • (D) \(144\sqrt{3}\)

Question 11:

As per National Building Code of India, 2016, the function of an Automatic Rescue Device is to

  • (A) bring a stuck lift to the nearest landing level.
  • (B) control fire in electrical system at plenum level.
  • (C) control the escape route lighting system.
  • (D) trigger fire sprinkler system.

Question 12:

Which among the following acronyms represents a thermal comfort index?

  • (A) PMV
  • (B) NDVI
  • (C) DEM
  • (D) PCA

Question 13:

Indian satellite sensor that can be used for very high resolution mapping of urban areas is

  • (A) LANDSAT.
  • (B) CARTOSAT.
  • (C) RESOURCESAT.
  • (D) MODIS.

Question 14:

What is the smallest entity of raster data used in GIS?

  • (A) Line
  • (B) Pixel
  • (C) Point
  • (D) Polygon

Question 15:

The correct sequence of stages during firing/burning of bricks is

  • (A) Dehydration – Oxidation – Vitrification – Cooling.
  • (B) Vitrification – Dehydration – Oxidation – Cooling.
  • (C) Oxidation – Dehydration – Vitrification – Cooling.
  • (D) Cooling – Oxidation – Vitrification – Dehydration.

Question 16:

Industry Foundation Classes (IFC) in BIM is

  • (A) a module used to improve energy savings.
  • (B) an algorithm related to the precision of the BIM model.
  • (C) a program based on Bezier Splines.
  • (D) an object oriented data model to facilitate interoperability.

Question 17:

As per urban design principles proposed by Gordon Cullen, Rashtrapati Bhavan, New Delhi, is an example of

  • (A) Serial Vision.
  • (B) Pinpointing.
  • (C) Occupied territory.
  • (D) Here and there.

Question 18:

A wastewater pipe connecting two inspection chambers (IC) is laid at a slope of 1:200. The Invert Level of the starting IC is -450 mm. The Invert level of the second pit at a distance of 40 m from the first IC is

  • (A) -650 mm.
  • (B) -200 mm.
  • (C) -250 mm.
  • (D) -550 mm.

Question 19:

From the images P, Q and R given below, select the corresponding land use categories according to Alonso’s Bid Rent Theory.

  • (A) P – Manufacturing; Q – Residential; R – Retail
  • (B) P – Retail; Q – Residential; R – Manufacturing
  • (C) P – Residential; Q – Retail; R – Manufacturing
  • (D) P – Retail; Q – Manufacturing; R – Residential

Question 20:

The urban land use model based on the concept of a polycentric city is known as

  • (A) Burgess Model.
  • (B) Harris and Ullman model.
  • (C) Hagerstrand’s Model.
  • (D) Homer Hoyt’s model.

Question 21:

The total head or total lift against which a pump works includes suction lift, discharge lift and

  • (A) cone of depression.
  • (B) salvage lift.
  • (C) water horse power.
  • (D) frictional head loss.

Question 22:

The two components for measuring time of concentration for storm water are:

  • (A) overland flow time and retention time.
  • (B) overland flow time and gutter flow time.
  • (C) detention time and gutter flow time.
  • (D) retention time and inlet time.

Question 23:

The traffic assignment technique where the traffic arranges itself in congested networks such that the journey time in all used routes between an Origin-Destination pair are equal and less than those that would be experienced in all unused routes. This is known as

  • (A) System equilibrium.
  • (B) All-or-nothing.
  • (C) User equilibrium.
  • (D) Incremental.

Question 24:

What is the dependent variable in a regression based trip generation model?

  • (A) Population of Traffic Analysis Zone
  • (B) Number of trips
  • (C) Number of employees
  • (D) Number of households

Question 25:

The curve traced by a point on a circle rolling inside another circle is known as

  • (A) hypocycloid.
  • (B) helix.
  • (C) involute.
  • (D) hyperbola.

Question 26:

The law of Primate City was first proposed by

  • (A) Samuel A. Stouffer.
  • (B) Colin Clark.
  • (C) Mark Jefferson.
  • (D) Harold Hotelling.

Question 27:

In the European Union which constitutes the cities namely, London, Paris, Brussels, Amsterdam, Cologne, Frankfurt, Munich and Milan, lie within a linear megalopolitan zone known as

  • (A) Purple Zone.
  • (B) Golden Polygon.
  • (C) Blue Banana.
  • (D) Yellow Corridor.

Question 28:

An urban governance tool to mobilize financial resources by permitting additional FAR over and above the prescribed FAR by imposing a charge or fee for the same is known as

  • (A) Betterment Levy.
  • (B) Impact Fee.
  • (C) Land Value Increment Tax.
  • (D) Floor Area Incentive Tax.

Question 29:

Identify the colour palette that is created using any three equally spaced hues around the colour wheel.

  • (A) Split – complementary
  • (B) Analogous
  • (C) Triads
  • (D) Complementary

Question 30:

Coefficient of Performance (COP) for heat pump is used to calculate

  • (A) the number of air changes.
  • (B) the Energy Efficiency Ratio.
  • (C) the Energy Select Sector index.
  • (D) the Indoor Air Quality index.

Question 31:

Freight flows are converted to truck flows using

  • (A) Volume factor.
  • (B) Weight factor.
  • (C) Payload factor.
  • (D) Distance load factor.

Question 32:

Rebound hammer test is used to measure

  • (A) permeability of concrete.
  • (B) bond stress between rebar and concrete.
  • (C) compressive strength of concrete.
  • (D) tensile strength of concrete.

Question 33:

Which type of temporary supporting structure can be used in case of rebuilding the lower part of a load bearing wall at ground floor above plinth level?

  • (A) Dead Shore
  • (B) Pit Underpinning
  • (C) Flying Shore
  • (D) Needle Scaffolding

Question 34:

During earthquake, soft storey failure in a building is due to

  • (A) shear failure initiated by short column effect.
  • (B) stress discontinuity initiated by abrupt changes of stiffness.
  • (C) failure of column initiated by weak column – strong beam effect.
  • (D) drift of building storey initiated by pounding effect.

Question 35:

Following five activities are associated with construction contract management. Choose the option showing the correct progressive sequence of the activities.

  • (A) R – Q – P – T – S
  • (B) S – P – R – T – Q
  • (C) R – T – P – S – Q
  • (D) S – T – P – R – Q

Question 36:

Match the acronyms in Group I with the particulars in Group II.

  • (A) P–3, Q–5, R–4, S–2
  • (B) P–4, Q–3, R–1, S–2
  • (C) P–5, Q–4, R–2, S–1
  • (D) P–5, Q–3, R–4, S–1

Question 37:

Match the buildings in Group I with their corresponding architect in Group II.

  • (A) P–4, Q–3, R–1, S–2
  • (B) P–2, Q–4, R–2, S–5
  • (C) P–3, Q–5, R–4, S–1
  • (D) P–2, Q–3, R–4, S–5

Question 38:

Match the heritage conservation charters in Group I with their focus areas in Group II.

  • (A) P=3, Q=1, R=4, S=5
  • (B) P=5, Q=4, R=1, S=2
  • (C) P=5, Q=1, R=4, S=2
  • (D) P=4, Q=1, R=3, S=2

Question 39:

Match the Buildings (name of architects) in Group I with the abstractions used in Group II.

  • (A) P–4, Q–2, R–1, S–3
  • (B) P–5, Q–1, R–4, S–3
  • (C) P–2, Q–1, R–3, S–2
  • (D) P–5, Q–2, R–4, S–1

Question 40:

Match the names of the gardens in Group I with their type in Group II.

  • (A) P – 3, Q – 1, R – 2, S – 4
  • (B) P – 5, Q – 1, R – 4, S – 3
  • (C) P – 5, Q – 4, R – 3, S – 2
  • (D) P – 5, Q – 4, R – 1, S – 3

Question 41:

Match the various types of impurities present in water in Group I with the appropriate water treatment process given in Group II.

  • (A) P–2, Q–5, R–3, S–4
  • (B) P–3, Q–4, R–1, S–2
  • (C) P–1, Q–4, R–3, S–2
  • (D) P–5, Q–3, R–4, S–1

Question 42:

Match the temples in Group I with their style of Architecture in Group II.

  • (A) P–3, Q–1, R–2, S–5
  • (B) P–3, Q–4, R–2, S–1
  • (C) P–2, Q–1, R–3, S–5
  • (D) P–5, Q–3, R–4, S–2

Question 43:

Match the urban form/structure in Group I with their respective proponents in Group II.

  • (A) P–4, Q–1, R–5, S–3
  • (B) P–5, Q–1, R–4, S–2
  • (C) P–3, Q–1, R–5, S–2
  • (D) P–3, Q–4, R–1, S–2

Question 44:

Match the elements in Group I to their description in Group II.

  • (A) P=3, Q=1, R=5, S=4
  • (B) P=4, Q=3, R=1, S=2
  • (C) P=5, Q=4, R=2, S=1
  • (D) P=5, Q=1, R=2, S=4

Question 45:

Match the position of feet in Group I to the most appropriate description of stability of human body in Group II.

  • (A) P–5, Q–5, R–2, S–1
  • (B) P–5, Q–3, R–1, S–2
  • (C) P–1, Q–3, R–2, S–2
  • (D) P–4, Q–2, R–1, S–1

Question 46:

Match the buildings in Group I with their corresponding structural systems in Group II.

  • (A) P – 5, Q – 3, R – 4, S – 1
  • (B) P – 3, Q – 5, R – 1, S – 2
  • (C) P – 5, Q – 4, R – 1, S – 2
  • (D) P – 5, Q – 1, R – 4, S – 2

Question 47:

Choose the correct options with respect to cycle track design as per Indian Road Congress guidelines.

  • (A) The minimum width of cycle track is 3 m if overtaking is to be provided for.
  • (B) Cycle tracks may be provided when peak hour cycle traffic is 400 or more on routes with a traffic of 100 to 200 vehicles/hour.
  • (C) Maximum gradient allowed for cycle tracks is 1 in 15.
  • (D) Cyclist should have a clear view of at least 80 m.

Question 48:

As per the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013, for which purposes can the urgency clause for land acquisition be invoked?

  • (A) National defence and security purposes
  • (B) Affordable housing program
  • (C) Industrial projects
  • (D) Emergency arising out of natural calamities

Question 49:

Which of the following international treaties are related to Climate Change and global warming?

  • (A) Cartagena protocol, 2000
  • (B) Copenhagen summit, 2001
  • (C) Nagoya protocol, 2010
  • (D) Paris Agreement, 2016

Question 50:

Which of the following algorithms are used for finding the shortest path in an urban transportation network?

  • (A) Logit
  • (B) Huff
  • (C) Floyd Warshall
  • (D) Dijkstra

Question 51:

Which of the following statements are true with respect to surface paint?

  • (A) Paint is glossy when Pigment Volume Concentration is high
  • (B) Vehicle is the volatile part of the paint
  • (C) Base of the paint is usually oxides of metals
  • (D) High VOC content is preferred in paints

Question 52:

As per the Solid Waste Management Rules 2016, which among the following are ‘Duties of waste generators’?

  • (A) Segregate and store waste generated in four separate streams namely, combustible, non-combustible, organic and domestic hazardous waste
  • (B) Store construction and demolition waste separately within own premise before disposal
  • (C) All waste generators shall pay user fee for solid waste management
  • (D) Compost horticulture waste and garden waste separately within own premise

Question 53:

Choose the correct options with regard to activated sludge process.

  • (A) The activated sludge process is an aerobic process
  • (B) The entire settled sludge is sent back to the aeration tank
  • (C) The entire effluent from the final settling tank is sent back to the aeration tank
  • (D) In aeration tanks, sewage is aerated and agitated for a few hours

Question 54:

A rectangular hall with dimensions 8.0 m × 14.0 m × 4.0 m has 4 windows (1.5 m × 1.0 m each) and 2 doors (1.0 m × 2.0 m each). The coefficients of absorption are given below. Considering all windows open and doors closed, the reverberation time in seconds is _______.


Question 55:

Given: Surface conductance = 20 W/m²°C, U-value of the wall = 1.2 W/m²°C, and solar gain factor = 0.66. Find the solar gain factor for a wall.


Question 56:

The initial cost of a property is INR 4,00,000 and its future life is 30 years. The scrap value is 10% of its initial cost. The interest rate is 5%. Find the sinking fund deposited for the property in INR.


Question 57:

Reading in the staff stationed at P measured by a dumpy level is 3.5 m. The dumpy level is stationed at Q. The Reference Level (RL) at point P is 96.5 m and the height of the dumpy level is 1.25 m. The RL at point Q is ______ m.


Question 58:

A circular cricket field of 180 m diameter is illuminated by four floodlight towers. The floodlight towers are equally spaced along the perimeter of the field. The height of the floodlight tower is 48 m. Using ‘Inverse Square Law’, the illumination level at the center of the field is found as 750 Lux. Each tower consists of 50 lamps, each rated at 700 Watt. The efficacy of each lamp is ______ Lumen/Watt (round off to 2 decimal places).


Question 59:

A building is constructed on a plot measuring 70 m × 40 m. The utilized FAR of the building is 1.5. An energy audit team found that the average monthly electricity bill of the building is INR 2,94,000. The unit cost of the electricity is INR 7. The Building Energy Index is ______ kW-hr/m\(^2\)/year (in integer).


Question 60:

A simply-supported steel beam made of an I-section has a span of 8 m. The beam is carrying a uniformly distributed load of 15 kN/m. The overall depth of the beam is 450 mm. The moment of inertia of the beam section is 18000 cm\(^4\). The maximum bending stress in the beam will be ______ N/mm\(^2\) (in integer).


Question 61:

The slenderness ratio of a circular column of diameter 300 mm and effective height 3 m is _______.


Question 62:

A construction project consists of five activities. The immediate successor activity relationship and duration of each activity are mentioned. Find the total duration of the project.


Question 63:

Given the dimensions of a room, tile sizes, door size, and the height of skirting, calculate the number of ceramic tiles required for internal flooring and skirting.


Question 64:

In a housing project, 75% of the permissible FAR is used for constructing MIG towers. If 3 LIG towers are built with the remaining FAR, find the floor area of each LIG tower.


Question 65:

Using the following values of thermal conductance, surface conductance, and thermal resistance, the U value across the given wall cross-section is ______ W/m\(^2\)°C (round off to 2 decimal places).



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GATE 2021 AR Paper Analysis

All the 65 questions carried either 1 or 2 marks. The question paper was distributed between 3 sections i.e. General Aptitude, Engineering Mathematics, and core Architecture sections.

Follow the below-mentioned table to get a detail analysis of question paper of GATE 2021 AR-

Sections No. Of Questions Carried Marks
No. Of 1 mark MCQs 30 30
No. Of 2 marks MCQs 16 32
No. Of 1 mark MSQs - -
No. Of 2 marks MSQs 7 14
No. Of 1 mark NATs - -
No. Of 2 marks NATs 12 24
  • MCQs hold nearly 62% of the total weightage. A total of 46 questions appeared as MCQs
  • There were not a single question carrying 1 mark appeared MSQs or NATs
  • 7 and 12 questions (carrying 2 marks each question) appeared as MSQs and NATs respectively
  • Each of the question carried 1 or 2 marks. This year, only MCQs carried 1 mark
  • ½ marks and ⅔ marks were reduced as a penalty for the wrong attempted questions carrying 1 and 2 marks respectively

A score of more than 70 marks would be considered a good score. A candidate must have scored a minimum of 42-45 marks to achieve the same.

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