GATE 2022 Electrical Engineering (EE) Question Paper with Solutions PDFs is available for download. GATE 2022 EE was held on 5th February 2022 in the afternoon session (2:30 PM to 5:30 PM). As per the candidates, the overall difficulty level of the exam was moderate. Topics related to core electrical engineering carried 72% of the total weightage in GATE 2022 EE question paper. The exam was conducted for a total of 100 marks that were distributed between 65 questions.

Candidates preparing for GATE can download GATE 2022 EE Question Paper with Answer Key PDFs given below.

GATE 2022 Electrical Engineering (EE) Question Paper with Solutions

GATE 2022 Electrical Engineering (EE) Question Paper download iconDownload Check Solutions
GATE 2022 Electrical Engineering (EE) Question Paper with Solutions


Question 1:

As you grow older, an injury to your \hspace{2cm} may take longer to \hspace{2cm}.

  • (A) heel / heel
  • (B) heal / heel
  • (C) heal / heal
  • (D) heel / heal

Question 2:

In a 500 m race, P and Q have speeds in the ratio of 3 : 4. Q starts the race when P has already covered 140 m.
What is the distance between P and Q (in m) when P wins the race?

  • (A) 20
  • (B) 40
  • (C) 60
  • (D) 140

Question 3:

Three bells P, Q, and R are rung periodically in a school. P is rung every 20 minutes; Q is rung every 30 minutes and R is rung every 50 minutes.
If all the three bells are rung at 12:00 PM, when will the three bells ring together again the next time?

  • (A) 5:00 PM
  • (B) 5:30 PM
  • (C) 6:00 PM
  • (D) 6:30 PM

Question 4:

Given below are two statements and four conclusions drawn based on the statements.

Statement 1: Some bottles are cups.
Statement 2: All cups are knives.

Conclusion I: Some bottles are knives.
Conclusion II: Some knives are cups.
Conclusion III: All cups are bottles.
Conclusion IV: All knives are cups.

Which one of the following options can be logically inferred?

  • (A) Only conclusion I and conclusion II are correct
  • (B) Only conclusion II and conclusion III are correct
  • (C) Only conclusion II and conclusion IV are correct
  • (D) Only conclusion III and conclusion IV are correct

Question 5:

The figure below shows the front and rear view of a disc, which is shaded with identical patterns. The disc is flipped once with respect to any one of the fixed axes 1-1, 2-2, or 3-3 chosen uniformly at random.
What is the probability that the disc DOES NOT retain the same front and rear views after the flipping operation?

  • (A) 0
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
  • (D) 1

Question 6:

Altruism is the human concern for the wellbeing of others. Altruism has been shown to be motivated more by social bonding, familiarity, and identification of belongingness to a group. The notion that altruism may be attributed to empathy or guilt has now been rejected.

Which one of the following is the CORRECT logical inference based on the information in the above passage?

  • (A) Humans engage in altruism due to guilt but not empathy
  • (B) Humans engage in altruism due to empathy but not guilt
  • (C) Humans engage in altruism due to group identification but not empathy
  • (D) Humans engage in altruism due to empathy but not familiarity

Question 7:

There are two identical dice with a single letter on each of the faces. The following six letters: Q, R, S, T, U, and V, one on each of the faces. Any of the six outcomes are equally likely.
The two dice are thrown once independently at random.
What is the probability that the outcomes on the dice were composed only of any combination of the following possible outcomes: Q, U, and V?

  • (A) \( \frac{1}{4} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{3}{4} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{1}{6} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{5}{36} \)

Question 8:

The price of an item is 10% cheaper in an online store S compared to the price at another online store M. Store S charges ₹150 for delivery. There are no delivery charges for orders from store M. A person bought the item from the store S and saved ₹100.

What is the price of the item at the online store S (in ₹) if there are no other charges than what is described above?

  • (A) 2500
  • (B) 2250
  • (C) 1750
  • (D) 1500

Question 9:

The letters P, Q, R, S, T, and U are to be placed one per vertex on a regular convex hexagon, but not necessarily in the same order.
Consider the following statements:
The line segment joining R and S is longer than the line segment joining P and Q.
The line segment joining R and S is perpendicular to the line segment joining P and Q.
The line segment joining R and U is parallel to the line segment joining T and Q.
Based on the above statements, which one of the following options is CORRECT?


Question 10:

An ant is at the bottom-left corner of a grid (point P) as shown above. It aims to move to the top-right corner of the grid. The ant moves only along the lines marked in the grid such that the current distance to the top-right corner strictly decreases.
Which one of the following is part of a possible trajectory of the ant during the movement?



Question 11:

The transfer function of a real system, \( H(s) \), is given as:

\[ H(s) = \frac{As + B}{s^2 + Cs + D} \]

where \( A \), \( B \), \( C \), and \( D \) are positive constants. This system cannot operate as:

  • (A) low pass filter.
  • (B) high pass filter.
  • (C) band pass filter.
  • (D) an integrator.

Question 12:

For an ideal MOSFET biased in saturation, the magnitude of the small signal current gain for a common drain amplifier is

  • (A) 0
  • (B) 1
  • (C) 100
  • (D) infinite

Question 13:

The most commonly used relay, for the protection of an alternator against loss of excitation, is

  • (A) offset Mho relay.
  • (B) over current relay.
  • (C) differential relay.
  • (D) Buchholz relay.

Question 14:

The geometric mean radius of a conductor, having four equal strands with each strand of radius ‘r’, as shown in the figure below, is

  • (A) 4r
  • (B) 1.414r
  • (C) 2r
  • (D) 1.723r

Question 15:

The valid positive, negative and zero sequence impedances (in p.u.), respectively, for a 220 kV, fully transposed three-phase transmission line, from the given choices are

  • (A) 1.1, 0.15 and 0.08
  • (B) 0.15, 0.15 and 0.35
  • (C) 0.2, 0.2 and 0.2
  • (D) 0.1, 0.3 and 0.1

Question 16:

The steady state output \( V_{out} \), of the circuit shown below, will

  • (A) saturate to +V\(_{DD}\)
  • (B) saturate to -V\(_{EE}\)
  • (C) become equal to 0.1 V
  • (D) become equal to -0.1 V

Question 17:

The Bode magnitude plot of a first order stable system is constant with frequency. The asymptotic value of the high frequency phase, for the system, is -180°. This system has

  • (A) one LHP pole and one RHP zero at the same frequency.
  • (B) one LHP pole and one LHP zero at the same frequency.
  • (C) two LHP poles and one RHP zero.
  • (D) two RHP poles and one LHP zero.

Question 18:

A balanced Wheatstone bridge ABCD has the following arm resistances:

\(R_{AB} = 1 k\Omega \pm 2.1% ; R_{BC} = 100 \Omega \pm 0.5% ; R_{CD}\) is an unknown resistance; \(R_{DA} = 300 \Omega \pm 0.4%\). The value of \(R_{CD}\) and its accuracy is

  • (A) 30 Ω \(\pm\) 3 Ω
  • (B) 30 Ω \(\pm\) 0.9 Ω
  • (C) 3000 Ω \(\pm\) 90 Ω
  • (D) 3000 Ω \(\pm\) 3 Ω

Question 19:

The open loop transfer function of a unity gain negative feedback system is given by \[ G(s) = \frac{k}{s^2 + 4s - 5}. The range of k for which the system is stable, is \]

  • (A) \( k > 3 \)
  • (B) \( k < 3 \)
  • (C) \( k > 5 \)
  • (D) \( k < 5 \)

Question 20:

Consider a 3 x 3 matrix A whose \( (i, j) \)-th element, \( a_{i,j} = (i - j)^3 \). Then the matrix A will be

  • (A) symmetric.
  • (B) skew-symmetric.
  • (C) unitary.
  • (D) null.

Question 21:

In the circuit shown below, a three-phase star-connected unbalanced load is connected to a balanced three-phase supply of 100\(\sqrt{3}\) V with phase sequence ABC. The star connected load has \( Z_A = 10 \, \Omega \) and \( Z_B = 20 \angle 60^\circ \, \Omega \). The value of \( Z_C \) in \( \Omega \), for which the voltage difference across the nodes \( n \) and \( n' \) is zero, is

  • (A) \( 20 \angle -30^\circ \)
  • (B) \( 20 \angle 30^\circ \)
  • (C) \( 20 \angle -60^\circ \)
  • (D) \( 20 \angle 60^\circ \)

Question 22:

A charger supplies 100 W at 20 V for charging the battery of a laptop. The power devices, used in the converter inside the charger, operate at a switching frequency of 200 kHz. Which power device is best suited for this purpose?

  • (A) IGBT
  • (B) Thyristor
  • (C) MOSFET
  • (D) BJT

Question 23:

A long conducting cylinder having a radius ‘b’ is placed along the z axis. The current density is \( J = J_a r^3 \hat{z} \) for the region \( r < b \) where \( r \) is the distance in the radial direction. The magnetic field intensity (H) for the region inside the conductor (i.e. for \( r < b \)) is

  • (A) \( \frac{J_a}{4} r^4 \)
  • (B) \( \frac{J_a}{3} r^3 \)
  • (C) \( \frac{J_a}{5} r^4 \)
  • (D) \( J_a r^3 \)

Question 24:

The type of single-phase induction motor, expected to have the maximum power factor during steady state running condition, is

  • (A) split phase (resistance start).
  • (B) shaded pole.
  • (C) capacitor start.
  • (D) capacitor start, capacitor run.

Question 25:

For the circuit shown below with ideal diodes, the output will be

  • (A) \( V_{out} = V_{in} \) for \( V_{in} > 0 \)
  • (B) \( V_{out} = V_{in} \) for \( V_{in} < 0 \)
  • (C) \( V_{out} = -V_{in} \) for \( V_{in} > 0 \)
  • (D) \( V_{out} = -V_{in} \) for \( V_{in} < 0 \)

Question 26:

A MOD 2 and a MOD 5 up-counter when cascaded together results in a MOD ________ counter. (in integer)


Question 27:

An inductor having a Q-factor of 60 is connected in series with a capacitor having a Q-factor of 240. The overall Q-factor of the circuit is ________. (round off to nearest integer)


Question 28:

The network shown below has a resonant frequency of 150 kHz and a bandwidth of 600 Hz. The Q-factor of the network is _________. (round off to nearest integer)


Question 29:

The maximum clock frequency in MHz of a 4-stage ripple counter, utilizing flip-flops, with each flip-flop having a propagation delay of 20 ns, is _________. (round off to one decimal place)


Question 30:

If only 5% of the supplied power to a cable reaches the output terminal, the power loss in the cable, in decibels, is ________. (round off to nearest integer)


Question 31:

In the circuit shown below, the switch S is closed at \( t = 0 \). The magnitude of the steady state voltage, in volts, across the 6 Ω resistor is ________. (round off to two decimal places)


Question 32:

A single-phase full-bridge diode rectifier feeds a resistive load of 50 \(\Omega\) from a 200 V, 50 Hz single-phase AC supply. If the diodes are ideal, then the active power, in watts, drawn by the load is _________. (round off to nearest integer)


Question 33:

The voltage at the input of an AC-DC rectifier is given by \( v(t) = 230\sqrt{2} \sin(\omega t) \) where \( \omega = 2\pi \times 50 \, rad/s \). The input current drawn by the rectifier is given by \[ i(t) = 10 \sin\left(\omega t - \frac{\pi}{3}\right) + 4 \sin\left(3\omega t - \frac{\pi}{6}\right) + 3 \sin\left(5\omega t - \frac{\pi}{3}\right) \]
The input power factor (rounded off to two decimal places) is _________.


Question 34:

Two balanced three-phase loads, as shown in the figure, are connected to a 100\(\sqrt{3}\) V three-phase, 50 Hz main supply. Given \( Z_1 = (18 + j24) \, \Omega \) and \( Z_2 = (6 + j8) \, \Omega \), the ammeter reading, in amperes, is ________. (round off to nearest integer)


Question 35:

The frequencies of the stator and rotor currents flowing in a three-phase 8-pole induction motor are 40 Hz and 1 Hz respectively. The motor speed, in rpm, is ________. (round off to nearest integer)


Question 36:

The output impedance of a non-ideal operational amplifier is denoted by \( Z_{out} \). The variation in the magnitude of \( Z_{out} \) with increasing frequency, \( f \), in the circuit shown below, is best represented by:



Question 37:

An LTI system is shown in the figure where
\[ G(s) = \frac{100}{s^2 + 0.1s + 10} \]

The steady state output of the system, to the input \( r(t) \), is given as
\[ y(t) = a + b \sin(10t + \theta) \]

The values of 'a' and 'b' will be

  • (A) \( a = 1, b = 10 \)
  • (B) \( a = 10, b = 1 \)
  • (C) \( a = 1, b = 100 \)
  • (D) \( a = 100, b = 1 \)

Question 38:

The open loop transfer function of a unity gain negative feedback system is given as \[ G(s) = \frac{1}{s(s+1)}. \]
The Nyquist contour in the s-plane encloses the entire right half plane and a small neighbourhood around the origin in the left half plane, as shown in the figure below. The number of encirclements of the point \( (-1 + j0) \) by the Nyquist plot of \( G(s) \), corresponding to the Nyquist contour, is denoted as \( N \). Then \( N \) equals to

  • (A) 0
  • (B) 1
  • (C) 2
  • (D) 3

Question 39:

The damping ratio and undamped natural frequency of a closed loop system as shown in the figure, are denoted as \( \zeta \) and \( \omega_n \), respectively. The values of \( \zeta \) and \( \omega_n \) are

  • (A) \( \zeta = 0.5 \) and \( \omega_n = 10 \) rad/s
  • (B) \( \zeta = 0.1 \) and \( \omega_n = 10 \) rad/s
  • (C) \( \zeta = 0.707 \) and \( \omega_n = 10 \) rad/s
  • (D) \( \zeta = 0.707 \) and \( \omega_n = 100 \) rad/s

Question 40:

e\(^A\) denotes the exponential of a square matrix A. Suppose \( \lambda \) is an eigenvalue and \( \mathbf{v} \) is the corresponding eigen-vector of matrix A.

Consider the following two statements:
Statement 1: e\(^\lambda\) is an eigenvalue of e\(^A\).
Statement 2: \( \mathbf{v} \) is an eigen-vector of e\(^A\).
Which one of the following options is correct?

  • (A) Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false.
  • (B) Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true.
  • (C) Both the statements are correct.
  • (D) Both the statements are false.

Question 41:

Let \( f(x) = \int_0^x e^t (t - 1)(t - 2) \, dt \). Then \( f(x) \) decreases in the interval

  • (A) \( x \in (1, 2) \)
  • (B) \( x \in (2, 3) \)
  • (C) \( x \in (0, 1) \)
  • (D) \( x \in (0.5, 1) \)

Question 42:

Consider a matrix \( A = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 & 0
0 & 4 & -2
0 & 1 & 1 \end{bmatrix} \). The matrix \( A \) satisfies the equation \( 6A^{-1} = A^2 + cA + dI \), where \( c \) and \( d \) are scalars and \( I \) is the identity matrix. Then \( (c + d) \) is equal to

  • (A) 5
  • (B) 17
  • (C) -6
  • (D) 11

Question 43:

The fuel cost functions in rupees/hour for two 600 MW thermal power plants are given by
\[ Plant 1: C_1 = 350 + 6P_1 + 0.004P_1^2 \] \[ Plant 2: C_2 = 450 + aP_2 + 0.003P_2^2 \]
where \( P_1 \) and \( P_2 \) are the power generated by plant 1 and plant 2, respectively, in MW and \( a \) is constant. The incremental cost of power (\( \lambda \)) is 8 rupees per MWh. The two thermal power plants together meet a total power demand of 550 MW. The optimal generation of plant 1 and plant 2 in MW, respectively, are

  • (A) 200, 350
  • (B) 250, 300
  • (C) 325, 225
  • (D) 350, 200

Question 44:

The current gain \( \left( \frac{I_{out}}{I_{in}} \right) \) in the circuit with an ideal current amplifier given below is

  • (A) \( \frac{C_f}{C_c} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{-C_f}{C_c} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{C_c}{C_f} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{-C_c}{C_f} \)

Question 45:

If the magnetic field intensity \( H \) in a conducting region is given by the expression,
\[ H = x^2 \hat{i} + x^2 y^2 \hat{j} + x^2 y^2 z^2 \hat{k} \, A/m. \]
The magnitude of the current density, in A/m\(^2\), at \( x = 1 \, m \), \( y = 2 \, m \), and \( z = 1 \, m \), is

  • (A) 8
  • (B) 12
  • (C) 16
  • (D) 20

Question 46:

Let a causal LTI system be governed by the following differential equation \[ y(t) + \frac{1}{4} \frac{dy}{dt} = 2x(t), \]
where \( x(t) \) and \( y(t) \) are the input and output respectively. Its impulse response is

  • (A) \( 2e^{-\frac{1}{4}t}u(t) \)
  • (B) \( 2e^{-4t}u(t) \)
  • (C) \( 8e^{-\frac{1}{4}t}u(t) \)
  • (D) \( 8e^{-4t}u(t) \)

Question 47:

Let an input \( x(t) = 2\sin(10\pi t) + 5\cos(15\pi t) + 7\sin(42\pi t) + 4\cos(45\pi t) \) be passed through an LTI system having an impulse response, \[ h(t) = 2\left(\frac{\sin(10\pi t)}{\pi t}\right) \cos(40\pi t). \]
The output of the system is

  • (A) \( 2\sin(10\pi t) + 5\cos(15\pi t) \)
  • (B) \( 5\cos(15\pi t) + 7\sin(42\pi t) \)
  • (C) \( 7\sin(42\pi t) + 4\cos(45\pi t) \)
  • (D) \( 2\sin(10\pi t) + 4\cos(45\pi t) \)

Question 48:

Consider the system as shown below \[ y(t) = x(e^t) \]
The system is

  • (A) linear and causal.
  • (B) linear and non-causal.
  • (C) non-linear and causal.
  • (D) non-linear and non-causal.

Question 49:

The discrete time Fourier series representation of a signal \( x[n] \) with period \( N \) is written as \[ x[n] = \sum_{k=0}^{N-1} a_k e^{j(2\pi kn / N)} \]
A discrete time periodic signal with period \( N = 3 \), has the non-zero Fourier series coefficients: \( a_{-3} = 2 \) and \( a_4 = 1 \). The signal is

  • (A) \( 2 + 2e^{j(2\pi / 6)n} \cos\left( \frac{2\pi}{6} n \right) \)
  • (B) \( 1 + 2e^{j(2\pi / 6)n} \cos\left( \frac{2\pi}{6} n \right) \)
  • (C) \( 1 + 2e^{j(2\pi / 3)n} \cos\left( \frac{2\pi}{6} n \right) \)
  • (D) \( 2 + 2e^{j(2\pi / 6)n} \cos\left( \frac{2\pi}{6} n \right) \)

Question 50:

Let \( f(x, y, z) = 4x^2 + 7xy + 3xz^2 \). The direction in which the function \( f(x, y, z) \) increases most rapidly at point \( P = (1, 0, 2) \) is

  • (A) \( 20\hat{i} + 7\hat{j} \)
  • (B) \( 20\hat{i} + 7\hat{j} + 12\hat{k} \)
  • (C) \( 20\hat{i} + 12\hat{k} \)
  • (D) \( 20\hat{i} \)

Question 51:

Let \( R \) be a region in the first quadrant of the \( xy \)-plane enclosed by a closed curve \( C \) considered in counter-clockwise direction. Which of the following expressions does not represent the area of the region \( R \)?

  • (A) \( \int \int_R dx \, dy \)
  • (B) \( \oint_C x \, dy \)
  • (C) \( \oint_C y \, dx \)
  • (D) \( \frac{1}{2} \oint_C (x \, dy - y \, dx) \)

Question 52:

Let \(\vec{E}(x, y, z) = 2x^2 \hat{i} + 5y \hat{j} + 3z \hat{k}\). The value of \[ \iiint_V (\vec{\nabla} \cdot \vec{E}) \, dV, \]
where \( V \) is the volume enclosed by the unit cube defined by \( 0 \leq x \leq 1, 0 \leq y \leq 1, \) and \( 0 \leq z \leq 1 \), is

  • (A) 3
  • (B) 8
  • (C) 10
  • (D) 5

Question 53:

As shown in the figure below, two concentric conducting spherical shells, centered at \( r = 0 \) and having radii \( r = c \) and \( r = d \) are maintained at potentials such that the potential \( V(r) \) at \( r = c \) is \( V_1 \) and \( V(r) \) at \( r = d \) is \( V_2 \). Assume that \( V(r) \) depends only on \( r \), where \( r \) is the radial distance. The expression for \( V(r) \) in the region between \( r = c \) and \( r = d \) is

  • (A) \( V(r) = \frac{c d (V_2 - V_1)}{(d - c) r} - \frac{V_1 c + V_2 d - 2 V_1 d}{d - c} \)
  • (B) \( V(r) = \frac{c d (V_1 - V_2)}{(d - c) r} + \frac{V_2 d - V_1 c}{d - c} \)
  • (C) \( V(r) = \frac{c d (V_1 - V_2)}{(d - c) r} + \frac{V_1 c - V_2 c}{d - c} \)
  • (D) \( V(r) = \frac{c d (V_2 - V_1)}{(d - c) r} - \frac{V_2 c - V_1 c}{d - c} \)

Question 54:

Let the probability density function of a random variable \( x \) be given as \[ f(x) = ae^{-2|x|} \]
The value of ‘a’ is ________.


Question 55:

In the circuit shown below, the magnitude of the voltage \( V_1 \) in volts across the 8 kΩ resistor is ________. (round off to nearest integer)


Question 56:

Two generating units rated for 250 MW and 400 MW have governor speed regulations of 6% and 6.4%, respectively, from no load to full load. Both the generating units are operating in parallel to share a load of 500 MW. Assuming free governor action, the load shared in MW, by the 250 MW generating unit is _________. (round off to nearest integer)


Question 57:

A 20 MVA, 11.2 kV, 4-pole, 50 Hz alternator has an inertia constant of 15 MJ/MVA. If the input and output powers of the alternator are 15 MW and 10 MW, respectively, the angular acceleration in mechanical degree/s\(^2\) is _________. (round off to nearest integer)


Question 58:

Consider an ideal full-bridge single-phase DC-AC inverter with a DC bus voltage magnitude of 1000 V. The inverter output voltage \( v(t) \) shown below, is obtained when diagonal switches of the inverter are switched with 50% duty cycle. The inverter feeds a load with a sinusoidal current given by, \( i(t) = 10 \sin(\omega t - \frac{\pi}{3}) \) A, where \( \omega = \frac{2\pi}{T} \). The active power, in watts, delivered to the load is ________. (round off to nearest integer)


Question 59:

For the ideal AC-DC rectifier circuit shown in the figure below, the load current magnitude is \( I_{dc} = 15 \, A \) and is ripple free. The thyristors are fired with a delay angle of 45°. The amplitude of the fundamental component of the source current, in amperes, is ________. (round off to two decimal places)


Question 60:

A 3-phase grid-connected voltage source converter with DC link voltage of 1000 V is switched using sinusoidal Pulse Width Modulation (PWM) technique. If the grid phase current is 10 A and the 3-phase complex power supplied by the converter is given by \( (-4000 - j3000) \, VA \), then the modulation index used in sinusoidal PWM is _________. (round off to two decimal places)


Question 61:

The steady state current flowing through the inductor of a DC-DC buck boost converter is given in the figure below. If the peak-to-peak ripple in the output voltage of the converter is 1 V, then the value of the output capacitor, in μF, is _________. (round off to nearest integer)


Question 62:

A 280 V, separately excited DC motor with armature resistance of 1 \(\Omega\) and constant field excitation drives a load. The load torque is proportional to the speed. The motor draws a current of 30 A when running at a speed of 1000 rpm. Neglect frictional losses in the motor. The speed, in rpm, at which the motor will run, if an additional resistance of value 10 \(\Omega\) is connected in series with the armature, is ________. (round off to nearest integer)


Question 63:

A 4-pole induction motor with inertia of 0.1 kg-m\(^2\) drives a constant load torque of 2 Nm. The speed of the motor is increased linearly from 1000 rpm to 1500 rpm in 4 seconds as shown in the figure below. Neglect losses in the motor. The energy, in joules, consumed by the motor during the speed change is _________. (round off to nearest integer)


Question 64:

A star-connected 3-phase, 400 V, 50 kVA, 50 Hz synchronous motor has a synchronous reactance of 1 ohm per phase with negligible armature resistance. The shaft load on the motor is 10 kW while the power factor is 0.8 leading. The loss in the motor is 2 kW. The magnitude of the per phase excitation emf of the motor, in volts, is _________. (round off to nearest integer)


Question 65:

A 3-phase, 415 V, 4-pole, 50 Hz induction motor draws 5 times the rated current at rated voltage at starting. It is required to bring down the starting current from the supply to 2 times of the rated current using a 3-phase autotransformer. If the magnetizing impedance of the induction motor and no load current of the autotransformer is neglected, then the transformation ratio of the autotransformer is given by ________. (round off to two decimal places)



Quick Links:

GATE 2022 EE Detailed Paper Analysis

GATE 2022 EE Question Paper had a total of 43 MCQs (Multiple Choice Questions) and 22 Numerical Answer Type (NAT).

  • There were 30 questions carrying 1 mark and 35 questions carrying 2 marks
  • The General Aptitude section was easy to moderate
  • Power Electronics, Machine and Power System was accountable for carrying the most number of questions
  • The difficulty level of questions from Machine and Network topics was moderate.
  • The questions from control system were tricky and time-consuming

Kindly refer to the below-mentioned table to see the number of questions asked as per the topics and marks:

Topics 1 Mark Questions 2 Marks Questions Total Marks
Signal and Systems 2 3 8
Electromagnetics 2 2 6
Electrical Machines 2 3 8
Analog Electronics 2 2 6
Digital Electronics 1 1 3
Power System 4 4 12
Control System 2 3 8
Electrical Circuits 3 4 11
Power Electronics 1 4 9
Electrical Measurement 2 0 2
Engineering Mathematics 4 4 12
General Aptitude 5 5 15
Total 30 35 100

Also Check:

GATE Previous Year Question Papers

Other PG Exams Question Papers