GATE 2021 Mining Engineering (MN) Question Paper with Solutions is available for downloading, students can check this page to know exam pattern, question & paper analysis. GATE 2021 MN was concluded on 6th February 2021. The exam was rated difficult as compared to previous year. However, some of the topics were easy to attempt. Following the previous year pattern, a total of 65 questions appeared in GATE 2021 MN. Sections related to core MN carried 85% of the total weightage. The rest of the 15% weightage was carried by General Aptitude.

GATE 2021 Mining Engineering (MN) Question Paper with Solutions

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Question 1:

Which of the following sentences are grammatically CORRECT?
(i) Arun and Aparna are here.
(ii) Arun and Aparna is here.
(iii) Arun's families is here
(iv) Arun's family is here.

  • (A) (i) and (ii)
  • (B) (i) and (iv)
  • (C) (ii) and (iv)
  • (D) (iii) and (iv)

Question 2:

The mirror image of the above text about the x-axis is



Question 3:

Two identical cube-shaped dice each with faces numbered 1 to 6 are rolled simultaneously. The probability that an even number is rolled out on each dice is:

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{36}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{12}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{8}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{4}\)

Question 4:

\(\oplus\) and \(\odot\) are two operators on numbers \(p\) and \(q\) such that \(p \odot q = p - q\) and \(p \oplus q = p \times q\). Find the value of \((9 \odot (6 \oplus 7)) \odot (7 \oplus (6 \odot 5))\).

  • (A) 40
  • (B) -26
  • (C) -33
  • (D) -40

Question 5:

Four persons P, Q, R and S are to be seated in a row. R should not be seated at the second position from the left end. The number of distinct seating arrangements possible is:

  • (A) 6
  • (B) 9
  • (C) 18
  • (D) 24

Question 6:

On a planar field, you travelled 3 units East from a point O. Next you travelled 4 units South to arrive at point P. Then you travelled from P in the North-East direction such that you arrive at a point that is 6 units East of point O. Next, you travelled in the North-West direction, so that you arrive at point Q that is 8 units North of point P. The distance of point Q to point O, in the same units, should be ________

  • (A) 3
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 5
  • (D) 6

Question 7:

Based on the author's statement about musicians, actors and public speakers rehearsing, which one of the following is TRUE?

  • (A) The author is of the opinion that rehearsing is important for musicians, actors and public speakers.
  • (B) The author is of the opinion that rehearsing is less important for public speakers than for musicians and actors.
  • (C) The author is of the opinion that rehearsing is more important only for musicians than public speakers.
  • (D) The author is of the opinion that rehearsal is more important for actors than musicians.

Question 8:

1. Some football players play cricket.
2. All cricket players play hockey.
Among the options given below, the statement that logically follows from the two statements 1 and 2 above, is:

  • (A) No football player plays hockey.
  • (B) Some football players play hockey.
  • (C) All football players play hockey.
  • (D) All hockey players play football.

Question 9:

In the figure, PQRS is a square. The shaded part is formed by the intersection of sectors of two circles of radius equal to the side of the square and centers at S and Q.

The probability that a random point inside the square lies in the shaded region is:

  • (A) \(4 - \frac{\pi}{2}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\pi}{2} - 1\)
  • (D) \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)

Question 10:

In an equilateral triangle PQR, side PQ is divided into four equal parts, side QR is divided into six equal parts and side PR is divided into eight equal parts.
The length of each subdivided part in cm is an integer.
The minimum area of the triangle PQR possible, in cm\(^2\), is:

  • (A) 18
  • (B) 24
  • (C) \(48\sqrt{3}\)
  • (D) \(144\sqrt{3}\)

Question 11:

Tricone roller bit is used with

  • (A) down-the-hole hammer.
  • (B) Jack hammer.
  • (C) rotary-percussive drill.
  • (D) rotary drill.

Question 12:

Resuing method of mining is practiced for

  • (A) thick vein deposit.
  • (B) massive shallow deposit.
  • (C) narrow vein deposit.
  • (D) massive deep-seated deposit.

Question 13:

The equipment used for both drop cut and terrace cut in surface mining is

  • (A) surface miner.
  • (B) shovel.
  • (C) dragline.
  • (D) bucket wheel excavator.

Question 14:

Surface miner does NOT have a

  • (A) differential gear for turning.
  • (B) tensioning arrangement for crawler.
  • (C) scraper plate behind the drum.
  • (D) pick cooling system.

Question 15:

Induced blasting enhances production in

  • (A) sublevel stoping.
  • (B) block caving.
  • (C) cut and fill mining.
  • (D) shrinkage stoping.

Question 16:

The measures of dispersion of a dataset are

  • (A) standard deviation, range and mode.
  • (B) standard deviation, range and interquartile range.
  • (C) variance, range and median.
  • (D) interquartile range, median and mode.

Question 17:

NONEL is used as down-the-hole initiator to

  • (A) avoid generation of air overpressure.
  • (B) provide precise delay.
  • (C) avoid deflagration of column charge.
  • (D) reduce ground vibration.

Question 18:

The vectors \(\vec{a}\) and \(\vec{b}\) act in a plane as shown below. The magnitude of the vector \[ \vec{c} = (\vec{a} + \vec{b}) \times (\vec{a} - \vec{b}) \]
is

  • (A) zero.
  • (B) half to the area bounded by the vectors \(\vec{a}\) and \(\vec{b}\).
  • (C) equal to the area bounded by the vectors \(\vec{a}\) and \(\vec{b}\).
  • (D) twice the area bounded by the vectors \(\vec{a}\) and \(\vec{b}\).

Question 19:

As per MMDR Act 1957, for the allocation of lease of minor minerals

  • (A) the State Government is authorised to give the permit.
  • (B) the Central Government is authorised to give the permit.
  • (C) the State Government is authorised to give permit but with the consent of Central Government.
  • (D) the Central Government is authorised to give permit but with the consent of State Government.

Question 20:

In photogrammetry, the ‘Tilt of a photograph’ refers to the angle between the

  • (A) lines joining the opposite fiducial marks of a photograph.
  • (B) normal to the plane of photograph and optical axis.
  • (C) vertical and the axis of the flight.
  • (D) vertical and optical axis of the camera.

Question 21:

The hydraulic sand stowing pipeline layout should be such that

  • (A) the geometric profile must coincide with the hydraulic gradient line.
  • (B) the hydraulic profile should always be below the hydraulic gradient line.
  • (C) the hydraulic profile should always be above the hydraulic gradient line.
  • (D) the geometric profile should always be above the hydraulic gradient line.

Question 22:

For a “positive definite” square matrix, the TRUE statement is

  • (A) the matrix is singular.
  • (B) all the eigen values of the matrix are greater than zero.
  • (C) all the eigen values of the matrix are zero.
  • (D) some of the eigen values can be less than zero.

Question 23:

The standard normal distribution is a

  • (A) non-parametric distribution.
  • (B) single parameter distribution.
  • (C) two-parameter distribution.
  • (D) three-parameter distribution.

Question 24:

Variance of the sum of two statistically independent random variables \(X\) and \(Y\), \( \sigma^2_{X+Y} \), is

  • (A) \( \sigma_X^2 + \sigma_Y^2 \).
  • (B) \( \sigma_X^2 + \sigma_Y^2 + 2\sigma_{XY} \).
  • (C) \( \sigma_X^2 + \sigma_Y^2 + \sigma_{XY} \).
  • (D) \( \sigma_X^2 + \sigma_Y^2 - \sigma_{XY} \).

Question 25:

The difference between depreciation and amortization allowances in tax calculation is that

  • (A) depreciation is for a tangible asset applicable on its declared life; whereas amortization is for an intangible asset applicable on a specified period.
  • (B) depreciation is for an intangible asset applicable on its declared life; whereas amortization is for a tangible asset applicable on a specified period.
  • (C) depreciation is for a tangible asset applicable on a specified period; whereas amortization is for an intangible asset applicable on its declared life.
  • (D) depreciation is for an intangible asset applicable on a specified period; whereas amortization is for a tangible asset applicable on its declared life.

Question 26:

Owning cost of a machine does NOT include

  • (A) purchase price.
  • (B) insurance.
  • (C) interest.
  • (D) operating cost.

Question 27:

Folds are the structural features resulting from

  • (A) ductile deformation of earth crust.
  • (B) brittle deformation of earth crust.
  • (C) high impact tectonic stresses of earth crust.
  • (D) fracturing of earth crust.

Question 28:

The CORRECT curve showing the relationship between vertical stress on a coal pillar and extraction ratio of a bord and pillar panel in a horizontal seam is

  • (A) Curve A.
  • (B) Curve B.
  • (C) Curve C.
  • (D) Curve D.

Question 29:

Given impeller diameter \(D\), speed of rotation \(n\) and air density \(\rho\), for geometrically similar fans, the fan pressure is proportional to

  • (A) \(nD^{2}\rho\).
  • (B) \(n^{2}D^{2}\rho\).
  • (C) \(n^{2}D^{5}\rho^{2}\).
  • (D) \(n^{3}D^{5}\rho\).

Question 30:

A coal sample having moisture content of 8.0% has unit weight 15.6 kN/m\(^3\).
The dry unit weight of the sample, in kN/m\(^3\) is _____. (round off to 2 decimal places)


Question 31:

The value of the integral \( I = \int_{0}^{4} \sqrt{x}\, dx \) computed using Simpson’s 1/3 rule
with 2 subintervals is _____. (round off to 3 decimal places)


Question 32:

In sound frequency analysis, the lower and upper frequencies of a 1/1 octave band
are 710 Hz and 1420 Hz respectively. The centre frequency of the band in Hz is ____.
(round off to the nearest integer)


Question 33:

In Battle Environmental Evaluation System (BEES) of Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA),
“air pollution’’ has a Parameter Importance Unit (PIU) of 52. The Environmental Quality (EQ) score
of a project with respect to air pollution was 0.8 before implementation and 0.6 after implementation.
The difference in Environmental Impact Unit (EIU) is ____. (round off to 2 decimal places)


Question 34:

A system consists of four components in parallel. Their reliabilities are
0.40, 0.60, 0.50, and 0.40. The system reliability is ____.
(round off to 3 decimal places)


Question 35:

A vehicle moving at 12 m/s stops in 15 m with constant deceleration.
Assuming \( g = 10\ m/s^2 \), compute the coefficient of kinetic friction between
tyres and road. (round off to 2 decimal places)


Question 36:

In a bord and pillar panel six shuttle cars, each of 10 tonne capacity, are deployed to transport coal produced by two continuous miners to a belt conveyor. Each shuttle car on an average carries 80% of its rated capacity and makes 7 round trips in an hour. The belt conveyor has a capacity such that the effective material cross section area is of 0.09 m\(^{2}\) and runs at a speed 1.1 m/s. The broken coal has a bulk density of 1.2 tonne/m\(^{3}\). The ratio between the production and the capacity of the belt conveyor, in percent is

  • (A) 65.46
  • (B) 71.42
  • (C) 78.56
  • (D) 82.46

Question 37:

With reference to the figure related to rock cutting by point attack tool, match the angle with corresponding name.

  • (A) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3
  • (B) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3
  • (C) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1
  • (D) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1

Question 38:

The pit bottom in a correlation survey is shown in the figure. Points C and D represent two suspended wires. The bearing of line CD is 286°00'00'' and its length is 4.64 m. The angle CED is measured as 00°00'40''. The length of line DE is 5.46 m. Considering the Weisbach triangle method, the bearing of the line CE is

  • (A) 286°00'47''
  • (B) 285°59'12.9''
  • (C) 286°00'40''
  • (D) 285°00'47.1''

Question 39:

A dump truck moves up an incline of 5° with constant tractive force of 800 kN. The gross mass of the truck is 250 tonne and its rolling resistance is 545 kN. The acceleration due to gravity is 10 m²/s. The time required, in s, to reach a speed of 3.3 m/s from 1.0 m/s is

  • (A) 22.0
  • (B) 15.5
  • (C) 3.3
  • (D) 0.2

Question 40:

In a longwall panel, face is supported with shields of yield capacity 460 tonne per shield. The distance from the canopy tip to coal face is 0.15 m when the support is fully advanced. The depth of web is 0.60 m. The shields are set skin to skin at the face. Length of the canopy of the shield is 3.25 m and width 1.5 m. Setting capacity is 80% of the yield capacity. The setting resistance at the maximum and minimum span of the coal face, in tonne/m\(^2\), respectively are

  • (A) 61.33 and 72.15.
  • (B) 63.72 and 75.48.
  • (C) 76.66 and 90.19.
  • (D) 91.99 and 108.22.

Question 41:

A 10 ml sample of wastewater is diluted with water having no BOD, to fill a 300 ml BOD bottle. The initial DO of the diluted waste water is 9.0 mg/l. If the BOD\(_5\) of the waste water sample is 60 mg/l, the final DO of the diluted waste water in mg/l, is

  • (A) 5.0
  • (B) 6.0
  • (C) 7.0
  • (D) 8.0

Question 42:

The Mohr circle of stress of a dry porous rock is shown in the figure. If the rock is fully saturated with a pore pressure \( p \), then the Mohr circle takes the form of


Question 43:

The straight line shown depicts the failure criterion of a rock type. The values of stress at points A and B are as shown. The safety factor at the points A and B respectively are

  • (A) 1.175 and 0.755
  • (B) 1.324 and 0.851
  • (C) 0.851 and 1.324
  • (D) 0.755 and 1.175

Question 44:

Figure shown relates to the manufacture of roof bolts. With respect to the cost/revenue vs production level, match the appropriate trend line with corresponding description.

  • (A) (P)-(1); (R)-(3); (S)-(2)
  • (B) (P)-(2); (R)-(1); (S)-(3)
  • (C) (P)-(1); (R)-(2); (S)-(3)
  • (D) (P)-(3); (R)-(1); (S)-(2)

Question 45:

The value of \[ \lim_{x \to \infty} \left(x \sqrt{x^2 + b^2} - \sqrt{x^4 + b^4}\right) is \]

  • (A) 0.
  • (B) \( \frac{b^2}{2} \)
  • (C) \( \infty \)
  • (D) \( b^2 \)

Question 46:

In order to check whether iron ore is supplied to the specification of 62% Fe, a steel company has conducted a hypothesis test with the null hypothesis as \( H_0: \mu_{Fe} = 62% \) and alternative hypothesis \( H_a: \mu_{Fe} < 62% \). A random sample of 5 observations reveal the following grade values of the lot: 58%, 56%, 60%, 64%, 62%. The t-test statistic for the hypothesis is

  • (A) \( -3.000 \)
  • (B) \( 1.414 \)
  • (C) \( -1.414 \)
  • (D) \( 3.000 \)

Question 47:

Production planning of a small quarry having 3 years of life is shown in the figure.
The following information of revenue and cost data are available.

Selling price of ore = Rs. 1500/tonne
Ore mining cost = Rs. 500/tonne
Waste mining cost = Rs. 500/m\(^3\)
Initial capital = Rs. 1000 million
Discount rate = 10%
By neglecting depreciation, salvage value and corporate tax, the NPV of the mining project, in million Rs., is ________.
[round off to 2 decimal places]


Question 48:

A triangular distributed load is applied on top of a beam as shown in the figure.
The value of the maximum bending moment in kN-m is ____. (round off to 2 decimal places)


Question 49:

For a dumpy level, the bubble tube has sensitivity of 40" for one division.
While taking a staff reading at a distance of 60 m, the bubble is out of centre by 2 divisions.
The error in staff reading in mm is ____. (round off to one decimal place)


Question 50:

On an old plan of scale 1:1000, leasehold area of a mine is now measured as 802 cm^2 using a planimeter. The plan is found to have shrunk, such that the original line of 10 cm is now measured as 9.8 cm on the plan. True lease hold mine area, in m^2 is ________ (round off to the nearest integer).


Question 51:

CO is released from a point source on a level ground at a rate of 25 g/s. The average wind speed is 5 m/s. The dispersion coefficients are 150 m and 200 m in horizontal and vertical directions, respectively, at a receiver station located on the ground along the downwind direction. Assuming the plume follows Gaussian dispersion model, the concentration of CO, in \, \mu g/m^3 at the station is ________ (round off to 2 decimal places).


Question 52:

Assume that COVID-19 growth rate of number of infections per day (c) in a certain population is represented by the following differential equation. \[ 100 \frac{dc}{dt} - 7c = 0 \]

Where, t stands for time in days. Time taken for the number of infections per day to double, in days, is ________ (round off to the nearest integer).


Question 53:

Ore is hoisted from 620 m depth using a single skip of 7 tonne pay load. The skip winding system has constant acceleration/deceleration of 1 m/s\(^2\) and a constant speed of 10 m/s. The skip loading time and unloading time are 120 s and 60 s, respectively. Considering the overall utilization of the skip as 70%, the maximum daily capacity of the winding system, in tonne, is ____. (round off to the nearest integer)


Question 54:

In an analysis of fragmented blast muck, the mean fragment size is found to be 60 cm with uniformity index of 1.25. Considering Rosin-Ramler equation, the cumulative mass fraction, in percent, to pass the grizzly screen size of 100 cm is ____. (round off to 2 decimal places)


Question 55:

A single-acting reciprocating ram pump, while running at 120 rpm, delivers water at a rate of 10 litres per second. Considering the ram diameter is 150 mm and stroke length is 300 mm, the volumetric efficiency of the pump, in percent, is ____. (round off to one decimal place)


Question 56:

In a sand stowing arrangement, the slurry has a sand concentration of 35% by volume. The specific gravity of sand grain is 2.6. The concentration of sand by weight, in percent, in the slurry is ____. (round off to one decimal place)


Question 57:

In a surface mine, third bench from the pit bottom is blasted, as shown in the figure.
The width, height, and slope angle of each bench are 8 m, 6 m, and 80\(^\circ\), respectively.
A fly rock is projected at an angle of 45\(^\circ\) with the horizontal with initial velocity, v.
If the acceleration due to gravity is 10 m/s\(^2\), then the minimum velocity (v) in m/s required for the fly rock to reach just beyond toe of the pit slope is ____. (round off to 2 decimal places)



Question 58:

Injury experience is studied in an underground coal mine with a random sample of 132 workers. The results of the study are tabulated below.

The odds ratio of experiencing an injury by the roof-bolter operators when compared to the loader operators is ____. (round off to 2 decimal places)


Question 59:

A random variable \( X \) is defined by \[ X = \begin{cases} -2 & with probability \, \frac{1}{3},
3 & with probability \, \frac{1}{2},
1 & with probability \, \frac{1}{6}. \end{cases} \]
The value of \( E(X^2) \) is ________ (round off to one decimal place).


Question 60:

A project network consists of the following activities

If the project completion time is 30 days, then the value of \( X \), in days, is ________ (in integer).


Question 61:

Rate of fuel consumption \( f_c \) (litres per hour) of a truck varies with truck speed \( x \), (kmph) as given below \[ f_c = 20 + \frac{x^2}{50} \]
The fuel price is Rs. 70 per litre. Other costs amount to Rs. 500 per hour. If the truck travels 100 km from a coal mine to a thermal plant, the speed of the truck, in kmph, that minimizes the total cost is ________ (round off to one decimal place).


Question 62:

A cement company has three factories which transport cement to four distribution centres. The daily production of each factory, the demand at each distribution centre, and the associated transportation cost per tonne from factory to distribution centre are given in the Table.


Question 63:

The grade-tonnage distribution for the ultimate pit of a mine is given below.

The mill cut-off grade is 0.5% Cu. The annual mining capacity (ore + waste) is 4.5 million tonne and milling capacity is 1.0 million tonne. Excavation is planned in such a way that either the mine or the mill runs at full capacity throughout. The planned life of the mine, in years, is ____. (round off to one decimal place)


Question 64:

A coal mine operating in three shifts produces 400 tonnes of coal per day with a face OMS of 1.0 from panel A, and 200 tonnes of coal with face OMS of 1.0 from panel B. The panel A and panel B are in parallel with resistance 0.6 Ns^2\text{m^8 and 0.5 Ns^2\text{m^8, respectively. If the panels are supplied with minimum permissible quantity as per CMR 2018, the requisite regulator resistance to meet the conditions in Ns^2\text{m^8 is ________ (round off to 2 decimal places).


Question 65:

A set of three steel bars of equal cross-sectional area of 0.01 m^2 are loaded, as shown in the figure. The elastic modulus of steel is 200 GPa. The overall change of length of the complete set of bars, in mm, is ________ (round off to 3 decimal places).



Quick Links:

GATE 2021 MN Paper Analysis

Questions appeared from Mine Environment and Mine System were the easiest questions to attempt.

Follow the below-mentioned table in order to get the complete analysis of GATE 2021 MN question paper-

Types of Questions Questions Frequency Carried Marks
No. Of 1 mark MCQ 24 24
No. Of 2 marks MCQs 16 32
No. Of 1 mark MSQs - -
No. Of 2 marks MSQs - -
No. Of 1 mark NATs 6 6
No. Of 2 marks NATs 19 38
  • The overall difficulty level of General Aptitude was easy
  • Questions specifically related MN were difficult in nature
  • None of the questions listed from the newly introduced MSQs in GATE 2021 MN
  • MCQs were accountable for 56%, while NATs carried the remaining 44% in GATE 2021 MN

Also Check:

GATE 2021 MN Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

From the year 2021, MSQs were introduced in the GATE examinations. Unlike MCQs, MSQs doesn't come with a negative marking scheme.

  • 1-2 marks would be rewarded for every correct answer
  • ⅓ and ⅔ marks would be deducted for every wrong MCQs
  • MSQs and NATs are exempted for negative marking
  • The qualifying cutoff for GATE 2021 MN goes to 32.7, 29.4, and 21.8 for General, OBC, and SC/ST candidates respectively
  • A candidate should score a minimum of 51-55 marks to clear the cutoff of the reputed institutions

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