GATE 2022 Mining Engineering (MN) Question Paper with Solutions PDF is available for download here. GATE 2022 MN (Mining Engineering) Question Paper consisted of 65 questions in total including only the Multiple Choice Questions, and Numerical Answer Types. There were no MSQs asked in GATE 2022 MN Question Paper. However, the overall difficulty level of the GATE 2022 Mining Engineering Question paper was still rated as difficult by the aspirants.

GATE 2022 Mining Engineering (MN) Question Paper with Solutions

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Question 1:

Mr. X speaks _____ Japanese _____ Chinese.

  • (A) neither / or
  • (B) either / nor
  • (C) neither / nor
  • (D) also / but

Question 2:

A sum of money is to be distributed among P, Q, R, and S in the proportion 5 : 2 : 4 : 3, respectively.
If R gets ₹1000 more than S, what is the share of Q (in ₹)?

  • (A) 500
  • (B) 1000
  • (C) 1500
  • (D) 2000

Question 3:

A trapezium has vertices marked as P, Q, R, and S (in that order anticlockwise). The side PQ is parallel to side SR. Further, it is given that, PQ = 11 cm, QR = 4 cm, RS = 6 cm, and SP = 3 cm. What is the shortest distance between PQ and SR (in cm)?

  • (A) 1.80
  • (B) 2.40
  • (C) 4.20
  • (D) 5.76

Question 4:

The figure shows a grid formed by a collection of unit squares. The unshaded unit square in the grid represents a hole. What is the maximum number of squares without a "hole in the interior" that can be formed within the 4 \(\times\) 4 grid using the unit squares as building blocks?

  • (A) 15
  • (B) 20
  • (C) 21
  • (D) 26

Question 5:

An art gallery engages a security guard to ensure that the items displayed are protected. The diagram below represents the plan of the gallery where the boundary walls are opaque. The location the security guard posted is identified such that all the inner space (shaded region in the plan) of the gallery is within the line of sight of the security guard.
If the security guard does not move around the posted location and has a 360° view, which one of the following correctly represents the set of ALL possible locations among the locations P, Q, R and S, where the security guard can be posted to watch over the entire inner space of the gallery?

  • (A) P and Q
  • (B) Q
  • (C) Q and S
  • (D) R and S

Question 6:

Mosquitoes pose a threat to human health. Controlling mosquitoes using chemicals may have undesired consequences. In Florida, authorities have used genetically modified mosquitoes to control the overall mosquito population. It remains to be seen if this novel approach has unforeseen consequences.
Which one of the following is the correct logical inference based on the information in the above passage?

  • (A) Using chemicals to kill mosquitoes is better than using genetically modified mosquitoes because genetic engineering is dangerous
  • (B) Using genetically modified mosquitoes is better than using chemicals to kill mosquitoes because they do not have any side effects
  • (C) Both using genetically modified mosquitoes and chemicals have undesired consequences and can be dangerous
  • (D) Using chemicals to kill mosquitoes may have undesired consequences but it is not clear if using genetically modified mosquitoes has any negative consequence

Question 7:

Consider the following inequalities.
(i) 2x - 1 \(>\) 7
(ii) 2x - 9 \(<\)1
Which one of the following expressions below satisfies the above two inequalities?

  • (A) \( x \leq -4 \)
  • (B) \( -4 < x \leq 4 \)
  • (C) \( 4 < x < 5 \)
  • (D) \( x \geq 5 \)

Question 8:

Four points \( P(0, 1), Q(0, -3), R(-2, -1), \) and \( S(2, -1) \) represent the vertices of a quadrilateral. What is the area enclosed by the quadrilateral?

  • (A) 4
  • (B) \( 4\sqrt{2} \)
  • (C) 8
  • (D) \( 8\sqrt{2} \)

Question 9:

In a class of five students P, Q, R, S and T, only one student is known to have copied in the exam. The disciplinary committee has investigated the situation and recorded the statements from the students as given below.
Statement of P: R has copied in the exam.
Statement of Q: S has copied in the exam.
Statement of R: P did not copy in the exam.
Statement of S: Only one of us is telling the truth.
Statement of T: R is telling the truth.
The investigating team had authentic information that S never lies.
Based on the information given above, the person who has copied in the exam is:

  • (A) R
  • (B) Q
  • (C) S
  • (D) T

Question 10:

Consider the following square with the four corners and the center marked as P, Q, R, S and T respectively.
Let X, Y, and Z represent the following operations:
X: rotation of the square by 180 degree with respect to the S-Q axis.
Y: rotation of the square by 180 degree with respect to the P-R axis.
Z: rotation of the square by 90 degree clockwise with respect to the axis perpendicular, going into the screen and passing through the point T.
Consider the following three distinct sequences of operation (which are applied in the left to right order).
(1) XYZ
(2) XY
(3) ZZZZ

Which one of the following statements is correct as per the information provided above?


  • (A) The sequence of operations (1) and (2) are equivalent
  • (B) The sequence of operations (1) and (3) are equivalent
  • (C) The sequence of operations (2) and (3) are equivalent
  • (D) The sequence of operations (1), (2) and (3) are equivalent

Question 11:

The value of \(\displaystyle \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{(1-x)^n - 1}{x}\) is

  • (A) 0
  • (B) 1
  • (C) \(-n\)
  • (D) \(n\)

Question 12:

A velocity field in Cartesian coordinate system is expressed as
\[ \mathbf{v} = x\,\hat{i} + y\,\hat{j} + p(z)\,\hat{k}, \quad where p(0)=0. \]
If div \(\mathbf{v} = 0\), \(p(z)\) is

  • (A) 0
  • (B) \(-2z\)
  • (C) 2
  • (D) \(2z\)

Question 13:

The constant term of the Fourier coefficients of the periodic function
\[ f(x)= \begin{cases} -k, & -\pi < x < 0
k, & 0 < x < \pi \end{cases} \quadand\quad f(x+2\pi)=f(x),\ k=constant \]
is

  • (A) \(k\)
  • (B) \(2k\)
  • (C) \(2\pi\)
  • (D) \(0\)

Question 14:

Two vectors \(x\) and \(y\) are shown in the figure. The projection vector of \(x\) on \(y\) is

  • (A) \(\dfrac{x^{T}y}{y^{T}y}y\)
  • (B) \(x \times y\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{x \times y}{y^{T}y}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{x^{T}y}{x^{T}x}x\)

Question 15:

A deposit has the grade attribute \(X \in [0,30]\) with a density function \(f(x)\). For a cut-off grade \(x_c\), the proportion of the ore in the deposit is given by

  • (A) \(\displaystyle \int_{0}^{30} f(x)dx - \int_{0}^{x_c} f(x)dx\)
  • (B) \(\displaystyle \frac{1}{2}\int_{0}^{30} f(x)dx - \int_{0}^{x_c} f(x)dx\)
  • (C) \(\displaystyle \frac{1}{2}\int_{0}^{30} f(x)dx + \int_{0}^{x_c} f(x)dx\)
  • (D) \(\displaystyle \int_{0}^{x_c} f(x)dx\)

Question 16:

The drilling technique applicable for mineral exploration is

  • (A) Percussive drilling
  • (B) Tricone roller drilling
  • (C) Rotary-percussive drilling
  • (D) Diamond core drilling

Question 17:

Match the rock with its metamorphosed form

  • (A) P-II, Q-IV, R-I, S-III
  • (B) P-III, Q-I, R-IV, S-II
  • (C) P-IV, Q-III, R-I, S-II
  • (D) P-II, Q-III, R-IV, S-I

Question 18:

Identify the WRONG statement:
Break-even stripping ratio

  • (A) takes into account the maximum pit slope that is safe
  • (B) helps in determining the volume of the overburden
  • (C) presents the maximum possible mine size that is economical
  • (D) takes into account the life of the mine

Question 19:

A square pattern of blasting is shown in the figure. For the case of simultaneous blast, identify the zone of no fragmentation.

  • (A) P
  • (B) Q
  • (C) R
  • (D) S

Question 20:

In the truss shown in the figure, the force in the member BD, in kN, is _________ .

  • (A) 7
  • (B) 5
  • (C) 2
  • (D) 0

Question 21:

The correct vertical stress profile in the case of tributary area method for pillar design is

  • (A) I
  • (B) II
  • (C) III
  • (D) IV

Question 22:

The bottom section of a stoping block has dimensions 200 m \(\times\) 40 m. If the modified RMR of the rock mass is 50, the appropriate method of mining on the basis of Laubscher’s chart in the figure is:

  • (A) Shrinkage stoping
  • (B) Cut and fill
  • (C) Block Caving
  • (D) Sublevel stoping

Question 23:

Match the machine with its component.

  • (A) P-III, Q-IV, R-I, S-II
  • (B) P-IV, Q-III, R-I, S-II
  • (C) P-III, Q-IV, R-II, S-I
  • (D) P-IV, Q-III, R-II, S-I

Question 24:

Which one of the following is NOT a notifiable disease as per Indian mining legislation?

  • (A) Silicosis
  • (B) Noise induced hearing loss
  • (C) Nystagmus
  • (D) Asbestosis

Question 25:

If the ambient lapse rate is higher than the dry adiabatic lapse rate, the atmosphere is

  • (A) stable
  • (B) neutral
  • (C) unstable
  • (D) strongly stable

Question 26:

Identify the WRONG statement:
The application of controlled air recirculation in an underground work place can

  • (A) increase the air velocity at the work place
  • (B) lead to increased concentration of contaminants in the work place
  • (C) require the installation of an additional fan in the system
  • (D) lead to overall ventilation cost savings

Question 27:

The correct order of pavement layers for a haul road from top to bottom is

  • (A) Wearing course \(\rightarrow\) Base \(\rightarrow\) Sub base \(\rightarrow\) Sub grade
  • (B) Wearing course \(\rightarrow\) Sub base \(\rightarrow\) Base \(\rightarrow\) Sub grade
  • (C) Wearing course \(\rightarrow\) Sub grade \(\rightarrow\) Sub base \(\rightarrow\) Base
  • (D) Wearing course \(\rightarrow\) Base \(\rightarrow\) Sub grade \(\rightarrow\) Sub base

Question 28:

A mining company produces iron ore and sells to another company. Royalty to be paid is on the basis of

  • (A) quantity of ore produced
  • (B) quantity of ore sold
  • (C) difference between the quantities of ore produced and sold
  • (D) net profit

Question 29:

The cost of a screw compressor with an estimated life of 15 years is ₹21,00,000.
If the depreciation charged using the ‘sum-of-the-years-digits’ (SOYD) method at the end of
the 4th year is ₹2,00,000, the salvage value (rounded off to one decimal place) is _____.


Question 30:

A safety device has two independent critical components \(X_1\) and \(X_2\).
Failure of any one or both causes an accident.
Failure probabilities: \(P(X_1)=0.2\), \(P(X_2)=0.1\).
Find the probability of an accident (rounded to two decimals).


Question 31:

A levelling reading is taken as 2.25 m.
The line of sight has a deflection of 20 cm relative to the vertical position of the staff.
Find the correct reading (rounded to two decimals).


Question 32:

Water flows through a vertical sand column of cross‐sectional area 4000 mm\(^2\) and length 300 mm.
For a water head of 600 mm, the seepage quantity is 100 mm\(^3\)/min.
Find the hydraulic conductivity of the sand column (mm/min), rounded to three decimal places.


Question 33:

The modified Lauffer diagram relates roof span, RMR and stand-up time.
For a roof span of 4 m, if the RMR of the rock mass changes from 40 to 60,
the stand-up time increases by a factor of ______
(rounded off to two decimal places).


Question 34:

In a friction winder, the skip accelerates to a steady speed in 15 s.
The torque vs. time diagram is shown.
Find the deceleration time (in seconds, rounded to one decimal place).


Question 35:

AQI sub-index values at a station are: PM\(_{2.5}\) = 180, NO\(_2\) = 96, O\(_3\) = 84.
Find the AQI for the station (integer).


Question 36:

Match the drilling pattern with mining operation

  • (A) P→II,\ Q→III,\ R→I,\ S→II
  • (B) P→III,\ Q→IV,\ R→I,\ S→II
  • (C) P→II,\ Q→I,\ R→IV,\ S→III
  • (D) P→III,\ Q→IV,\ R→II,\ S→I

Question 37:

The closest match of the scatter plot between the variables X and Y with the approximate attribute is:

  • (A) P → I, Q → II, R → III, S → IV
  • (B) P → II, Q → I, R → IV, S → III
  • (C) P → III, Q → IV, R → I, S → II
  • (D) P → IV, Q → II, R → III, S → I

Question 38:

A 3-point borehole extensometer is installed to identify the location of a single discontinuity plane in a hanging wall rock by measuring deformations at three locations as shown in the figure. The absolute readings of deformations measured on two different dates are listed in the table. Based on the measured data the most likely inference is

  • (A) Discontinuity between Anchor-1 and Anchor-2
  • (B) Discontinuity between Anchor-2 and Anchor-3
  • (C) Discontinuity between Anchor-3 and excavation boundary
  • (D) No noticeable discontinuity

Question 39:

Match the semi-variogram shape with the model name and the property.

  • (A) P→III→E,\; Q→II→F,\; R→IV→E,\; S→I→G
  • (B) P→II→F,\; Q→I→G,\; R→III→E,\; S→IV→E
  • (C) P→IV→G,\; Q→III→F,\; R→II→E,\; S→I→E
  • (D) P→II→E,\; Q→I→E,\; R→III→F,\; S→IV→G

Question 40:

In a uniaxial compressive strength test, a rock sample of diameter 50 mm fails at an angle of \(60^\circ\) as shown. If the peak load at failure is 120 kN, the normal and shear stresses on the failure plane, in MPa, are _________ and _________.

  • (A) 15.28 and 26.46
  • (B) 26.46 and 15.28
  • (C) 57.02 and -15.28
  • (D) -15.28 and 15.28

Question 41:

A coal mining company examines the option of buying two types of dumpers with the following details.

In order to minimize the operating cost, the optimum fleet of dumpers of Type-1 and Type-2, respectively are

  • (A) 20,\ 15
  • (B) 0,\ 30
  • (C) 0,\ 31
  • (D) 40,\ 0

Question 42:

Let \(f(x)\) be a continuous and differentiable function on \([3,18]\).
If \(f(3) = -50\) and \(f'(x) \le 20\), then the largest possible value of \(f(18)\) is _____ (in integer).


Question 43:

Let \(\frac{dT}{dt} \propto (T_R - T)\) (Newton's law of cooling).
A thermometer at 2\(^\circ\)C is placed in a 40\(^\circ\)C room.
After 2 minutes it reads 15\(^\circ\)C.
Find the time (in minutes, rounded to two decimals) when it reads 39.5\(^\circ\)C.


Question 44:

In a health centre, the probability of ‘full occupancy’ of COVID beds for a day is 0.8.
Assuming Binomial probability distribution, the probability of full occupancy exactly for
5 days in a week is _____ (rounded off to three decimal places).


Question 45:

Information for a drilling operation in an overburden mine is given:
Volume of rock blasted per round = \(3.2 \times 10^5\ m^3\)
Number of blast holes = 100
Drill hole diameter \(D = 200\ mm = 0.2\ m\)
Length of subgrade drilling = \(8D = 1.6\ m\)
Stemming length = \(25D = 5\ m\)
Bench height = 30 m
Powder factor = \(3.2\ m^3/kg\)
Find the explosive per unit charge length (kg/m), rounded to two decimals).


Question 46:

The shaft-top coordinates of two vertical shafts are given below. The depth of the
shaft A and B are 200 m and 149 m, respectively.
The downward gradient of the line joining the bottom of the two shafts in degrees,
is _____. (round off to two decimal places)


Question 47:

For the oxygen-balanced explosive ANFO reaction \[ 3NH_4NO_3 + CH_2 \rightarrow 7H_2O + CO_2 + 3N_2 \]
the amount of ammonium nitrate (in kg, rounded off to two decimals)
required for 100 L of fuel oil (density 850 kg/m\(^3\)) is _____.


Question 48:

Two weightless cables of equal length and equal cross-sectional area hang from a ceiling.
They are connected by a horizontal light bar of length 1.0 m.
A downward force \(F\) is applied at a point located \(x\) meters from Cable–1.
The moduli of elasticity of Cable–1 and Cable–2 are 50 GPa and 200 GPa respectively.
If the deformation in both cables is equal, find \(x\) (in m), rounded to one decimal place.


Question 49:

A circular tunnel of radius 3 m is constructed in a hydrostatic stress field of 15 MPa.
The rock has modulus of elasticity \(E = 5\) GPa and Poisson’s ratio \(\nu = 0.25\).
A uniform support pressure \(p_i\) is applied at the tunnel boundary to restrict the radial deformation
to 4 mm. The value of \(p_i\) in MPa (rounded off to two decimals) is _____.


Question 50:

A bord and pillar panel initially has an extraction ratio of 0.15.
After widening galleries, the extraction ratio changes to 0.25.
Using the tributary area method, the percentage change in pillar stress
(rounded off to two decimals) is _____.


Question 51:

A battery-powered locomotive hauls a 3.0 tonne train.
Coefficient of friction = 0.06,
coefficient of adhesion = 0.2,
time to accelerate to 1.8 m/s = 3.0 min,
gradient = 1 in 20.
Find the minimum weight of the locomotive (in tonnes), rounded to one decimal place.


Question 52:

A pump lifts mine water (density 1020 kg/m\(^3\))
at 250 m\(^3\)/hr from 150 m depth.
Head loss = 15 m, efficiency = 68%.
Find motor input power (in kW), rounded to two decimals.


Question 53:

In a surface mine bench, overburden is removed by shovel–dumper combination.
Data for the dumper is given.
Minimum number of dumpers required to avoid shovel idle time (in integer) is _____.


Question 54:

In a bord and pillar panel, with headings of 4.4 m × 2.5 m advanced by solid blasting,
the average pull per round = 1.2 m and 12 faces are blasted per day.
Density of coal = 1500 kg/m\(^3\). Mine works three shifts; daily employment = 330 persons.
Labour productivity (OMS) in tonne (rounded off to two decimals) is _____.


Question 55:

In a longwall face, the full seam thickness of 3 m is cut by a shearer with a web depth of 0.7 m.
Hauling speed = 12 m/min.
AFC trough cross-section = 0.4 m\(^2\), loading coefficient = 0.7.
Find the AFC speed (in m/s), rounded to one decimal place.


Question 56:

A city of area 20 km × 40 km receives wind perpendicular to the 20 km side at 4 m/s.
Inversion layer height = 100 m.
PM\(_1\) emission rate = 1 kg/s.
Find steady-state PM\(_1\) concentration (µg/m\(^3\)), rounded to one decimal place, using a Box model.


Question 57:

The point A(7,17) in the Coward flammability diagram represents the gas composition
of a sealed-off area (volume = 10000 m\(^3\)).
Inert gas is injected so that composition moves below the LEL boundary.
Minimum required inert gas volume (in m\(^3\), rounded off to one decimal place) is _____.


Question 58:

An 8 m × 6 m × 4 m workshop has four identical luminaires at roof corners.
Each is 100 W with luminous efficacy 100 lumen/W.
Light is transmitted spherically with no reflections.
Illumination at the centre of the floor (in lux, rounded off to two decimals) is _____.


Question 59:

An underground AC plant requires 250 US gpm of chilled water.
Ice pellets at 0\(^\circ\)C (latent heat = 334 kJ/kg) are mixed with 20\(^\circ\)C water
(cp = 4.18 kJ/kg\(^\circ\)C).
Mixture arrives underground at 7\(^\circ\)C.
Find ice requirement (tonne/hr), rounded to two decimals.


Question 60:

An intake shaft has resistance of 0.05 Ns\(^2\)/m\(^8\) up to depth 400 m.
Airflow rate = 100 m\(^3\)/s, air density = 1.2 kg/m\(^3\).
Barometer reads 99.375 kPa at surface.
Find the barometer reading at 400 m depth (kPa), rounded to two decimals.


Question 61:

The NPVs of project proposals A and B are: \[ NPV_A = -0.01i^2 - 0.02i + 4.44, \qquad NPV_B = -0.03i^2 - 0.01i + 6.55, \]
where \(i\) is the discount rate.
The discount rate for which both proposals have equal possibility of acceptance or rejection
(rounded off to two decimals) is _____.


Question 62:

The value of \[ \int_0^1 x \log(1+x)\, dx \]
(rounded off to two decimals) is _____.


Question 63:

A coal seam of uniform thickness 12 m dips at 30\(^\circ\).
The ultimate pit limit is based on an instantaneous stripping ratio of
10 m\(^3\)/tonne and a safe slope angle of 45\(^\circ\).
Coal density = 1.41 tonne/m\(^3\).
Find length \(L\) in m (rounded off to two decimals).


Question 64:

A mine has a reserve of 150 million tonne (Mt) and a maximum production capacity of
5 Mt/year. First-year production is 2 Mt and increases by 20% each year.
Find the reserve remaining at the end of 15 years (rounded off to two decimal places).


Question 65:

Information on Activity-Time duration of a project is provided below.
The expected project duration in weeks, is ______. (in integer)



GATE 2022 MN Question Paper: Paper Analysis

  • Most of the students found the General Aptitude section difficult.
  • The core subjects of Mining Engineering were also time-consuming and difficult, requiring in-depth analysis to solve the questions.
  • Topics like Mine Machinery, General Safety, Legislation, and Underground were found to be covering maximum weightage in the exam.
  • There were more 31 numerical-type questions and 34 MCQs in GATE 2022 MN Question Paper.

The table below shows the number of 1 mark and 2 marks questions asked in GATE 2022 MN Question Paper-

Types of Questions Questions Frequency Total marks carried
MCQs carrying 1 mark 24 24
MCQs carrying 2 marks 16 32
NATs carrying 1 mark 6 6
NATs carrying 2 marks 19 38
Total 65 100

GATE Previous Year Question Papers:

Candidates may examine their performance levels by solving prior year's examination papers. Candidates are encouraged to answer GATE Question Papers on a regular basis to improve their correctness. GATE ME 2019 question paper is one of the most important aspects of effective test preparation. Including past year's question papers in your study schedule can help you get a better grade. Test candidates may examine prior year question papers to determine the level of questions asked in the exam. The following are links to GATE 2019 question papers with answer key PDFs:

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