Candidates can view GATE 2021 Textile Engineering and Fiber Science (TF) Question Paper with Solutions GATE Exam Pattern for PI PDFs 2021 which was held in forenoon session from 9:30 AM to 12.30 PM. GATE 2021 TF question paper with solution key contains the correct answers to all of the exam's questions. Students can determine their likely score using the answer key and the exam's marking scheme.

It is critical to become familiar with previous years' GATE question papers in order to gain a thorough understanding of the exam format and syllabus. Although, detailed analysis of GATE TF 2021 question paper with answer key PDF is not available at the moment, according to the reports by students, estimated analysis was done.

GATE 2021 Textile Engineering and Fiber Science (TF) Question Paper with Solutions

GATE 2021 Textile Engineering and Fiber Science (TF) Question Paper download iconDownload Check Solutions



Question 1:

The ratio of boys to girls in a class is 7 to 3. Among the options below, an acceptable value for the total number of students in the class is:

  • (A) 21
  • (B) 37
  • (C) 50
  • (D) 73

Question 2:

A polygon is convex if, for every pair of points inside the polygon, the line segment joining them lies completely inside or on the polygon. Which one of the following is NOT a convex polygon?


Question 3:

Consider the following sentences:
(i) Everybody in the class is prepared for the exam.
(ii) Babu invited Danish to his home because he enjoys playing chess.
Which of the following is the CORRECT observation about the above two sentences?

  • (A) (i) is grammatically correct and (ii) is unambiguous
  • (B) (i) is grammatically incorrect and (ii) is unambiguous
  • (C) (i) is grammatically correct and (ii) is ambiguous
  • (D) (i) is grammatically incorrect and (ii) is ambiguous

Question 4:

A circular sheet of paper is folded along the lines in the directions shown. The paper, after being punched in the final folded state as shown and unfolded in the reverse order of folding, will look like \hspace{2cm}.



Question 5:

_____ is to surgery as writer is to _____

Which one of the following options maintains a similar logical relation in the above sentence?

  • (A) Plan, outline
  • (B) Hospital, library
  • (C) Doctor, book
  • (D) Medicine, grammar

Question 6:

We have 2 rectangular sheets of paper, M and N, of dimensions 6 cm × 1 cm each. Sheet M is rolled to form an open cylinder by bringing the short edges of the sheet together. Sheet N is cut into equal square patches and assembled to form the largest possible closed cube. Assuming the ends of the cylinder are closed, the ratio of the volume of the cylinder to that of the cube is:

  • (A) \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{3}{\pi}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{9}{\pi}\)
  • (D) \(3\pi\)

Question 7:

Details of prices of two items P and Q are presented in the above table. The ratio of cost of item P to cost of item Q is 3:4. Discount is calculated as the difference between the marked price and the selling price. The profit percentage is calculated as the ratio of the difference between selling price and cost, to the cost.

The formula for Profit Percentage is:
Profit % = \frac{Selling Price - Cost}{Cost} \times 100
The discount on item Q, as a percentage of its marked price, is:

  • (A) 25
  • (B) 12.5
  • (C) 10
  • (D) 5

Question 8:

There are five bags each containing identical sets of ten distinct chocolates. One chocolate is picked from each bag. The probability that at least two chocolates are identical is:

  • (A) 0.3024
  • (B) 0.4235
  • (C) 0.6976
  • (D) 0.8125

Question 9:

Given below are two statements 1 and 2, and two conclusions I ans II.
Statement 1: All bacteria are microorganisms.
Statement 2: All pathogens are microorganisms.
Conclusion I: Some pathogens are bacteria.
Conclusion II: All pathogens are not bacteria.
Based on the given statements and conclusions, which option is logically correct?

  • (A) Only conclusion I is correct
  • (B) Only conclusion II is correct
  • (C) Either conclusion I or II is correct
  • (D) Neither conclusion I nor II is correct

Question 10:

Some people suggest anti-obesity measures (AOM) such as displaying calorie information in restaurant menus. Such measures sidestep addressing the core problems that cause obesity: poverty and income inequality. Which one of the following statements summarizes the passage?

  • (A) The poposed AOM addresses the core problems that cause obesity.
  • (B) If obesity reduces, poverty will reduce.
  • (C) AOM are addressing core problems and likely to succeed.
  • (D) AOM are addressing the problem superficially.

Question 11:

Let the function \( f(x, y) \) be defined as \[ f(x, y) = \begin{cases} \frac{y}{|y|} \sqrt{2x^2 + 3y^2}, & y \neq 0
0, & y = 0 \end{cases} \]
Then \( \frac{\partial f}{\partial y} (0, 0) \) is equal to

  • (A) \( \sqrt{2} \)
  • (B) \( \sqrt{3} \)
  • (C) 0
  • (D) 1

Question 12:

If a continuous random variable \( X \) has the following probability density function \[ g(x) = \begin{cases} \frac{k}{4} x(2 - x), & 0 < x < 2
0, & otherwise \end{cases} \]
then the value of \( k \) is

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4

Question 13:

The smallest positive real number \( \lambda \), for which the following problem \[ y''(x) + \lambda y(x) = 0, \quad y'(0) = 0, \quad y(1) = 0 \]
has a non-zero solution, is

  • (A) \( \pi^2 \)
  • (B) \( \frac{\pi^2}{2} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{\pi^2}{4} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{\pi^2}{8} \)

Question 14:

The gummy substance present in raw silk fibre is

  • (A) Serine
  • (B) Fibroin
  • (C) Keratin
  • (D) Sericin

Question 15:

The technique used for producing viscose rayon is

  • (A) Melt spinning
  • (B) Wet spinning
  • (C) Dry spinning
  • (D) Dry-jet wet spinning

Question 16:

The yarn manufacturing technology that uses perforated drums for twisting is

  • (A) Ring spinning
  • (B) Rotor spinning
  • (C) Friction spinning
  • (D) Air-jet spinning

Question 17:

In roving frame, the distance between top and bottom aprons at the exit point is maintained by

  • (A) Spacer
  • (B) Trumpet
  • (C) Condenser
  • (D) Pressure-bar

Question 18:

Fabric structure related to weft knitting is

  • (A) Locknit
  • (B) Reverse locknit
  • (C) Double tricot
  • (D) 1x1 Rib

Question 19:

The nonwoven technology which uses high-pressure water jets is

  • (A) Needlepunched
  • (B) Spunlacing
  • (C) Spunbonding
  • (D) Meltblowing

Question 20:

Cotton fibre length variation can be expressed by

  • (A) Uniformity index
  • (B) Limit irregularity
  • (C) U%
  • (D) Index of irregularity

Question 21:

A high value of drape coefficient indicates

  • (A) Limp fabric
  • (B) Stiff fabric
  • (C) Compressible fabric
  • (D) Smooth fabric

Question 22:

The process for removal of protruding fibres from fabric surface is

  • (A) Desizing
  • (B) Scouring
  • (C) Souring
  • (D) Singeing

Question 23:

Dimethylol dihydroxy ethylene urea (DMDHEU) is a

  • (A) Crease-resist agent
  • (B) Flame retardant
  • (C) Softener
  • (D) Soil repellent

Question 24:

Suppose \[ u(x, t) = \frac{1}{2} \left[ g(x + ct) + g(x - ct) \right] \]
is a solution of the following initial value problem of the wave equation \[ u_{tt} = 9 u_{xx}, \quad u(x, 0) = g(x), \quad u_t(x, 0) = 0. \]
Then the value of \( c^2 \) is ________ (round off to 2 decimal places).


Question 25:

If the numerical solution of the initial value problem \[ y' = \frac{t^2}{t + y^3}, \quad y(0) = 1, \]
is obtained by the Euler's method with step size of 0.2, then the value of \( y(0.4) \), (rounded off to two decimal places), is ________.


Question 26:

Assuming the atomic mass of H = 1, C = 12, N = 14, and O = 16, the molecular mass of a repeat unit of Nylon 6 fibre is ________.


Question 27:

A textile filament records a tensile stress of 0.3 GPa at a tensile strain of 0.04. Assuming Hookean behavior, the tensile modulus (GPa) of the filament, (rounded off to one decimal place), is ________.


Question 28:

Number of fibres, each of 40 mm length and 0.16 tex fineness, in a tuft of 24 mg mass is ________.


Question 29:

Twist (turns per inch) of a cotton yarn of 36 Ne count produced with a twist multiplier of 3.5 inch\(^{-1}\).Ne\(^{-0.5}\) is ________.


Question 30:

In winding, if traverse speed and package surface speed are the same, the angle of wind (in degree) is ________.


Question 31:

During air-jet weft insertion, if the diameter of the yarn increases by 20%, then the percentage increase in drag force acting on the yarn would be ________.


Question 32:

If the ratio of the linear densities (denier) of two circular fibers is 3, the corresponding ratio of their diameters, (rounded off to two decimal places), is ________.


Question 33:

If the sample size (n) is 25 and the standard deviation (σ) of population is 2, then the standard error (SE) of sample mean, (rounded off to one decimal place), is ________.


Question 34:

The wet expression for a padding mangle is set at 80 %. If the add-on of a flame retardant chemical required on the fabric is 2 %, then the concentration (g/L) of the chemical in the pad bath is ________.


Question 35:

Assuming Beer-Lambert law is applicable for dilute solutions, if the molar concentration of dye in the solution is doubled then the percentage increase in absorbance would be ________.


Question 36:

The value of \( a \), for which the following system of equations \[ 2x + y + 3z = a, \quad x + z = 2, \quad y + z = 2, \]
is consistent, is

  • (A) 6
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 2

Question 37:

If the function \( f(x, y) \) is defined by \[ f(x, y) = x^3 - \frac{3}{2} x^2 y^2 + y^3, \quad x, y \in \mathbb{R}, \]
then

  • (A) Neither \( (0, 0) \) nor \( (1, 1) \) is a critical point
  • (B) \( (0, 0) \) is a critical point but \( (1, 1) \) is NOT a critical point
  • (C) \( (0, 0) \) is NOT a critical point but \( (1, 1) \) is a critical point
  • (D) \( (0, 0) \) and \( (1, 1) \) are both critical points

Question 38:

Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and Reason [r]:
Assertion: Draw texturing of isotactic polypropylene (POY) at a relatively high speed is possible despite high crystallinity of the feeder yarn.
Reason: Isotactic polypropylene (POY) has majorly smectic mesomorphic phase.

  • (A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]
  • (B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]
  • (C) Both [a] and [r] are false
  • (D) [a] is true but [r] is false

Question 39:

Group I gives a list of fibres and Group II contains their applications. Match the fibre with its application.

  • (A) P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3
  • (B) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2
  • (C) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3
  • (D) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2

Question 40:

Techniques used for determination of orientation in fibres from amongst the followings are
P. Birefringence measurement
Q. Scanning electron microscopy
R. X-ray diffraction
S. Differential scanning calorimetry

  • (A) P and Q
  • (B) P and R
  • (C) Q and R
  • (D) Q and S

Question 41:

In a modern high-performance blowroom line, the correct sequence of machines is

  • (A) Automatic bale opener → Blender → Coarse cleaner → Fine cleaner
  • (B) Automatic bale opener → Blender → Fine cleaner → Coarse cleaner
  • (C) Automatic bale opener → Coarse cleaner → Fine cleaner → Blender
  • (D) Automatic bale opener → Coarse cleaner → Blender → Fine cleaner

Question 42:

As compared to cylinder, doffer has

  • (A) Lower rotational speed and lower wire point density
  • (B) Lower rotational speed and higher wire point density
  • (C) Higher rotational speed and lower wire point density
  • (D) Higher rotational speed and higher wire point density

Question 43:

Assuming no fibre loss in draw frame, if draft is equal to doubling then the delivered sliver, as compared to fed sliver, will exhibit

  • (A) Decreased mass variation and higher linear density
  • (B) Increased mass variation and lower linear density
  • (C) Improved fibre orientation without change in linear density
  • (D) Poor fibre orientation without change in linear density

Question 44:

Group I gives a list of loom motions and Group II contains loom systems. Match the motion from Group I with the corresponding system from Group II.

  • (A) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2
  • (B) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
  • (C) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2
  • (D) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

Question 45:

Group I gives a list of terms related to woven fabrics and Group II contains equivalent terms related to knitted fabrics. Match the term from Group I with the equivalent term from Group II.

  • (A) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4
  • (B) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4
  • (C) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4
  • (D) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2

Question 46:

Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and Reason [r]
Assertion: In shuttle loom, late shedding is preferred for filament weaving.
Reason: In late shedding, the timing of shed dwell matches with the timing of shuttle travel through the shed, and therefore, it minimizes the rubbing of warp yarns.

  • (A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]
  • (B) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is not the correct reason for [a]
  • (C) Both [a] and [r] are false
  • (D) [a] is true but [r] is false

Question 47:

The typical shapes of comb sorter diagram and fibrogram of polyester fibres of equal cut length will be

  • (A) Triangular and rectangular respectively
  • (B) Rectangular and triangular respectively
  • (C) Rectangular and S-shaped respectively
  • (D) S-shaped and triangular respectively

Question 48:

In Classimat system, the yarn fault H2, as compared to yarn fault C3, is

  • (A) Thicker and longer
  • (B) Thicker and shorter
  • (C) Thinner and longer
  • (D) Thinner and shorter

Question 49:

Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and Reason [r]
Assertion: Application of an optical brightening agent makes the white fabrics appear brighter.
Reason: Optical brightening agents absorb energy in the visible region and radiate back in the UV region.

  • (A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]
  • (B) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is not the correct reason for [a]
  • (C) Both [a] and [r] are false
  • (D) [a] is true but [r] is false

Question 50:

Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and Reason [r]
Assertion: Nylon is dyed with acid dyes in the acidic medium.
Reason: Nylon assumes positive charge in the acidic medium and thus attracts the negatively charged acid dye molecules.

  • (A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]
  • (B) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is not the correct reason for [a]
  • (C) Both [a] and [r] are false
  • (D) [a] is true but [r] is false

Question 51:

Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and Reason [r]:
Assertion: Discharge printing of dyed polyester fabric is not possible.
Reason: The discharging agents damage the polyester fibers significantly.

  • (A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]
  • (B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]
  • (C) Both [a] and [r] are false
  • (D) [a] is true but [r] is false

Question 52:

If 3 and 6 are eigenvalues of the matrix \[ \begin{pmatrix} 5 & 2 & 0 \\
2 & \mu & 0 \\
-3 & 4 & 6 \end{pmatrix} \]
then the value of \( \mu \) is ________.


Question 53:

If \( y(x) \) is a solution of \[ x^2 y'' - 4 x y' + 6 y = 0, \quad y(-1) = 1, \quad y'(-1) = 0, \]
then the value of \( y(2) \) is ________.


Question 54:

In melt spinning, the mass throughput rate of polymer is 210 g/min, the winding speed is 3000 m/min, and the linear density of the yarn produced is 200 denier. The effective draw ratio, (rounded off to two decimal places), is ________.


Question 55:

The molecular weight (M) of a polymer is determined from Mark-Houwink equation by using coefficient \( K = 11.5 \times 10^{-3} \) ml/g and exponent \( a = 0.73 \). If the measured intrinsic viscosity \( [\eta] \) of the solution is \( 6.0 \times 10^2 \) ml/g then the value of \( M \times 10^{-6} \), (rounded off to two decimal places), is ________.


Question 56:

A roving of 2 Ne count is fed to a ringframe set with a mechanical draft of 30. If the length of the drafted strand delivered from the nip of the front rollers is reduced by 3% due to twist then the count (Ne) of the yarn, (rounded off to one decimal place), is ________.


Question 57:

In a 3 over 3 drafting arrangement, the diameter of all bottom rollers is 28 mm. The back zone draft is 1.3 and the front zone draft is 6. If the back bottom roller is eccentric then the wavelength (mm) of the resulting fault in the drawn sliver, (rounded off to two decimal places), is ________.


Question 58:

For a given woven fabric, fractional cover is 0.5 for both warp and weft. The fractional cover of the fabric, (rounded off to two decimal places), is ________.


Question 59:

For a shuttle loom, producing plain woven fabric, if each of the dwell periods of the shedding cam corresponds to one-third of crank shaft rotation, the sum of the two dwell periods of the cam (in degree) is ________.


Question 60:

If the moisture regain (%) and moisture content (%) of a fibre are the same then the value of moisture regain (%) is ________.


Question 61:

Mass of 120 yards of cotton yarn is 3 g. The count (Ne) of yarn, (rounded off to one decimal place), is ________.


Question 62:

A woven fabric with areal density of 300 g/m\(^2\) is tested by strip tensile test method, keeping the specimen width as 5 cm and gauge length as 25 cm. If the breaking load is 900 N, the tenacity (cN/tex) of the fabric is ________.


Question 63:

A counter-flow heat exchanger is attached to a stenter for waste heat recovery.

Given data:
Ambient temperature, \( T_1 = 30^\circ C \)
Temperature of exhaust from stenter, \( T_2 = 150^\circ C \)
Temperature of exhaust at exit of heat exchanger, \( T_3 = 100^\circ C \)
Specific heat of exhaust gas, \( C_p = 0.42 \, kcal \cdot deg^{-1} \cdot kg^{-1} \)
Specific heat of air, \( C_a = 0.24 \, kcal \cdot deg^{-1} \cdot kg^{-1} \)


Question 64:

Consider the following isotherms at equilibrium for two disperse dyes \( D_1 \) and \( D_2 \) dyed on polyester. If the partition coefficients of these are \( K_1 \) and \( K_2 \), respectively, the value of \[ \frac{K_2}{K_1} is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. \]




Quick Links:

GATE 2021 TF Paper Analysis

  • GATE TF 2021, 13 February exam consists pattern of questions which includessomeMultiple Choice Questions (MCQ),Multiple Select Questions (MSQ),and/orNumerical Answer Type (NAT)questions.
  • GATE TF 2021 paper was conducted for 100 marks, out of which 70 queestions were subjects specific and remaining 30 marks consisted Engineering mathematics and general aptitude.
  • Numerical Type does not have any negative markings. However, every incorrect response will result in a 1/3rd negative marking for 1 marks and 2/3rd negative marking for 2 mark MCQ questions.
  • As per the reports it was found that GATE TF 2021 paper was moderate to difficult in nature. Students were able to answer 50-60 questions.

Also Check:

GATE Previous Year Question Papers:

Other PG Exam Question Papers: