GATE 2021 Biomedical  Engineering (BM) Question Paper with Solutions are available for downloading. In 2021, IIT Bombay took.the responsibility for conducting GATE examinations. On 6th February, 2021 it concluded GATE 2021 BM in the Afternoon Session. The test-takers defined the difficulty level of the paper as easy. Almost 1684 aspirants took the exam out of which nearly 19.06 percent of students qualified.

GATE 2021 Biomedical  Engineering (BM) Question Paper with Solutions

GATE 2021 Biomedical  Engineering (BM) Question Paper download iconDownload Check Solutions
GATE 2021 Biomedical  Engineering (BM) Question Paper with Solutions



Question 1:

Which of the following sentences are grammatically CORRECT?
(i) Arun and Aparna are here.
(ii) Arun and Aparna is here.
(iii) Arun's families is here.
(iv) Arun's family is here.

  • (A) (i) and (ii)
  • (B) (i) and (iv)
  • (C) (ii) and (iv)
  • (D) (iii) and (iv)

Question 2:

The mirror image of the above text about the x-axis is



Question 3:

Two identical cube-shaped dice each with faces numbered 1 to 6 are rolled simultaneously. The probability that an even number is rolled out on each dice is:

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{36}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{12}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{8}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{4}\)

Question 4:

\(\oplus\) and \(\odot\) are two operators on numbers \(p\) and \(q\) such that \(p \odot q = p - q\) and \(p \oplus q = p \times q\). Find the value of \((9 \odot (6 \oplus 7)) \odot (7 \oplus (6 \odot 5))\).

  • (A) 40
  • (B) -26
  • (C) -33
  • (D) -40

Question 5:

Four persons P, Q, R and S are to be seated in a row. R should not be seated at the second position from the left end. The number of distinct seating arrangements possible is:

  • (A) 6
  • (B) 9
  • (C) 18
  • (D) 24

Question 6:

On a planar field, you travelled 3 units East from a point O. Next you travelled 4 units South to arrive at point P. Then you travelled from P in the North-East direction such that you arrive at a point that is 6 units East of point O. Next, you travelled in the North-West direction, so that you arrive at point Q that is 8 units North of point P. The distance of point Q to point O, in the same units, should be ________

  • (A) 3
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 5
  • (D) 6

Question 7:

Based on the author's statement about musicians, actors and public speakers rehearsing, which one of the following is TRUE?

  • (A) The author is of the opinion that rehearsing is important for musicians, actors and public speakers.
  • (B) The author is of the opinion that rehearsing is less important for public speakers than for musicians and actors.
  • (C) The author is of the opinion that rehearsing is more important only for musicians than public speakers.
  • (D) The author is of the opinion that rehearsal is more important for actors than musicians.

Question 8:

1. Some football players play cricket.
2. All cricket players play hockey.
Among the options given below, the statement that logically follows from the two statements 1 and 2 above, is:

  • (A) No football player plays hockey.
  • (B) Some football players play hockey.
  • (C) All football players play hockey.
  • (D) All hockey players play football.

Question 9:

In the figure, PQRS is a square. The shaded part is formed by the intersection of sectors of two circles of radius equal to the side of the square and centers at S and Q.
The probability that a random point inside the square lies in the shaded region is:

  • (A) \(4 - \frac{\pi}{2}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\pi}{2} - 1\)
  • (D) \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)

Question 10:

In an equilateral triangle PQR, side PQ is divided into four equal parts, side QR is divided into six equal parts and side PR is divided into eight equal parts.
The length of each subdivided part in cm is an integer.
The minimum area of the triangle PQR possible, in cm\(^2\), is:

  • (A) 18
  • (B) 24
  • (C) \(48\sqrt{3}\)
  • (D) \(144\sqrt{3}\)

Question 11:

For \[ f_X(x) = \frac{1}{\pi} \left(\frac{q}{e^x + e^{-x}}\right) \]
to be a valid probability distribution function of a random variable X, the value of q is

  • (A) 2
  • (B) \(\pi\)
  • (C) 4
  • (D) \(-\pi\)

Question 12:

Given a scalar function \[ V(x, y) = \frac{1}{2} (x^2 + y^2), \]
the directional derivative of V in the direction of the vector field \(3yi - 3xj\) at the point (1, 1) is

  • (A) \( \sqrt{18} \)
  • (B) 0
  • (C) \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{18}} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{3}{2} \)

Question 13:

Three resistive loads are connected to ideal voltage and current sources as shown in the circuit below. The voltage \(V_{AB}\) across the terminals A and B is equal to ____ V.

  • (A) +10
  • (B) -10
  • (C) -6
  • (D) +6

Question 14:

An ideal inductor with an inductance value of 1/3 H is connected to a 50 Hz sinusoidal AC voltage source. The energy stored in the inductor is 6 J. The value of the maximum power delivered to the inductor is ______ W.

  • (A) 1200\pi
  • (B) 600\pi
  • (C) 1200
  • (D) 0

Question 15:

Let \(X(j\omega)\) denote the Fourier transform of \(x(t)\). If \(X(j\omega) = 10 e^{-j\pi f} \left( \frac{\sin(\pi f)}{\pi f} \right)\), then \( \frac{1}{2\pi} \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} X(j\omega) d\omega = \_\_\_.\) (where \(\omega = 2\pi f\))

  • (A) 10π
  • (B) 100
  • (C) 10
  • (D) 20π

Question 16:

In the circuit shown below, Y is a 2-bit (Y\(_1\)Y\(_0\)) output of the combinational logic. What is the maximum value of Y for any given digital inputs, A\(_1\)A\(_0\) and B\(_1\)B\(_0\)?

  • (A) 01
  • (B) 10
  • (C) 00
  • (D) 11

Question 17:

In the block diagram shown below, an analog signal, \( V_{IN} = \sin(2\pi \cdot 10^6 t) \) is quantized by a 10-bit Nyquist ADC. Later, 4 LSBs are dropped and 6 MSBs are converted to an analog signal \( V_{OUT} \) while using a 6-bit DAC. Assume uniform distribution for the quantization noise. The peak SQNR at the output of DAC is ________ dB.

  • (A) 61.96
  • (B) 25.84
  • (C) 49.92
  • (D) 37.88

Question 18:

For a linear stable second order system, if the unit step response is such that the peak time is twice the rise time, the system is ________.

  • (A) underdamped
  • (B) undamped
  • (C) overdamped
  • (D) critically damped

Question 19:

Which of the following displacement sensors is known to have high sensitivity and a relatively larger measurement range?

  • (A) Strain gauge
  • (B) Capacitive sensor
  • (C) LVDT
  • (D) Piezoelectric sensor

Question 20:

Which of the following temperature sensors is used in contact-type digital thermometers for measuring body temperature?

  • (A) Thermocouple
  • (B) Thermistor
  • (C) Resistance temperature detector
  • (D) Infrared LED-photodetector pair

Question 21:

The pH of blood in a healthy human is precisely in the range of ________.

  • (A) 7.10 – 8.10
  • (B) 6.95 – 7.05
  • (C) 7.15 – 7.20
  • (D) 7.35 – 7.45

Question 22:

Which of the following is a cranial bone in the human body?

  • (A) Occipital
  • (B) Mandible
  • (C) Coccyx
  • (D) Sternum

Question 23:

Which of the following glands produces the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)?

  • (A) Thyroid
  • (B) Parathyroid
  • (C) Pituitary
  • (D) Pineal

Question 24:

Which of the following causes Myocardial Infarction (MI)?

  • (A) Obstruction in one of the arteries supplying blood to the heart
  • (B) Obstruction in one of the arteries supplying blood to the brain
  • (C) Obstruction in one of the veins draining blood from the heart
  • (D) Obstruction in one of the veins draining blood from the brain

Question 25:

If we consider blood as a suspension of RBCs in a Newtonian fluid, the shear forces experienced by the RBCs during blood flow would

  • (A) Randomize the orientation of blood cells
  • (B) Align RBCs along their long axes with streamlines
  • (C) Align RBCs along their short axes with streamlines
  • (D) Create an equal distribution of RBCs aligned in their long and short axes

Question 26:

As shown in the figure, the water contact angles of surfaces A and B are \(\theta_A\) and \(\theta_B\), respectively. Based on the figure, which of the following statements given below is TRUE?

  • (A) Surface A is hydrophilic and surface B is hydrophobic
  • (B) Surface A is hydrophobic and surface B is hydrophilic
  • (C) Both surfaces are hydrophilic
  • (D) Both surfaces are hydrophobic

Question 27:

Which of the following is a bone resorbing cell?

  • (A) Osteoblasts
  • (B) Osteoclasts
  • (C) Osteocytes
  • (D) Osteocalcin

Question 28:

Which of the following statements are CORRECT in the context of planar X-ray imaging?

  • (A) Using fast X-ray screen improves spatial resolution
  • (B) Using fast X-ray screen worsens spatial resolution
  • (C) Decreasing tube current decreases signal to noise ratio
  • (D) Decreasing tube current increases signal to noise ratio

Question 29:

While comparing parallel fiber and pinnate muscles of a given volume, which of the following statements are TRUE?

  • (A) Pinnate muscles provide more muscle force
  • (B) Parallel fiber muscles provide more muscle force
  • (C) Pinnate muscles facilitate better muscle shortening
  • (D) Parallel fiber muscles facilitate better muscle shortening

Question 30:

Which of the following may cause failure of bone implants?

  • (A) Stress shielding – reduction of bone density due to removal of a typical stress from bone by an implant
  • (B) Aseptic loosening – loss of bond between bone and implant in the absence of an infection
  • (C) Fretting fatigue – progressive deterioration of material by small scale rubbing
  • (D) Osseointegration – formation of a direct interface between an implant and a bone, without intervening soft tissues

Question 31:

The minimum value, \(f_{min}\), of the function given below is: \[ f(x_1, x_2, x_3) = \frac{1}{2} (x_1^2 + x_2^2 + x_3^2) - 2(x_1 + x_2 + x_3) \]
(round off to the nearest integer).


Question 32:

A continuous time transfer function \( H(s) = \frac{1 + s}{s \times 10^6} \) is converted to a discrete time transfer function \( H(z) \) using a bilinear transform at a sampling rate of 100 MHz. The pole of \( H(z) \) is located at \( z = \) ________.


Question 33:

Consider a type 2, unity feedback system. The intersection of the initial -40 dB/dec segment of its Bode plot with the zero dB line occurs at a frequency of 2 rad/s. The acceleration error constant of the system \(K_a\) is ________.


Question 34:

The radioactivity of a radionuclide with decay constant \(3.22 \times 10^{-5}\) s\(^{-1}\) is 6 mCi at 10:30 AM. The radioactivity at 4:30 PM the same day will be ________ mCi. (rounded off to two decimal places)


Question 35:

A polymeric scaffold has an initial weight of 20 mg. After 7 days in a lysozyme solution, its weight is reduced to 18 mg. The degradation of the polymeric scaffold after 7 days is ________%.


Question 36:

The Trace and Determinant of a 2 × 2 nonsingular matrix A are 12 and 32, respectively. The eigen values of \(A^{-1}\) are ________ and ________

  • (A) 0.6, 0.8
  • (B) 0.25, 0.125
  • (C) 6, 16
  • (D) 1/12, 1/32

Question 37:

A unit step input is applied to a system with impulse response \( H(s) = \frac{1-s/\omega_z}{1+s/\omega_p} \) at \( t = 0 \). The output of the system \( y(t) \) at \( t = 0^+ \) is

  • (A) \( -\omega_z/\omega_p \)
  • (B) 0
  • (C) \( 1/\sqrt{18} \)
  • (D) \( 3/2 \)

Question 38:

Consider the following first-order partial differential equation, also known as the transport equation \[ \frac{\partial y(x,t)}{\partial t} + 5 \frac{\partial y(x,t)}{\partial x} = 0 \]
with initial conditions given by \( y(x, 0) = \sin x, -\infty < x < \infty \). The value of \( y(x,t) \) at \( x = \pi \) and \( t = \frac{\pi}{6} \) is

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 0
  • (D) 0.5

Question 39:

In the circuit shown below, \(V_5 = 100 V\), \(R_1 = 30 \Omega\), \(R_2 = 60 \Omega\), \(R_3 = 90 \Omega\), \(R_4 = 45 \Omega\), and \(R_5 = 30 \Omega\). The current flowing through resistor \(R_3\) is ______ A. (rounded off to two decimal places)

  • (A) +0.30
  • (B) +0.21
  • (C) -0.21
  • (D) -0.30

Question 40:

\(x[n]\) is convolved with \(h[n]\) to give \(y[n]\). If \(y[2] = 1\) and \(y[3] = 0\), then \(h[0] = \_\_\_\_\_\_.\) (Graphs are not uniformly scaled)

  • (A) 1.85
  • (B) -2.50
  • (C) -1.90
  • (D) 2.38

Question 41:

In the block diagram shown below, an infinite tap FIR filter with transfer function \( H(z) = \frac{Y(z)}{X(z)} \) is realized. If \[ H(z) = \frac{1}{1 - 0.5z^{-1}}, \]
the value of \( \alpha \) is ________

  • (A) 2
  • (B) \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
  • (D) \( \sqrt{2} \)

Question 42:

An analog signal is sampled at 100 MHz to generate 1024 samples. Only these samples are used to evaluate 1024-point FFT. The separation between adjacent frequency points (\( \Delta F \)) in FFT is ________ kHz.

  • (A) 102.16
  • (B) 97.66
  • (C) 100.00
  • (D) 95.63

Question 43:

In the circuit diagram shown below, all OPAMPs are ideal with infinite gain and bandwidth. \(\frac{V_{OUT}}{V_{IN}}\) for this circuit is ________.

  • (A) 5.00
  • (B) 5.33
  • (C) 4.80
  • (D) 6.00

Question 44:

In the circuit diagram shown below, NMOS is in saturation region, \( \mu_n C_{ox} = 200 \, \mu A/V^2 \), width \( W = 40 \, \mu m \), length \( L = 1 \, \mu m \), the threshold voltage is 0.4 V, and the ratio of body-effect transconductance (\( g_m b \)) to transconductance (\( g_m \)) is 0.1. A small input voltage \( v_{in} \) is applied at the bulk-terminal to produce a small change in the output voltage \( v_{out} \). The dc gain for \( v_{out} / v_{in} \) is ________. (Neglect channel-length modulation for NMOS and all intrinsic capacitors.)

  • (A) -0.4
  • (B) -4.0
  • (C) -4.4
  • (D) -3.6

Question 45:

As shown in the circuit below, a constant voltage source is connected to two ideal resistors.

The voltage drop across a resistor is measured using two different voltmeters V1 and V2 at five different time instances and the following values are recorded from V1 and V2.

  • (A) V1 is less accurate, V2 is more precise
  • (B) V1 is more accurate, V2 is more precise
  • (C) V1 is less accurate, V2 is less precise
  • (D) V1 is more accurate, V2 is less precise

Question 46:

The closed-loop characteristic equation of a system is given by \[ s^4 + 2s^3 + 8s^2 + 8s + 16 = 0 \]
The frequency of oscillations of this closed-loop system at steady state is ________ rad/s.

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 8

Question 47:

Match the following in the context of biomaterial characterization:

  • (A) P–L, Q–N, R–K, S–M
  • (B) P–N, Q–M, R–K, S–L
  • (C) P–N, Q–K, R–L, S–M
  • (D) P–M, Q–K, R–N, S–L

Question 48:

In comparison to ECG amplifiers, the surface-EMG amplifiers have

  • (A) A comparable gain and smaller bandwidth
  • (B) A comparable gain and larger bandwidth
  • (C) At least 20 dB higher gain and a larger bandwidth
  • (D) At least 20 dB lower gain and a smaller bandwidth

Question 49:

Match the following organs with their functions:

  • (A) P – M, Q – N, R – K, S – L
  • (B) P – N, Q – M, R – K, S – L
  • (C) P – K, Q – R, R – M, S – N
  • (D) P – L, Q – R, R – K, S – N

Question 50:

An RF pulse is applied to acquire an axial MR image at the isocenter of a 1.5T MRI scanner with slice thickness of 2.5 mm. Assuming a gradient field strength of 2 Gauss/cm is applied and Gyromagnetic ratio of protons is 42.58 MHz/T, the RF pulse bandwidth required for slice selection is ________ kHz.

  • (A) 1.06
  • (B) 2.13
  • (C) 6.66
  • (D) 13.31

Question 51:

A longitudinal pressure wave travelling inside a muscle tissue is incident at an angle of 60° at the interface between the muscle and kidney. Let the wave impedance be \( Z_{muscle} = 1.70 \times 10^5 \, g cm^{-2} \, s^{-1} \), \( Z_{kidney} = 1.62 \times 10^5 \, g cm^{-2} \, s^{-1} \) and wave velocities in muscle and kidney tissues be 1590 and 1560 m/s respectively. The transducer centre frequency is 1.5 MHz. The pressure wave propagation angle in the kidney tissue and intensity transmission coefficient at the tissue interface are ________ degrees (rounded off to the nearest integer) and ________ (rounded off to two decimal places), respectively.

  • (A) 58.0, 0.24
  • (B) 30.0, 0.68
  • (C) 58.0, 0.94
  • (D) 30.0, 0.99

Question 52:

A novel biomaterial was tested for its tensile properties. The experiment was conducted using a cylindrical sample of this material, which was 10 cm long with 1 cm diameter. When a tensile force of 50 kN was applied, this cylindrical sample elongated by 4 mm. Based on the experimental results described above and the tensile moduli of different tissues given in the table below, this biomaterial would be a suitable replacement for ________.

  • (A) Bone
  • (B) Tendon
  • (C) Ligament
  • (D) Articular cartilage

Question 53:

In the circuit shown below, \( R_1 = 2 \, \Omega \), \( R_2 = 1 \, \Omega \), \( L_1 = 2 \, H \), and \( L_2 = 0.5 \, H \). Which of the following describe(s) the characteristics of the circuit?

  • (A) Second order high pass filter
  • (B) Second order low pass filter
  • (C) Underdamped system
  • (D) Overdamped system

Question 54:

An inexperienced clinician was measuring the cardiac output of a healthy human by thermodilution technique. A 2.0 mL of cold saline solution of volume \( V_i \) at \( 7^\circ C \) was injected at the entrance of the right atrium. The change in blood temperature \( \int_0^{t_1} \Delta T_b \, dt \) at the pulmonary artery was measured to be \(-20\) Kelvin-second. The cardiac output \( F \) was calculated using the following formula \[ F = \frac{Q}{\rho_b c_b \int_0^{t_1} \Delta T_b \, dt}, \]
where \( Q \) is the heat content of injectate in Joules, given by \( V_i \Delta T_i \rho_i c_i \) and \( \Delta T_i \) is the temperature difference between the injectate and blood. It was assumed that the density of blood (\( \rho_b \) in kg/m\(^3\)) and the specific heat capacity of blood (\( c_b \) in J/(kg.K)) were respectively equal to that of the injectate \( \rho_i \) and \( c_i \).

The clinician realized that there was an error in the measurement of \( F \). Which of the following is TRUE?

  • (A) Cardiac output is too low because the cold saline volume was too small
  • (B) Cardiac output is too low because \( \int_0^{t_1} \Delta T_b \, dt \) is too large
  • (C) Cardiac output is too high because the cold saline volume was too large
  • (D) Cardiac output is too high because \( \int_0^{t_1} \Delta T_b \, dt \) is too small

Question 55:

Which of the following statements about smooth muscles are TRUE?

  • (A) Smooth muscles are found in the walls of hollow organs
  • (B) Smooth muscles are controlled by the autonomic nervous system
  • (C) Smooth muscles are made up of non-striated cells
  • (D) Smooth muscles are made up of striated cells

Question 56:

Consider a unity feedback system with closed-loop transfer function \[ C(s) = \frac{s + 90}{s^2 + 10s + 90} \]
The steady-state error with respect to a unit ramp input is ________. (rounded off to one decimal place)


Question 57:

The diameter of a renal artery lumen in humans is 5 mm. If the mean velocity of the blood flowing in the renal artery is 40 cm/s, the density of blood (ρ) is 1060 kg/m³, and the viscosity of blood (μ) is 3 cP, the Reynolds number for the blood flowing in the renal artery is ________. (rounded off to the nearest integer)


Question 58:

A drug manufacturer believes that there is a 95% chance that the drug controller will approve a new drug. The current testing shows no side effects. The manufacturer believes there is a 0.50 probability that the drug will be approved even if side effects occur. The drug manufacturer believes there is a 0.20 probability that tests will show side effects. If the drug is approved, the probability that it causes side effects is ________. (rounded off to three decimal places)


Question 59:

In a measurement process, groups A and B recorded 10 and 15 values, respectively. The arithmetic means and standard deviations of group A are \(\mu_A = 35\), \(\sigma_A = 0.4\) and group B are \(\mu_B = 38\), \(\sigma_B = 0.6\). The standard deviation for the combined set of group A and group B measurements is ________. (rounded off to two decimal places)


Question 60:

In the circuit given below, \(V_s = 50\ V\). Let the circuit reach steady state for the SPDT switch at position 1. Once the circuit is switched to position 2, the energy dissipated in the resistors is ______ J (rounded off to one decimal place).


Question 61:

In the circuit shown below, the output voltage \(V_{out}\) is ______ V.


Question 62:

A pacemaker was implanted in a cardiac patient. It has a battery of 2.4 A·h (Ampere·hour). It is designed to deliver a rectangular pulse of amplitude 1.5 V for 1 ms ON time for every one second. The electrode-heart resistance is 150 Ω. Assuming the current drained from the battery is negligible, the lifetime of the pacemaker is ______ years (rounded off to the nearest integer).


Question 63:

A radiographic system is using X-ray tube operating at 80 kVp. In order to filter the low energy X-rays, an aluminum (Al) filter of 2.5 mm thickness is used. The Al filter is replaced with a copper (Cu) filter to have the same energy filtered. The mass attenuation coefficients of Al and Cu at 80 kVp are 0.02015 m²/kg and 0.07519 m²/kg, respectively. The densities of Al and Cu are 2699 kg/m³ and 8960 kg/m³, respectively. The thickness of the new Cu filter is ________ mm. (rounded off to two decimal places)


Question 64:

In a radioactive isotope, \(N\) nuclei are needed to produce radioactivity level of 2 mCi. Assuming decay constant of \(3.22 \times 10^{-5}\) s\(^{-1}\) and atomic weight of 98 g/mol and Avogadro’s number \(6.02 \times 10^{23}\) mol\(^{-1}\), the mass of \(N\) radionuclide is ________ picograms.


Question 65:

A PZT crystal of thickness 1 mm and wave velocity 4000 m/s is emitting a longitudinal pressure wave, which is incident on a blood vessel at an angle of 30°. The Doppler shift in the ultrasound wave for a blood flow of 10 cm/s and wave velocity in the soft tissue of 1540 m/s is ________ Hz.



Quick Links:

GATE 2021 BM Detailed Paper Analysis

In 2021, IIT Bombay decided to bring a major in the Question pattern of GATE examination. From 2021, candidates will have to face MSQs (Multiple Select Questions).

Refer to the below-mentioned table to see the accurate number of MCQs, MSQs and NATs in GATE 2021 BM-

Question Type Question Frequency Marks Carried Important Topics

No of 1 mark MCQs

22

22
Biomedical Instrumentation,
Devices,
Anatomy,
Physiology,
Biomechanics,and Biomaterials
No of 2 marks MCQs 22 44
No of 1 mark MSQs 3 3
No of 2 marks MSQs 3 6
No of 1 mark NTAs 5 5
No of 2 marks NTAs 10 20
  • There were 65 questions in the question paper. The paper contained three types of questions i. e. MCQs, MSQs and NATs
  • Equal number of questions appeared from MCQ and NAT
  • MCQs hold nearly 66% weightage of the question paper
  • Least number of questions were asked in the form of MSQs

Also Check:

GATE 2021 BM: Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

  • Students were given 180 minutes to attempt 65 questions which was a combination of MCQs, MSQs, and NATs
  • MSQs and NATs questions were exempted from the negative marking scheme. However, marks would be deducted for wrong MCQs
  • MCQs carried 1 and 2 marks would face negative marking of ⅓ marks and ⅔ marks respectively

GATE 2021 BM Cutoff

This year the cutoff goes up to 25 for General/Unreserved, 22.5 for OBC, and 16.6 for SC/ST students. There was no change in the cutoff released in 2021. The cutoffs for 2020 and 2021 were the same.

GATE Previous Year Question Papers:

Other PG Exams Question Papers