GATE 2022 Textile Engineering and Fibre Science (TF) Question Paper with Solutions PDFs are available to download. GATE 2022 TF was conducted on 6th February, 2022 in the Afternoon Session (2:30 PM to 5:30 PM). This year, IIT took the charge to organize GATE examinations. The overall exam difficulty level was rated moderate to tough. The exam comprises two sections i.e General Aptitude section and Textile based questions. The General Aptitude section was rated easy to moderate, while the textiles based questions were rated difficult.

GATE 2022 Textile Engineering and Fibre Science (TF) Question Paper with Solutions

GATE 2022 Textile Engineering and Fibre Science (TF) Question Paper download iconDownload Check Solutions

GATE 2022 Textile Engineering and Fibre Science (TF) Question Paper with Solutions


Question 1:

Inhaling the smoke from a burning __________ could __________ you quickly.

  • (A) tire / tier
  • (B) tire / tyre
  • (C) tyre / tire
  • (D) tyre / tier

Question 2:

A sphere of radius \(r\) cm is packed in a box of cubical shape.
What should be the minimum volume (in cm\(^3\)) of the box that can enclose the sphere?

  • (A) \( \frac{r^3}{8} \)
  • (B) \( r^3 \)
  • (C) \( 2r^3 \)
  • (D) \( 8r^3 \)

Question 3:

Pipes P and Q can fill a storage tank in full with water in 10 and 6 minutes, respectively. Pipe R draws the water out from the storage tank at a rate of 34 litres per minute. P, Q and R operate at a constant rate.
If it takes one hour to completely empty a full storage tank with all the pipes operating simultaneously, what is the capacity of the storage tank (in litres)?

  • (A) 26.8
  • (B) 60.0
  • (C) 120.0
  • (D) 127.5

Question 4:

Six persons P, Q, R, S, T, and U are sitting around a circular table facing the center not necessarily in the same order. Consider the following statements:
P sits next to S and T.
Q sits diametrically opposite to P.
The shortest distance between S and R is equal to the shortest distance between T and U.
Based on the above statements, Q is a neighbor of

  • (A) U and S
  • (B) R and T
  • (C) R and U
  • (D) P and S

Question 5:

A building has several rooms and doors as shown in the top view of the building given below. The doors are closed initially.
What is the minimum number of doors that need to be opened in order to go from the point P to the point Q?

  • (A) 4
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 2
  • (D) 1

Question 6:

Rice, a versatile and inexpensive source of carbohydrate, is a critical component of diet worldwide. Climate change, causing extreme weather, poses a threat to sustained availability of rice. Scientists are working on developing Green Super Rice (GSR), which is resilient under extreme weather conditions yet gives higher yields sustainably.
Which one of the following is the CORRECT logical inference based on the information given in the above passage?

  • (A) GSR is an alternative to regular rice, but it grows only in an extreme weather
  • (B) GSR may be used in future in response to adverse effects of climate change
  • (C) GSR grows in an extreme weather, but the quantity of produce is lesser than regular rice
  • (D) Regular rice will continue to provide good yields even in extreme weather

Question 7:

A game consists of spinning an arrow around a stationary disk as shown below.
When the arrow comes to rest, there are eight equally likely outcomes. It could come to rest in any one of the sectors numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, or 8 as shown.
Two such disks are used in a game where their arrows are independently spun.
What is the probability that the sum of the numbers on the resulting sectors upon spinning the two disks is equal to 8 after the arrows come to rest?

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{16} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{5}{64} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{3}{32} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{7}{64} \)

Question 8:

Consider the following inequalities.
(i) \( 3p - q < 4 \)
(ii) \( 3q - p < 12 \)
Which one of the following expressions below satisfies the above two inequalities?

  • (A) \( p + q < 8 \)
  • (B) \( p + q = 8 \)
  • (C) \( 8 \leq p + q \leq 16 \)
  • (D) \( p + q \geq 16 \)

Question 9:

Given below are three statements and four conclusions drawn based on the statements.

Statement 1: Some engineers are writers.
Statement 2: No writer is an actor.
Statement 3: All actors are engineers.

Conclusion I: Some writers are engineers.
Conclusion II: All engineers are actors.
Conclusion III: No actor is a writer.
Conclusion IV: Some actors are writers.

Which one of the following options can be logically inferred?

  • (A) Only conclusion I is correct
  • (B) Only conclusion II and conclusion III are correct
  • (C) Only conclusion I and conclusion III are correct
  • (D) Either conclusion III or conclusion IV is correct

Question 10:

Which one of the following sets of pieces can be assembled to form a square with a single round hole near the center? Pieces cannot overlap.


Question 11:

The number of solution(s) of the system of linear equations
\[ x + y + z = 0
x - y + z = 0
x + 2y - z = 0 \]

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 0
  • (C) Infinite
  • (D) More than one but finite

Question 12:

Find the value of the following limit:
\[ \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{e^{x} - 1}{x^2} \]

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 0
  • (C) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
  • (D) 2

Question 13:

An integrating factor of the differential equation \[ x \, dy + (1 - y) \, dx = 0 \]
is

  • (A) \( \frac{1}{x} \)
  • (B) \( x \)
  • (C) \( e^x \)
  • (D) \( \frac{1}{x^2} \)

Question 14:

Cotton fibre has maximum amount of cellulose in

  • (A) Cuticle
  • (B) Primary cell wall
  • (C) Secondary cell wall
  • (D) Lumen

Question 15:

High extensibility of wool fibre is due to:

  • (A) Presence of scales
  • (B) \( \alpha \)-helix structure of proteins
  • (C) Cross-linking
  • (D) \( \beta \)-sheet structure of proteins

Question 16:

In a comber, the component that rotates both in the forward and backward directions is:

  • (A) Nipper
  • (B) Top comb
  • (C) Cylinder comb
  • (D) Detaching roller

Question 17:

Yarn that has helically twisted fibres at the core and belts/wrappers on the surface is

  • (A) Ring yarn
  • (B) Rotor yarn
  • (C) Compact yarn
  • (D) Air-vortex yarn

Question 18:

The ingredient that is NOT used in sizing formulations is

  • (A) Starch
  • (B) Polyvinyl acetate
  • (C) Polyvinyl alcohol
  • (D) Polycarbonate

Question 19:

The machine that uses ‘Horn gears’ is

  • (A) Warp knitting
  • (B) Circular braiding
  • (C) Sectional warping
  • (D) Shuttle loom

Question 20:

Direct measurement of degree of thickening (\( \theta \)) of cotton fibre is carried out using

  • (A) AFIS
  • (B) HVI
  • (C) Caustic soda method
  • (D) Double compression method

Question 21:

A relatively flat middle zone in a comb sorter diagram indicates:

  • (A) Higher fibre length variation
  • (B) Lower fibre length variation
  • (C) Higher mean length
  • (D) Lower mean length

Question 22:

Scouring and cold mercerisation of cotton are carried out by treatment with aqueous sodium hydroxide. The process parameters that differ in the two processes are:

  • (A) Temperature and alkali concentration only
  • (B) Temperature and treatment time only
  • (C) Treatment time and alkali concentration only
  • (D) Temperature, treatment time and alkali concentration

Question 23:

Woven fabrics can be dyed in open width form in

  • (A) Jigger and winch
  • (B) Jigger and jet dyeing machine
  • (C) Winch and beam dyeing machine
  • (D) Jigger and beam dyeing machine

Question 24:

The determinant of a \( 3 \times 3 \) matrix A is 30. If 2 and 3 are two Eigenvalues of A, then the third Eigenvalue of A (in integer) is ________.


Question 25:

A fair coin is tossed five times. The probability of obtaining at most two “HEAD” (correct up to 1 decimal place) is ________.


Question 26:

Molecular weight (g/mol) of polypropylene with a degree of polymerisation of 1000 (rounded off to nearest integer) is ________.


Question 27:

Polydispersity index of a polymer is 5 and its weight average molecular weight is 8400 g/mol. The number average molecular weight (g/mol) of the polymer (in integer) is ________.


Question 28:

A three-bladed beater is running with an angular velocity of 600 rpm and delivering material at a rate of 600 kg/h. The number of strikes per kg of delivered material (in integer) is ________.


Question 29:

Assume that there is no compression of roving during winding and each coil of a layer is placed directly over the coil of the previous layer. A full roving bobbin consisting of 50 layers of roving is wound on an empty bobbin of 60 mm diameter. If the diameter of the roving is 1 mm, then the diameter (mm) of the full bobbin (in integer) is ________.


Question 30:

A yarn is unravelled from a woven fabric specimen of 1 m \(\times\) 1 m size. If the length of the straightened yarn is 1.1 m, then the crimp percentage (in integer) is ________.


Question 31:

In a projectile loom, the energy stored in a torsion rod just before picking is proportional to \( r^n \). If \( r \) is the radius of the torsion rod, then the value of \( n \) (in integer) is ________.


Question 32:

Cusick drape test on a fabric specimen results in a drape coefficient of 0.7. If the total mass of the paper ring is 3.0 g, then the mass (g) of the paper with shaded area (correct up to 1 decimal place) is ________.


Question 33:

If moisture regain of polyester and cotton is 0.4 % and 8.5 %, respectively, then moisture regain (%) of 70:30 polyester-cotton blend (correct up to 2 decimal places) is ________.


Question 34:

A pad bath for flame retardant finishing is prepared by mixing 300 g/L diammonium phosphate (DAP) aqueous solution with 60 g/L softener solution in the ratio of 2:1 (v/v). The concentration (g/L) of DAP in the resultant solution (in integer) is ________.


Question 35:

If the reflectance of a dyed fabric at \( \lambda_{max} \) is 10%, then the colour strength value (K/S) of the dyed fabric (correct up to 2 decimal places) is ________.


Question 36:

If the probability density function of a continuous random variable \(X\) is given by
\[ f(x)= \begin{cases} (x-2)a, & 2 \le x \le 4
(8-x)a, & 4 < x \le 8
0, & otherwise \end{cases} \]
where \(a\) is a constant, then the value of \(a\) is:

  • (A) 0.2
  • (B) 0.1
  • (C) 0.5
  • (D) 0.4

Question 37:

Let \( f : \mathbb{R}^2 \to \mathbb{R} \) (where \( \mathbb{R} \) is the set of real numbers) be defined by \[ f(x, y) = \begin{cases} \frac{(x - y)^3}{x^2 + y^2}, & (x, y) \neq (0, 0)
0, & (x, y) = (0, 0) \end{cases} \]
If \( f_x(0, 0) \) and \( f_y(0, 0) \) denote partial derivatives of \( f \) with respect to \( x \) and \( y \) at the point \( (0, 0) \), respectively, then \( f_x(0, 0) \) and \( f_y(0, 0) \), respectively, are:

  • (A) 1 and 1
  • (B) 1 and 2
  • (C) 1 and -1
  • (D) 2 and 1

Question 38:

Match the properties listed in Group I with the corresponding measuring techniques given in Group II. The correct option is

  • (A) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3
  • (B) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2
  • (C) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1
  • (D) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4

Question 39:

Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and Reason [r].

  • (A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]
  • (B) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is not the correct reason for [a]
  • (C) Both [a] and [r] are false
  • (D) [a] is true but [r] is false

Question 40:

Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and Reason [r].
[a]: Para-aramid fibres have better mechanical properties as compared to meta-aramid fibres.
[r]: The chemical structure of para-aramid fibres allows them to pack closely.

  • (1) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]
  • (2) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is not the correct reason for [a]
  • (3) Both [a] and [r] are false
  • (4) [a] is true but [r] is false

Question 41:

Keeping the speed of all other components of a carding machine unchanged, the angular velocity of a cylinder with damaged wire points in an area of 2 cm \( \times \) 2 cm is doubled. Wavelength of the periodic fault in the card sliver would be:

  • (A) Same
  • (B) Halved
  • (C) Doubled
  • (D) Tripled

Question 42:

Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and Reason [r].
[a]: As compared to parallel wound yarn packages, ring bobbins exhibit lower tendency of slough off during unwinding.
[r]: The main winding layers in the ring bobbins are separated by cross-winding layers.

  • (A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]
  • (B) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is not the correct reason for [a]
  • (C) Both [a] and [r] are false
  • (D) [a] is true but [r] is false

Question 43:

A set of yarns is produced with the same linear density. If these yarns follow a helical model and their diameter is inversely proportional to twist (turns per unit length), then the yarns have the same:

  • (A) Packing density
  • (B) Twist multiplier
  • (C) Twist angle of surface fibres
  • (D) Area of cross-section

Question 44:

Consider the following statements for a shuttle loom having linear (straight line) displacement profile for the picker:
P. The maximum actual acceleration of shuttle depends on loom speed and alacrity of picking system
Q. The maximum actual velocity of shuttle depends on loom speed
R. The maximum actual acceleration and maximum actual velocity of shuttle occur at the same time
S. Nominal displacement of shuttle is inversely proportional to the angular movement of crank shaft
The combination of TRUE statements is:

  • (A) P and Q
  • (B) Q and R
  • (C) R and S
  • (D) P and R

Question 45:

Eight-end regular sateen fabric can be woven with move (step) numbers of:

  • (A) 2 or 8
  • (B) 1 or 7
  • (C) 3 or 5
  • (D) 4 or 6

Question 46:

Consider the following components of a needle:
P. Shank
Q. Beard
R. Barb
S. Latch
The combination of correct components of a needle in a needle punching nonwoven machine is

  • (A) P and Q
  • (B) Q and R
  • (C) R and S
  • (D) P and R

Question 47:

The schematic of elastic recovery of a textile material is given below.

Where:
AB = original length; BD = total extension; CD = elastic extension; BC = permanent set.
With reference to the above schematic, consider the following statements:
P. For perfectly elastic material, BC = 0
Q. For perfectly elastic material, CD = 0
R. For perfectly plastic material, BC = 0
S. For perfectly plastic material, CD = 0
The combination of TRUE statements is:

  • (A) P and Q
  • (B) Q and R
  • (C) R and S
  • (D) P and S

Question 48:

Consider the following statements with reference to testing of cotton fibre in HVI:
P. Strength is measured in single fibre form
Q. Strength is measured in fibre bundle form
R. Fineness is measured by air flow method
S. Fineness is determined by measuring fibre diameter
The combination of TRUE statements is:

  • (A) P and Q
  • (B) Q and R
  • (C) R and S
  • (D) P and R

Question 49:

Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and Reason [r].
[a]: In crease resistant finishing process of cotton with DMDHEU, curing is not carried out in steam.
[r]: Steam causes DMDHEU to self-polymerise rather than crosslink cotton.

  • (A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]
  • (B) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is not the correct reason for [a]
  • (C) Both [a] and [r] are false
  • (D) [a] is true but [r] is false

Question 50:

Consider the following statements with respect to a cotton fabric which has been fully desized and bleached but not scoured:
P. It has residual seed coat fragments
Q. It has poor water absorbency
R. It has high whiteness index
S. It has high crease recovery
The combination of TRUE statements is:

  • (A) P, Q and R
  • (B) Q, R and S
  • (C) P, R and S
  • (D) P, Q and S

Question 51:

In a dye identification test, a dyed fabric is immersed in an aqueous alkaline solution of a reducing agent. The colour of the dyed fabric changes and some dye bleeds out in the solution. The correct combination of the fabric and dye is:

  • (A) Wool and acid dye
  • (B) Polyester and disperse dye
  • (C) Cotton and vat dye
  • (D) Acrylic and basic dye

Question 52:

Assuming the step size \( h = 1 \), the numeric value (rounded off to 2 decimal places) of the definite integral
\[ \int_1^3 \frac{x}{1+x} \, dx \]
obtained using Simpson’s rule is ________.


Question 53:

Let \( y' \) and \( y'' \) denote the first and second derivatives of \( y \). Let \( y(x) \) satisfy:
\[ y'' - 3y' + 2y = 0,\quad y(0)=1,\quad y'(0)=3. \]
Then \(y''(0)\) (in integer) is ______.


Question 54:

The Gibb’s free energy equation for a system undergoing phase transition is given by \( \Delta G = \Delta H - T\Delta S \), where \( \Delta G \) is the change in Gibb’s free energy, \( \Delta H \) is the change in enthalpy, \( \Delta S \) is the change in entropy and \( T \) is the temperature in Kelvin.
During melting transition, two systems A and B, show no difference in \( \Delta H \) but B exhibits 10% lower \( \Delta S \). The ratio of melting temperature of B to that of A (rounded off to 2 decimal places) is ________.


Question 55:

A monofilament gets extruded at a speed of 10 m/min from a spinneret of 0.2 mm diameter. In order to ensure a spin draw ratio of 11, the first godet roller with a diameter of 70 cm has to rotate with an angular velocity (rpm) of (rounded off to nearest integer) _______.


Question 56:

Nine slivers having same mean linear density are doubled on a drawframe. If the standard deviation of linear density of each sliver is 0.3 ktex, then the standard deviation (ktex) of linear density of the doubled sliver (correct up to 1 decimal place) is ________.


Question 57:

The twist angle (degree) of surface fibres in a yarn with density of 700 kg/m\(^3\) and twist multiplier of 6000 m\(^{-1}\).tex\(^{0.5}\) (rounded off to nearest integer), is ________.


Question 58:

In a multiplicative type tensioner, the angle of wrap is 90° and the coefficient of friction between the yarn and the guide is 0.2. If the input yarn tension is 10 cN, then the output yarn tension (cN) is (rounded off to 1 decimal place) _______.


Question 59:

A take-up motion is shown below. The number of teeth on gear A, B, C, D and E are 60, 20, 40, 25 and 50, respectively. The circumference of the take-up roller is 40 cm. If one tooth is broken on gear B, then the wavelength (cm) of the fault in fabric (in integer) is _______.


Question 60:

The tensile load (F) in Newton (N) and the elongation (e) in cm of a yarn are related as follows
\[ F = 2e^2 + e \]
If the breaking elongation of the yarn is 10 cm, then the work of rupture (N·m) of yarn (rounded off to 2 decimal places) is ________.


Question 61:

Under steady-state thermal conditions, the temperature at various locations in a two-plate Togmeter is as shown in the Figure given below. If the thermal resistance of the standard bottom plate is 1.5 K/W, then the thermal resistance (K/W) of fabric specimen (correct up to 1 decimal place) is ________.


Question 62:

For a wool fibre strand, the relationship between \( V_r \) (limit CV % of linear density) and \( N \) (average number of fibres in the cross-section of the strand) is given below. \[ V_r = \frac{112}{\sqrt{N}} \]
For the above relationship, the CV % of linear density of wool fibre (rounded off to 2 decimal places) is _______.


Question 63:

The breaking load of a cotton yarn, with a twist multiplier of 4 tpi·Ne\(^ {-0.5} \), is 2.5 N. If the twist (number of turns per inch) of yarn is 20, then the tenacity (cN/tex) of the yarn (rounded off to 2 decimal places) is _______.


Question 64:

A cotton fabric is dyed at 5% shade (owf) using a monofunctional reactive dye. The molecular weight of the dye and cellobiose unit is 400 and 342, respectively. If all the hydroxyl groups in cellulose are accessible for reaction, the percentage of unreacted hydroxyl groups of cellulose remaining after dyeing (rounded off to 2 decimal places) is ________.


Question 65:

A polyester fabric of 150 cm width and areal density of 300 g/m\(^2\) is printed at a speed of 60 m/min. The solid content of the print paste is 50%. After printing and drying, the areal density of the printed fabric becomes 400 g/m\(^2\). The consumption (kg/h) of the print paste (in integer) is ________.



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GATE 2022 TF Detailed Paper Analysis

There were no revisions or modifications in the overall exam pattern. IIT Kharagpur listed MCQs (Multiple Choice Questions) and NATs (Numerical Answer Type) questions in the exam. Follow the below-mentioned table, describing the details of questions appeared in GATE 2022 TF as per the carried marks-

Question Types Question Frequency Carried Marks
No. Of 1 mark MCQs 18 18
No. Of 2 marks MCQs 21 42
No. Of 1 mark MSQs - -
No. Of 2 marks MSQs - -
No. Of 1 mark NATs 12 12
No. Of 2 marks NATs 14 28
Total 65 100
  • No MSQs (Multiple Select Questions) were listed in GATE 2022 TF
  • Questions related to Engineering Mathematics were moderately difficult
  • MCQs and MSQs carried 60% and 40% weightage respectively

Also Check:

GATE 2022 TF: Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

  • GATE 2022 TF asked both MCQs and NATs. It was held online via CBT mode
  • As per the specified marking scheme by IIT Delhi, from the final score, ⅓ and ⅔ marks would be reduced for each wrong MCQ carried 1 and 2 marks
  • Wrong attempted NATs were not supposed to bring any kind of deduction in the final achieved marks

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