GATE 2022 Biomedical Engineering (BM) Question Paper with Solutions PDFs are ready to download. The exam was conducted by IIT Kharagpur on 5th February, 2022 in the Morning slot. GATE 2022 BM Question Paper comprising 65 questions. 10 questions were related to General Aptitude, while the rest of the 55 questions were related to core engineering subjects. The overall difficulty level of the paper stands at moderately difficult. Topics such as Biomedical Electronic Circuit Analog, Human Anatomy, Psychology, Digital Electronics, Biomechanics hold the highest weightage in the exam.

GATE 2022 Biomedical Engineering (BM) Question Paper with
Solutions

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GATE 2022 Biomedical Engineering (BM) Question Paper with Solutions


Question 1:

The _________ is too high for it to be considered _________.

  • (A) fair / fare
  • (B) faer / fair
  • (C) fare / fare
  • (D) fare / fair

Question 2:

A function \( y(x) \) is defined in the interval [0, 1] on the x-axis as
\[ y(x) = \begin{cases} 2 & if 0 \leq x < \frac{1}{3}
3 & if \frac{1}{3} \leq x < \frac{3}{4}
1 & if \frac{3}{4} \leq x \leq 1 \end{cases} \]
Which one of the following is the area under the curve for the interval [0, 1] on the x-axis?

  • (A) \( \frac{5}{6} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{6}{5} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{13}{6} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{6}{13} \)

Question 3:

Let \(r\) be a root of the equation \(x^2 + 2x + 6 = 0\). Then the value of the expression \((r+2)(r+3)(r+4)(r+5)\) is

  • (A) 51
  • (B) \(-51\)
  • (C) 126
  • (D) \(-126\)

Question 4:

Given below are four statements.

Statement 1: All students are inquisitive.
Statement 2: Some students are inquisitive.
Statement 3: No student is inquisitive.
Statement 4: Some students are not inquisitive.

From the given four statements, find the two statements that CANNOT BE TRUE simultaneously, assuming that there is at least one student in the class.

  • (A) Statement 1 and Statement 3
  • (B) Statement 1 and Statement 2
  • (C) Statement 2 and Statement 4
  • (D) Statement 3 and Statement 4

Question 5:

A palindrome is a word that reads the same forwards and backwards. In a game of words, a player has the following two plates painted with letters.
\[ \boxed{A} \qquad \boxed{D} \]
From the additional plates given in the options, which one of the combinations of additional plates would allow the player to construct a five-letter palindrome? The player should use all the five plates exactly once. The plates can be rotated in their plane.


Question 6:

Some people believe that “what gets measured, improves”. Some others believe that “what gets measured, gets gamed”. One possible reason for the difference in the beliefs is the work culture in organizations. In organizations with good work culture, metrics help improve outcomes. However, the same metrics are counterproductive in organizations with poor work culture.
Which one of the following is the CORRECT logical inference based on the information in the above passage?

  • (A) Metrics are useful in organizations with poor work culture
  • (B) Metrics are useful in organizations with good work culture
  • (C) Metrics are always counterproductive in organizations with good work culture
  • (D) Metrics are never useful in organizations with good work culture

Question 7:

In a recently conducted national entrance test, boys constituted 65% of those who appeared for the test. Girls constituted the remaining candidates and they accounted for 60% of the qualified candidates.

Which one of the following is the correct logical inference based on the information provided in the above passage?

  • (A) Equal number of boys and girls qualified
  • (B) Equal number of boys and girls appeared for the test
  • (C) The number of boys who appeared for the test is less than the number of girls who appeared
  • (D) The number of boys who qualified the test is less than the number of girls who qualified

Question 8:

A box contains five balls of same size and shape. Three of them are green coloured balls and two of them are orange coloured balls. Balls are drawn from the box one at a time. If a green ball is drawn, it is not replaced. If an orange ball is drawn, it is replaced with another orange ball. First ball is drawn. What is the probability of getting an orange ball in the next draw?

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{8}{25}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{19}{50}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{23}{50}\)

Question 9:

The corners and mid-points of the sides of a triangle are named using the distinct letters P, Q, R, S, T, and U, but not necessarily in the same order. Consider the following statements:
The line joining P and R is parallel to the line joining Q and S.
P is placed on the side opposite to the corner T.
S and U cannot be placed on the same side.
Which one of the following statements is correct based on the above information?

  • (A) P cannot be placed at a corner
  • (B) S cannot be placed at a corner
  • (C) U cannot be placed at a mid-point
  • (D) R cannot be placed at a corner

Question 10:

A plot of land must be divided between four families. They want their individual plots to be similar in shape, not necessarily equal in area. The land has equally spaced poles, marked as dots in the below figure. Two ropes, R1 and R2, are already present and cannot be moved.
What is the least number of additional straight ropes needed to create the desired plots? A single rope can pass through three poles that are aligned in a straight line.

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 5
  • (D) 3

Question 11:

If the given matrices \[ A = \begin{bmatrix} 3 & -2
4 & -2 \end{bmatrix}, \quad I = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0
0 & 1 \end{bmatrix} \]
satisfy
\[
A^{2 = kA - 2I, \text{ the value of coefficient k \text{ is _________.

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 0
  • (D) 4

Question 12:

Evaluation of the integral \[ \int \frac{dx}{\sqrt{2x - x^2}} \]
results in

  • (A) \(\sin^{-1}(x-1) + c\)
  • (B) \(\cos^{-1}(x-1) + c\)
  • (C) \(\sin^{-1}\left(\frac{x}{2}\right) + c\)
  • (D) \(\cos^{-1}\left(\frac{x}{2}\right) + c\)

Question 13:

If \(\vec{V} = a\hat{i} + b\hat{j} + c\hat{k}\), identify the INVALID operation on \(\vec{V}\).

  • (A) \(\nabla \cdot \nabla \times (\vec{V})\)
  • (B) \(\nabla \times \nabla \cdot (\vec{V})\)
  • (C) \(\nabla(\nabla \cdot (\vec{V}))\)
  • (D) \(\nabla \times \vec{V}\)

Question 14:

\(x(t)\) is a real continuous-time signal whose magnitude frequency response (\(|X(j\omega)|\)) is shown below. After sampling \(x(t)\) at \(100\ rad s^{-1}\), the spectral point P is down-converted to _________ rad·s\(^{-1}\) in the spectrum of the sampled signal.

  • (A) 12.5
  • (B) 25
  • (C) 6.25
  • (D) 37.5

Question 15:

Discrete signals \( x[n] \) and \( y[n] \) are shown below. The cross-correlation \( r_{xy}[0] \) is _________

  • (A) \( 2\sqrt{2} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{1}{2\sqrt{2}} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \)

Question 16:

In the circuit diagram shown below, the logic gates operate with a supply voltage of 1 V. NAND and XNOR have 200 ps and 400 ps input-to-output delay, respectively.
At time \( t = T \), \( A(t) = 0 \), \( B(t) = 1 \) and \( Z(t) = 0 \). When the inputs are changed to \( A(t) = 1 \), \( B(t) = 0 \) at \( t = 2T \), a 1 V pulse is observed at \( Z \). The pulse width of the 1 V pulse is _________ ps.

  • (A) 100
  • (B) 200
  • (C) 400
  • (D) 600

Question 17:

Input bits X and Y are added by using the combinational logic as shown below. S represents the sum of the two bits. For a correct implementation of the sum, the signals \(D_0, D_1, D_2, D_3\) are _________, respectively.

  • (A) 1, 0, 0, 1
  • (B) 0, 1, 0, 1
  • (C) 1, 0, 1, 1
  • (D) 0, 1, 1, 0

Question 18:

The time delay between the peaks of the voltage signals \( v_1(t) = 2\cos(6t + 60^\circ) \) and \( v_2(t) = -3\sin(6t) \) is \underline{\hspace{1cm s.

  • (A) \( \frac{300\pi}{360} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{10\pi}{360} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{50\pi}{360} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{200\pi}{360} \)

Question 19:

For the balanced Owen-bridge circuit shown in the figure, the values of \(L_x\) and \(R_x\) are:

  • (A) \(L_x = \frac{R_2 R_3}{C_3}, R_x = \frac{R_2 C_1}{C_3}\)
  • (B) \(L_x = R_2 R_3 C_1, R_x = \frac{R_2 C_1}{C_3}\)
  • (C) \(L_x = R_2 R_3 C_1, R_x = \frac{R_2 C_3}{C_1}\)
  • (D) \(L_x = \frac{R_2 R_3}{C_3}, R_x = R_2 C_1 C_3\)

Question 20:

Myopia occurs when the focal point falls _________ the retina. This can be corrected using a _________ lens.

  • (A) in front of, convex
  • (B) behind, convex
  • (C) in front of, concave
  • (D) behind, concave

Question 21:

Choose the correct sequence for the direction of blood flow in a healthy human being starting and ending with the left ventricle.

  • (A) Left ventricle → Aorta → Systemic arteries → Systemic veins → Vena cavae → Pulmonary vein → Pulmonary artery → Right ventricle → Left ventricle
  • (B) Left ventricle → Aorta → Systemic arteries → Systemic veins → Vena cavae → Right ventricle → Pulmonary artery → Pulmonary vein → Left ventricle
  • (C) Left ventricle → Systemic arteries → Aorta → Systemic veins → Right ventricle → Pulmonary artery → Pulmonary vein → Left ventricle
  • (D) Left ventricle → Aorta → Systemic arteries → Vena cavae → Systemic veins → Right ventricle → Pulmonary artery → Pulmonary vein → Left ventricle

Question 22:

In a healthy adult, which one of the following regions of the brain contains primarily white matter?

  • (A) Cerebral cortex
  • (B) Basal ganglia
  • (C) Limbic system
  • (D) Corpus callosum

Question 23:

Skeletal muscles are recruited to lift loads. If the force generated in the muscle due to contraction is not sufficient to lift the load, it is known as _________ contraction.

  • (A) Isometric
  • (B) Isotonic
  • (C) Isokinetic
  • (D) Isoinertial

Question 24:

Backscattered electron detector of a scanning electron microscope is used to

  • (A) study surface topography of the sample
  • (B) quantify surface roughness
  • (C) measure atomic number
  • (D) contrast areas with different chemical compositions

Question 25:

In MRI, the terms T1 and T2 time constants are crucial for obtaining suitable weighted images. Choose the correct explanation.

  • (A) T1 is the spin-lattice or longitudinal relaxation time, and T2 is the spin-spin or transverse relaxation time
  • (B) T1 and T2 indicate durations of FID signals in x and y directions
  • (C) T1 and T2 refer to flipping pulse durations
  • (D) T1 is transverse relaxation time, and T2 is longitudinal relaxation time

Question 26:

Given \(x\) is real, identify all the even-functions among the following:

  • (A) \(x|x|\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{\cos(x)}{x}\)
  • (C) \(\sin(x^2)\)
  • (D) \(e^{-|x|}\)

Question 27:

An ideal coronary stent should

  • (A) be thromboresistant
  • (B) promote accumulation of smooth muscle cells
  • (C) be fatigue resistant
  • (D) support deposition of extracellular matrix

Question 28:

Which of the following statements related to the safety of biomedical instruments are TRUE?

  • (A) When a person is exposed to an electrical hazard, let-go current is defined as the maximum current at which the subject can withdraw voluntarily
  • (B) Microshock is a physiological response resulting from an electrical current passing through heart
  • (C) The patient in an intensive care unit is being exposed to the danger of microshock because of using internal conductive electrodes in the vicinity of the heart
  • (D) The 50 Hz safe current limit for a microshock is greater than 50 mA

Question 29:

Which of the following statements related to the operating principle of pulse oximetry are CORRECT?

  • (A) Pulse oximeter can non-invasively determine arterial oxygen saturation (SpO\(_2\)) by analyzing the light transmitted through the skin during the systolic phase of the blood flow through the tissue
  • (B) In a pulse oximeter, isosbestic wavelength is the wavelength at which Hb and HbO\(_2\) have same optical absorbance
  • (C) Pulse oximeter can accurately determine the SpO\(_2\) of blood by computing the ratio of absorbances at 660 nm and 905 nm wavelengths
  • (D) Pulse oximeter can accurately determine the SpO\(_2\) of blood by computing the ratio of absorbances at 850 nm and 950 nm wavelengths

Question 30:

Which of the following statements related to biomedical measurements are TRUE?

  • (A) Electrical activity of neurons in the peripheral nervous system can be measured by ENG
  • (B) Electrical activity of the retina in response to light stimulus can be measured using EOG
  • (C) In a human EEG, Gamma waves are high frequency waves compared to Beta, Delta, and Theta waves
  • (D) P wave in ECG manifests ventricular repolarization

Question 31:

Which of the following mechanical prosthetic valves were invented as a replacement for diseased heart valves?

  • (A) Globe valve
  • (B) Ball and cage valve
  • (C) Bi-leaflet valve
  • (D) Swing check valve

Question 32:

Due to the current COVID pandemic conditions, assume that positive or negative status of any individual are equally likely.
There are 3 members in a family. If one of the members has tested COVID positive, the conditional probability that at least 2 members are COVID positive is ______ (rounded off to three decimal places).


Question 33:

A series RLC circuit with \(R=10\,\Omega\), \(L=50 mH\), \(C=100\ \muF\) connected to \(200\ V\), \(50\ Hz\) supply consumes power \(P\).
The value of \(L\) is changed such that the circuit consumes the same power but operates with lagging power factor.
The new value of \(L\) is _____ mH (rounded off to two decimal places).


Question 34:

The thickness of piezoelectric crystal (PZT5A) used in ultrasound applications will determine the resonant frequency of the transducer. To work at a resonance frequency of 5 MHz, the thickness of a PZT5A transducer must be ________ mm (rounded off to three decimal places).


Question 35:

Power consumed by the \(3\,\Omega\) resistor is \(12\ W\) in the given circuit.
The value of the resistor \(R\) in the circuit is _______ \(\Omega\).


Question 36:

In the complex z-domain, the value of the integral \[ \oint_{C} \frac{z^{3} - 9}{3z - i} \, dz \]
is

  • (A) \(\frac{2\pi}{81} - 6i\pi\)
  • (B) \(\frac{2\pi}{81} + 6i\pi\)
  • (C) \(-\frac{2\pi}{81} + 6i\pi\)
  • (D) \(-\frac{2\pi}{81} - 6i\pi\)

Question 37:

Solution of the differential equation \[ \frac{dy}{dx} - y = \cos x \]
is

  • (A) \( y = \frac{\sin x - \cos x}{2} + ce^x \)
  • (B) \( y = \frac{\sin x + \cos x}{2} + ce^x \)
  • (C) \( y = \frac{\sin x - \cos x}{2} + ce^{-x} \)
  • (D) \( y = \frac{\sin x + \cos x}{2} + ce^{-x} \)

Question 38:

An input \(x(t)\) is applied to a system with a frequency transfer function given by \(H(j\omega)\) as shown. The magnitude and phase response are shown. If \(y(t_d)=0\) for \(x(t)=u(t)\), the time \(t_d (>0)\) is _________ µs.

  • (A) \(100 \ln(2)\)
  • (B) \(10 \ln(2)\)
  • (C) \(1000 \ln(2)\)
  • (D) \(\ln(2)\)

Question 39:

The block diagram of a two-tap high-pass FIR filter is shown below. The filter transfer function is given by \( H(z) = \frac{Y(z)}{X(z)} \).

If ratio of the maximum to minimum value of \( H(z) \) is 2 and \( |H(z)|_{\max} = 1 \), the coefficients \( \beta_0 \) and \( \beta_1 \) are _________ and _________, respectively.

  • (A) 0.75, –0.25
  • (B) 0.67, 0.33
  • (C) 0.60, –0.40
  • (D) –0.64, 0.36

Question 40:

The block diagrams of an ideal system and a real system with their impulse responses are shown below. An auxiliary path is added to the delayed impulse response in the real system. For a unit impulse input (\(x(t)=\delta(t)\)) to both systems, gain \(\beta\) is chosen such that \(y(4T)\) is the same for both systems. The value of \(\beta\) is _________.

  • (A) \(e^{-3\alpha T}(1-e^{-2\alpha T})\)
  • (B) \(-e^{-\alpha T}(1-e^{-3\alpha T})\)
  • (C) \(-e^{-3\alpha T}(1-e^{-\alpha T})\)
  • (D) \(e^{-2\alpha T}(1-e^{-2\alpha T})\)

Question 41:

A filter is designed using opamps, resistors, and capacitors as shown below. Opamps are ideal with infinite gain and infinite bandwidth. If \( \frac{V_o(s)}{V_i(s)} \) is an all-pass transfer function, the value of resistor R2 is _________ kΩ.

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 10
  • (C) 5
  • (D) 2

Question 42:

If \(g(t)=\dfrac{df(t)}{dt}\), and \(F(s)=\dfrac{1+s}{s^{2}+12s+32}\) where \(F(s)\) is the Laplace transform of \(f(t)\), then the value of \(g(t)\) at \(t=0\) is _________.

  • (A) -11
  • (B) -5
  • (C) -17
  • (D) \(\infty\)

Question 43:

Consider the Einthoven’s triangle of frontal ECG for the electrodes RA, LA, and LL. At the peak of the R-wave, the cardiac vector \(M\) points vertically downward with \(|M| = 5 mV\). The voltages on leads I and II are _________ mV and _________ mV, respectively.

  • (A) 0, 4.33
  • (B) 2.17, 0
  • (C) 0, 2.17
  • (D) 4.33, 0

Question 44:

Which one of the following statements is TRUE?

  • (A) A myelinated axon has a greater ATP requirement than an unmyelinated axon of the same diameter and length
  • (B) An unmyelinated axon has a greater ATP requirement than a myelinated axon of the same diameter and length
  • (C) An unmyelinated axon has the same ATP requirement as a myelinated axon of the same diameter and length
  • (D) An unmyelinated axon always has a greater ATP requirement than a myelinated axon irrespective of their diameter and length

Question 45:

The deltoid muscle connects the humerus to the shoulder blade and facilitates outstretching of the arm as shown in the figure. Assume the equivalent weight (W) of the arm to be 30 N and acts vertically down at a horizontal distance of 30 cm. Assume that the deltoid muscle is connected to the humerus at a distance of 15 cm and makes an average angle of \(20^\circ\) with the horizontal. The magnitude of tension in the deltoid muscle is _________ N.

  • (A) 31.9
  • (B) 63.8
  • (C) 87.7
  • (D) 175.4

Question 46:

For blood flow through arteries, which one of the following relations approximates the pulse wave propagation speed \( C \) as a function of the inner diameter \( D \) of the artery, wall thickness \( t \), modulus of elasticity \( E \), and fluid density \( \rho \)?

  • (A) \( C = \sqrt{\frac{E t}{\rho D}} \)
  • (B) \( C = \sqrt{\frac{\rho D}{E t}} \)
  • (C) \( C = \sqrt{\frac{\rho D^3 t^3}{E}} \)
  • (D) \( C = \sqrt{\frac{E \rho}{D t}} \)

Question 47:

A person has a total blood volume of 5 L. Out of this total, assume that 4 L is contained in the systemic circulation and 1 L in pulmonary circulation. The cardiac output of the person is 5 L.min\(^{-1}\). Time taken for a drop of blood to go from right ventricle to left ventricle is _________ s.

  • (A) 60
  • (B) 20
  • (C) 15
  • (D) 12

Question 48:

Based on the stress-strain curves of three different materials (X, Y, and Z) shown in the figure, which one of the following choices is CORRECT?

  • (A) X – Titanium, Y – Hydroxyapatite, Z – Polyethylene
  • (B) X – Hydroxyapatite, Y – Titanium, Z – Polyethylene
  • (C) X – Hydroxyapatite, Y – Polyethylene, Z – Titanium
  • (D) X – Polyethylene, Y – Titanium, Z – Hydroxyapatite

Question 49:

Consider two radionuclides P and Q. Suppose the half-life of P (\( t_{1/2}^P \)) is four times that of Q (\( t_{1/2}^Q \)). At time \( t = 0 \), there are \( N_0 \) atoms of both radionuclides. When will the radioactivity of the two radionuclides be equal?

  • (A) \( t = t_{1/2}^P \)
  • (B) \( t = 0.66\, t_{1/2}^P \)
  • (C) \( t = 0.75\, t_{1/2}^P \)
  • (D) \( t = 1.5\, t_{1/2}^P \)

Question 50:

In a biological study, the experimental values measured from 6 subjects are given in the table below. Using this data, the linear regression coefficient for estimating the weight of the heart based on the systolic pressure is ________ (rounded off to two decimal places).


Question 51:

Using divergence theorem, evaluate the integral \(\iint_{S} \vec{F} \cdot \vec{n}\, dA\), where \(S\) is the surface of the cone \(x^{2}+y^{2} \le z^{2},\ 0 \le z \le 3\). If \(\vec{F} = 4x\hat{i} + 3z\hat{j} + 5y\hat{k}\)
is a vector function with outer unit normal vector \(\vec{n}\), the value of the integral is
______ (rounded off to the nearest integer).


Question 52:

The magnitude of the current gain \(\frac{I_{load}}{I_{in}}\) in the circuit below is ______ (rounded off to two decimal places).


Question 53:

The linear temperature coefficient of the material of a wire is \(x \times 10^{-4} \, °C^{-1}\). The resistance of this wire increased from 50 \(\Omega\) at 25 °C to 60 \(\Omega\) at 75 °C. The value of \(x\) is ________ (rounded off to two decimal places).


Question 54:

A series RLC circuit is connected to 220 V, 50 Hz supply. For a fixed value of R and C, the inductor \(L\) is varied to deliver the maximum current. This value is 0.4 A and the corresponding potential drop across the capacitor is 330 V. The value of the inductor \(L\) is ______ H (rounded off to two decimal places).


Question 55:

In the circuit diagram shown below, the MOSFET is biased in the saturation region.
The MOSFET has a threshold voltage \(V_{th} = 0.5 \, V\), width \(W = 100 \, \mu m\), length \(L = 0.1 \, \mu m\), and \(\mu_n C_{ox} = 100 \, \mu A.V^{-2}\).
Assuming \(v_i = 1 \, mV\) as a small-signal input to MOSFET, the magnitude of the output voltage \(V_o\) is ______ mV (accurate to two decimal places). Ignore channel-length modulation for the MOSFET.


Question 56:

In the circuit diagram shown below, BJTs are biased with \(V_{EB} = 0.7\ V\). Neglect the base current for operating point calculations. Assume infinite input and output impedance for the BJTs.
The output voltage \(V_o\) with small input voltage \(v_i = 10\ mV\) is ______ mV (rounded off to one decimal place). The thermal voltage \(V_T = 25\ mV\) at room temperature.


Question 57:

An ideal opamp with an infinite gain and infinite bandwidth is connected in feedback as shown below. The output voltage \(V_o\) for the given input voltages in the circuit is ________ V (accurate to one decimal place).


Question 58:

Independent voltage measurements \((\mu \pm \sigma)\) of three sensors where \(\mu\) and \(\sigma\) are the mean and standard deviation of the measurements, respectively are as follows: \(v_1 = 4.52 \pm 0.02 \, V, \, v_2 = 4.21 \pm 0.20 \, V, \, v_3 = 3.96 \pm 0.15 \, V\).
The measurement uncertainty in \(v_1 + v_2 + v_3\) is ________ V (rounded off to two decimal places).


Question 59:

A moving coil voltmeter has an internal resistance of 50 \(\Omega\). The scale of the meter is divided into 100 equal divisions. When a potential of 1 V is applied to terminals of the voltmeter, a deflection of 100 divisions is obtained. However, it is desired that when a potential of 500 V is applied to the terminals, a deflection of 100 divisions should be obtained.
The value of resistance that needs to be connected in series to achieve this is ________ \(\Omega\).


Question 60:

A Hall effect flow meter is used to measure the volumetric flow through a blood vessel.
The system calculated the flow rate to be 100 cm\(^3\cdots^{-1}\).
Later, calibration revealed that (i) the voltmeter was reading 40% higher than actual, and
(ii) the caliper was measuring the vessel diameter 10% smaller than actual.
Assuming a uniform flow profile and ignoring viscosity, the actual blood flow is
_________ cm\(^3\cdots^{-1}\) (rounded off to two decimal places).


Question 61:

A catheter based arterial blood pressure measurement device uses a flexible diaphragm mounted with four identical strain gauges in a Wheatstone bridge configuration as shown in the figure. Assume that the strain gauges have a nominal resistance value of \(R_G = 10\ k\Omega\), Gauge Factor \(G = 40\) and Young’s Modulus \(E = 10\ MPa\). Blood pressure variations result in small finite change in strain \(\varepsilon (\varepsilon > 0)\).
If \(V_o\) is the output voltage of the Wheatstone bridge and \(\sigma\) is the stress in MPa, the sensitivity \[ \frac{V_o}{\sigma} \]
is ________ V.MPa\(^{-1}\).


Question 62:

A patient has a breathing rate of 18 breaths per minute, with a tidal volume of 500 mL, having an anatomical dead space of 150 mL. If the person has a heart rate of 120 beats per minute and a stroke volume of 50 mL, the alveolar ventilation to perfusion ratio is ________ (accurate to two decimal places).


Question 63:

Assume that the ratio of total blood volume in liters to total body weight in kg is 0.07 and the blood consists of plasma and RBCs only. The plasma volume of a 70-kg man with 52% hematocrit is _____ L (rounded off to two decimal places).


Question 64:

The 1st generation (1G) CT scanner uses a point X-ray source and a detector. The source-detector assembly can move linearly at a speed of 0.5 m.s\(^{-1}\) and it takes 0.5 s for source-detector assembly to rotate one angular increment, regardless of the angle.
This scanner is expected to collect 360 projections over 180° of span. The field of view used for data collection has a diameter of 0.5 m. The scan time required is _____ s.


Question 65:

The inverse square law has a very practical use in radiography. While taking an acceptable chest radiograph of a subject at a distance of 0.75 m from the X-ray generator, X-ray source settings were kept at 50 kVp, 50 mAs.
If the subject is moved to a distance of 1 m, and the kVp is kept the same, the new value of mAs to obtain the same exposure will be ________ mAs (rounded off to two decimal places).



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GATE 2022 BM Paper Analysis

The question paper was a combination of MCQs (Multiple Choice Questions), MSQs (Multiple Select Questions), and NATs (Numerical Answer Type) questions. Each question carried either 1 or 2 marks. Refer to the below-mentioned table to get details of the questions as per the carried marks-

Question Types Question Frequency Carried Marks
No. Of 1 mark MCQs 20 20
No. Of 2 mark MCQs 19 38
No. Of 1 mark MSQs 6 6
No. Of 2 marks MSQs - -
No. Of 1 mark NATs 4 4
No. Of 2 marks NATs 16 32
Total 65 100
  • There were no 2 marks carrying MSQ
  • 11 questions were from Engineering Mathematics section
  • The General Aptitude section was easier as compared to the core subjects
  • Both theoretical and conceptual questions were asked in the exam
  • An attempt between 45-50 would be considered a good attempt

Also Check:

GATE 2022 BM: Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

  • GATE 2022 BM asked both MCQs and NATs. It was held online via CBT mode
  • As per the specified marking scheme by IIT Delhi, from the final score, ⅓ and ⅔ marks would be reduced for each wrong MCQ carried 1 and 2 marks
  • Wrong attempted NATs were not supposed to bring any kind of deduction in the final achieved marks

GATE Previous Year Question Papers

Other PG Exams Question Papers