GATE 2022 Life Sciences (XL) Question Paper with Solutions PDFs are available for downloading. GATE 2022 XL was held in the afternoon session (2:30 PM to 5:30 PM) by IIT Kharagpur on 12th February, 2022. The overall difficulty level was rated moderate to difficult. GATE 2022 XL Question Paper comprises multiple sections such as Chemistry (XL-P), Biochemistry (XL-Q), Botany (XL-R), Microbiology (XL-S), Zoology (XL-T), and Food Technology (XL-U).

GATE 2022 Life Sciences (XL) Question Paper with Solutions

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GATE 2022 Life Sciences (XL) Question Paper with Solutions



Question 1:

The movie was funny and I _________.

  • (A) could help laughing
  • (B) couldn't help laughed
  • (C) couldn't help laughing
  • (D) could helped laughed

Question 2:

If \( x : y : z = \frac{1}{2} : \frac{1}{3} : \frac{1}{4} \), what is the value of \( \frac{x + z - y}{y} \)?

  • (A) 0.75
  • (B) 1.25
  • (C) 2.25
  • (D) 3.25

Question 3:

Both the numerator and the denominator of \( \frac{3}{4} \) are increased by a positive integer, \( x \), and those of \( \frac{15}{17} \) are decreased by the same integer. This operation results in the same value for both the fractions. What is the value of \( x \)?

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4

Question 4:

A survey of 450 students about their subjects of interest resulted in the following outcome.
150 students are interested in Mathematics.
200 students are interested in Physics.
175 students are interested in Chemistry.
50 students are interested in Mathematics and Physics.
60 students are interested in Physics and Chemistry.
40 students are interested in Mathematics and Chemistry.
30 students are interested in Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry.
Remaining students are interested in Humanities.
Based on the above information, the number of students interested in Humanities is:

  • (A) 10
  • (B) 30
  • (C) 40
  • (D) 45

Question 5:

For the picture shown above, which one of the following is the correct picture representing reflection with respect to the mirror shown as the dotted line?



Question 6:

In the last few years, several new shopping malls were opened in the city. The total number of visitors in the malls is impressive. However, the total revenue generated through sales in the shops in these malls is generally low. Which one of the following is the CORRECT logical inference based on the information in the above passage?

  • (A) Fewer people are visiting the malls but spending more
  • (B) More people are visiting the malls but not spending enough
  • (C) More people are visiting the malls and spending more
  • (D) Fewer people are visiting the malls and not spending enough

Question 7:

In a partnership business, the monthly investment by three friends for the first six months is in the ratio 3: 4: 5. After six months, they had to increase their monthly investments by 10%, 15%, and 20%, respectively, of their initial monthly investment. The new investment ratio was kept constant for the next six months. What is the ratio of their shares in the total profit (in the same order) at the end of the year such that the share is proportional to their individual total investment over the year?

  • (A) 22 : 23 : 24
  • (B) 22 : 33 : 50
  • (C) 33 : 46 : 60
  • (D) 63 : 86 : 110

Question 8:

Consider the following equations of straight lines:
Line L1: \( 2x - 3y = 5 \)
Line L2: \( 3x + 2y = 8 \)
Line L3: \( 4x - 6y = 5 \)
Line L4: \( 6x - 9y = 6 \)
Which one among the following is the correct statement?

  • (A) L1 is parallel to L2 and L1 is perpendicular to L3
  • (B) L2 is parallel to L4 and L2 is perpendicular to L1
  • (C) L3 is perpendicular to L4 and L3 is parallel to L2
  • (D) L4 is perpendicular to L2 and L4 is parallel to L3

Question 9:

Given below are two statements and four conclusions drawn based on the statements.
Statement 1: Some soaps are clean.
Statement 2: All clean objects are wet.
Conclusion I: Some clean objects are soaps.
Conclusion II: No clean object is a soap.
Conclusion III: Some wet objects are soaps.
Conclusion IV: All wet objects are soaps.
Which one of the following options can be logically inferred?

  • (A) Only conclusion I is correct
  • (B) Either conclusion I or conclusion II is correct
  • (C) Either conclusion III or conclusion IV is correct
  • (D) Only conclusion I and conclusion III are correct

Question 10:

An ant walks in a straight line on a plane leaving behind a trace of its movement. The initial position of the ant is at point P facing east.
The ant first turns 72º anticlockwise at P, and then does the following two steps in sequence exactly FIVE times before halting.
1. Moves forward by 10 cm.
2. Turns 144º clockwise.
The pattern made by the trace left behind by the ant is:


Question 11:

Consider a second order reaction, \( 2A \rightarrow Product \).
The concentration of A is represented as \( [A] \).
Which of the following is the CORRECT plot for determining the rate constant for the above reaction?

  • (A) \( \log[A] \) vs time
  • (B) \( [A] \) vs time
  • (C) \( \frac{1}{[A]} \) vs time
  • (D) \( \frac{1}{[A]} \) vs time

Question 12:

Which among the following has the least second ionization energy?

  • (A) Al
  • (B) Si
  • (C) P
  • (D) S

Question 13:

Which among the following metal ions has the highest enthalpy of hydration?
(Assume the given metal ions have the same counter ion.)
Given: Atomic numbers of Ti, V, Cr and Mn are 22, 23, 24 and 25, respectively.

  • (A) Ti\(^{2+}\)
  • (B) V\(^{2+}\)
  • (C) Cr\(^{2+}\)
  • (D) Mn\(^{2+}\)

Question 14:

Among the following, the one having smallest bond angle is

  • (A) PH\(_3\)
  • (B) PF\(_3\)
  • (C) NF\(_3\)
  • (D) NH\(_3\)

Question 15:

Which of the following is the CORRECT statement about hexoses?

  • (A) D-mannose is C-4 epimer of D-glucose
  • (B) D-galactose is C-2 epimer of D-glucose
  • (C) D-glucose and L-glucose are diastereomers
  • (D) D-glucose and D-galactose are diastereomers

Question 16:

The bases present in DNA are

  • (A) adenine, cytosine, guanine and thymine
  • (B) adenine, guanine, thymine and uracil
  • (C) adenine, cytosine, thymine and uracil
  • (D) cytosine, guanine, thymine and uracil

Question 17:

The CORRECT order of basicity for the following compounds is

  • (A) I \(>\) II \(>\) III
  • (B) II \(>\) III \(>\) I
  • (C) II \(>\) I \(>\) III
  • (D) III \(>\) I \(>\) II

Question 18:

Molar conductance of monobromoacetic acid at infinite dilution is calculated to be \( x \times 10^{-4} \, S m^2 \, mol^{-1} \) at 25°C.
The value of \( x \) is (round off to the nearest integer).


% Given data \[ \begin{array{|c|c|} \hline Electrolyte & Limiting molar conductance at 25°C in 10^{-4} \, S m^2 \, mol^{-1}
\hline HBr & 427.95
KBr & 151.64
CH_2BrCOOK & 112.72
\hline \end{array} \]

  • (A) 164
  • (B) 195
  • (C) 389
  • (D) 467

Question 19:

A sample of benzene, contaminated with a non-volatile and non-ionic solute, boils at 0.31°C higher than that of pure benzene. The molality of the solute in the contaminated solution is ________ (round off to two decimal places).


Question 20:

Among the following statements about cobalt complexes, which is/are CORRECT?
Given: Atomic number of Co is 27

  • (A) \([Co(NH_3)_4]^{2+}\) exhibits square planar geometry
  • (B) \([Co(en)_3]^{3+}\) does not show optical isomerism (en = ethylenediamine)
  • (C) \([Co(H_2O)_6]^{3+}\) is paramagnetic in nature
  • (D) \([Co(NH_3)_5Cl]^{2+}\) shows ligand-to-metal charge transfer

Question 21:

Consider the following reaction:



The CORRECT statement(s) related to mono-chlorination at carbon-2 position is/are

  • (A) The reaction proceeds through alkyl radical intermediate
  • (B) Complete inversion of configuration at carbon-2 takes place
  • (C) Complete retention of configuration at carbon-2 takes place
  • (D) A mixture of enantiomers is formed

Question 22:

Consider the following enzyme catalyzed reaction:


where \( E \) is enzyme, \( S \) is substrate, \( ES \) is enzyme-substrate complex, and \( P \) is product.

The CORRECT statement(s) for the above reaction is/are

  • (A) Maximum possible rate of product formation is dependent on \( k_2 \) and initial concentration of enzyme.
  • (B) For a low substrate concentration, the rate of product formation is first order with respect to enzyme and also first order with respect to the substrate.
  • (C) The rate of product formation is independent of the concentration of enzyme-substrate complex.
  • (D) For a very high substrate concentration, initial rate of product formation is zero order with respect to the substrate.

Question 23:

Consider the following reaction:



The CORRECT pathway(s) involved in the reaction is/are

  • (A) E2 followed by isomerization
  • (B) E1 followed by isomerization
  • (C) Sn1 followed by isomerization
  • (D) Isomerization through carbocation

Question 24:

An aqueous solution of aspirin (HA) is prepared at pH 7.4. The ratio of concentration of \( A^- \) and \( HA \) at equilibrium is ________. (round off to the nearest integer).


Question 25:

The total number of 3-centre-2-electron bonds in \( B_4H_{10} \) is ________. (in integer).


Question 26:

The equilibrium constant for isomerization of 1-butene to trans-2-butene at 27°C is ________ (round off to one decimal place).


Question 27:

A 16 mW monochromatic light emits \( 4 \times 10^{16} \) photons in 1 second. When this light incident on a metal strip, photoelectrons are emitted. The wavelength of the emitted photoelectrons (in Å) is ________ (round off to one decimal place).


Question 28:

Which of the immune cells listed below are agranular?


P. Eosinophils

Q. Mast cells

R. Monocytes

S. T-cells

  • (A) P and Q only
  • (B) Q and R only
  • (C) R and S only
  • (D) S and P only

Question 29:

Which one of the following enzymes is located in the outer mitochondrial membrane?

  • (A) Citrate synthase
  • (B) Fumarase
  • (C) Monoamine oxidase
  • (D) Succinate dehydrogenase

Question 30:

Which one of the following statements about the DNA polymerase III of E. coli is NOT correct?

  • (A) It catalyzes nick translation.
  • (B) Its absence is lethal to \( E. coli \).
  • (C) It synthesizes a complementary DNA strand using a single-stranded template.
  • (D) It possesses 3’ → 5’ exonuclease activity.

Question 31:

Which one of the following compounds is NOT a translation inhibitor?

  • (A) Chloramphenicol
  • (B) Cycloheximide
  • (C) Puromycin
  • (D) Rifampicin

Question 32:

A dye was allowed to undergo migration on a chromatographic paper using a solvent. The dye, and the solvent-front migrated 5 and 20 cm, respectively, from the point of origin. The retention factor (rounded off to two places decimal) for the dye is ________.


Question 33:

The \( pK_a \) values of the carboxylic and amino groups of an amino acid with a non-ionizable side chain are 2.17 and 9.13, respectively. The isoelectric point (rounded off to two places decimals) of this amino acid is ________.


Question 34:

The number of ATP molecules required for the complete assimilation of one molecule of CO\(_2\) in the Calvin cycle is ______.


Question 35:

The absorbance of a \( 5 \times 10^{-4} \, M \) solution of tyrosine at 280 nm wavelength is 0.75. The path length of the cuvette is 1 cm. The molar absorption coefficient at the given wavelength in \( M^{-1} cm^{-1} \), correct to the nearest integer, is ______.


Question 36:

Filamentous photosynthetic algae were placed on a microscopic slide and illuminated with light of different colors as illustrated.

The bacteria that are known to migrate towards the region of high \( O_2 \) were also added uniformly on the slide. Which one of the following options illustrates the distribution of bacteria along the length of the microscopic slide after illumination?





Question 37:

Two RNAs shown below were used separately as templates in an in vitro translation system, which can generate proteins in all possible reading frames.
\[ RNA_1: 5' - (AG)_n - 3' \quad and \quad RNA_2: 5' - (AAG)_n - 3' \]
The RNA_1 translated product contained Arg and Glu.
The RNA_2 translated product contained Arg, Glu, and Lys.

Which one of the following codons directs the incorporation of Arg?

  • (A) AAG
  • (B) AGA
  • (C) GAA
  • (D) GAG

Question 38:

Which of the following statements about endogenous synthesis of insulin are correct?
\[ P. Insulin is synthesized as preproinsulin. \quad Q. Preproinsulin is converted to proinsulin. \quad R. Single-site cleavage of proinsulin eliminates C chain. \quad S. Mature insulin consists of disulfide-linked A and B chains. \]

  • (A) P, Q, and R
  • (B) P, Q, and S
  • (C) P, R, and S
  • (D) Q, R, and S

Question 39:

Which one of the following enzymes converts testosterone to estradiol?

  • (A) Aromatase
  • (B) 3\(\beta\)-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase
  • (C) 5\(\alpha\)-reductase
  • (D) 17\(\beta\)-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase

Question 40:

Purification of 6×His-tagged protein using Ni-NTA column is an example of

  • (A) affinity chromatography
  • (B) hydrophobic-interaction chromatography
  • (C) ion-exchange chromatography
  • (D) size-exclusion chromatography

Question 41:

Which of the following carbohydrates has/have a \( \beta 1 \to 4 \) glycosidic linkage?

  • (A) Cellulose
  • (B) Chitin
  • (C) Lactose
  • (D) Maltose

Question 42:

Which of the following statements about IgA is/are correct?

  • (A) It is secreted into colostrum.
  • (B) It is transported across the cell by transcytosis.
  • (C) Its secretion is facilitated by poly-Ig receptor.
  • (D) It primarily exists as a dimer in serum.

Question 43:

The standard free energy changes for conversion of phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) to pyruvate, and ATP synthesis are shown below. \[ PEP + H_2O \rightleftharpoons pyruvate + P_i \quad \Delta G^\circ = -61.9 \, kJ/mol \] \[ ADP + P_i \rightleftharpoons ATP + H_2O \quad \Delta G^\circ = 30.5 \, kJ/mol \]
The starting concentrations of PEP, ADP, pyruvate, and ATP are 25, 25, 50, and 50 mM, respectively. The value of the universal gas constant (R) is 8.315 J·mol\(^{-1}\)·K\(^{-1}\). The actual free energy change in kJ·mol\(^{-1}\) for the reaction
\[ PEP + ADP \rightarrow pyruvate + ATP \]

carried out at 37°C will be ________ (rounded off to one place of decimal).


Question 44:

The dissociation constant for a receptor-ligand pair is \( 0.25 \times 10^{-7} \, M \). The ligand was added to a solution of the receptor such that the receptor was 50% saturated at equilibrium. Assume that the receptor has one ligand binding site. The concentration of the free ligand at equilibrium in nM, correct to the nearest integer, should be ________.


Question 45:

The half-maximal velocity of an enzyme catalyzed reaction was found at a substrate concentration of \(0.5 \times 10^{-6} \, M\). This enzyme follows Michaelis-Menten kinetics. In the presence of a competitive inhibitor, the half-maximal velocity was found at a substrate concentration of \(1.5 \times 10^{-6} \, M\). Given that the enzyme-inhibitor pair has a dissociation constant of \(2 \times 10^{-7} \, M\), the concentration of the competitive inhibitor in \(\mu M\), rounded off to one place of decimal, was ______.


Question 46:

A forty-times diluted sample of ssRNA gave an \( A_{260} \) of 0.01. The concentration of the ssRNA before the dilution in \(\mu g/mL\) was ______ (correct to the nearest integer).


Question 47:

In Angiosperms, normally ‘Exarch Xylem’ occurs in

  • (A) dicot stem
  • (B) monocot stem
  • (C) dicot root
  • (D) dicot leaf

Question 48:

‘Quiescent Center’ is present in

  • (A) leaf meristem
  • (B) root apical meristem
  • (C) shoot apical meristem
  • (D) floral meristem

Question 49:

With reference to virulence (vir) region of nopaline type Ti plasmid of
Agrobacterium tumefaciens, match Group-I (vir gene) and Group-II (coded protein) in CORRECT combination.
\[ \begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \textbf{Group-I} & \textbf{Group-II}
\hline P. vir A & I. Single strand T-DNA binding protein
Q. vir B & II. Topoisomerase
R. vir E & III. Membrane protein, channel for T-DNA
S. vir D & IV. Sensor protein, constitutive expression
\hline \end{array} \]
Which one of the following combinations is correct?

  • (A) P-IV, Q-III, R-II, S-I
  • (B) P-IV, Q-II, R-I, S-II
  • (C) P-IV, Q-III, R-I, S-III
  • (D) P-I, Q-III, R-II, S-IV

Question 50:

Anomalous secondary growth is observed in

  • (A) Triticum
  • (B) Oryza
  • (C) Zea
  • (D) Dracaena

Question 51:

Which of the following plant diseases is/are caused by bacteria?

  • (A) Angular leaf spot of cotton
  • (B) Citrus canker
  • (C) Apple scab
  • (D) Leaf curl of papaya

Question 52:

Phylogenetic system of classification is/are proposed by

  • (A) Carolus Linnaeus
  • (B) John Hutchinson
  • (C) Engler and Prantl
  • (D) Bentham and Hooker

Question 53:

Which of the following is/are part of the marine ecosystem?

  • (A) Open ocean
  • (B) Chaparral
  • (C) Deep sea
  • (D) Estuaries

Question 54:

In NADP\(^+\)-malic enzyme type C\(_4\) photosynthesis cycle, \(n\) molecule(s) of ATP is/are required for the assimilation of one molecule of CO\(_2\). The value of \(n\) is ________ (in integer).


Question 55:

An Arabidopsis thaliana mutant plant developed defective flowers with altered floral organ identity and patterning. In this mutant, the four floral whorls contain Sepal-Sepal-Carpel-Carpel, from the periphery to the center of the flower. Based on the typical ABC model of floral organ patterning, which among the following are mutated in this plant?

  • (A) Class A gene(s)
  • (B) Class B gene(s)
  • (C) Class C gene(s)
  • (D) Double mutant for Class A and Class C genes

Question 56:

Match the secondary metabolites in Group-I with types of secondary metabolites in Group-II in CORRECT order.



Which one of the following combinations is correct?

  • (A) P-I, Q-V, R-II, S-IV, T-III
  • (B) P-V, Q-II, R-IV, S-I, T-III
  • (C) P-II, Q-III, R-IV, S-V, T-I
  • (D) P-V, Q-I, R-II, S-IV, T-III

Question 57:

Match Group-I (enzyme), Group-II (reaction catalyzed by the enzyme), and Group-III (subcellular localization of the enzyme and the associated metabolic process) in the CORRECT combination.

  • (A) P-III-a, Q-IV-d, R-I-b, S-II-c
  • (B) P-II-a, Q-III-d, R-I-b, S-IV-c
  • (C) P-I-a, Q-II-b, R-I-d, S-III-c
  • (D) P-IV-a, Q-II-d, R-I-b, S-III-c

Question 58:

Match Group-I (selection agent) and Group-II (gene) in CORRECT combination.


  • (A) P-III, Q-VI, R-II, S-I
  • (B) P-IV, Q-III, R-II, S-I
  • (C) P-I, Q-VI, R-III, S-II
  • (D) P-II, Q-I, R-V, S-VI

Question 59:

Match Group I (plant natural product), Group II (class) and Group III (source plant) in CORRECT combination.

  • (A) P-I-d, Q-II-c, R-IV-a, S-III-b
  • (B) P-III-d, Q-IV-b, R-I-c, S-II-a
  • (C) P-II-a, Q-III-b, R-I-d, S-IV-c
  • (D) P-III-d, Q-I-c, R-IV-b, S-II-a

Question 60:

Match Group I (plant disease), Group II (causal organism) and Group III (affected plant) in \textbf{CORRECT} combination.



  • (A) P-II-a, Q-V-b, R-III-d, S-I-e
  • (B) P-III-d, Q-V-c, R-II-e, S-IV-f
  • (C) P-III-d, Q-V-c, R-I-b, S-II-e
  • (D) P-V-c, Q-I-d, R-VI-b, S-II-e

Question 61:

Make CORRECT match between Group-I and Group-II, in relation to interaction between two species.



Which one of the following combinations is correct?

  • (A) P-I, Q-II, R-III, S-IV
  • (B) P-III, Q-II, R-IV, S-I
  • (C) P-IV, Q-III, R-II, S-I
  • (D) P-III, Q-IV, R-II, S-I

Question 62:

Which of the following matches is/are CORRECT?

  • (A) Surface fibre – Cotton – Gossypium hirsutum
  • (B) Bast fibre – Flax – Corchorus capsularis
  • (C) Drying oil – Safflower oil – Helianthus annuus
  • (D) Non-drying oil – Castor oil – Ricinus communis

Question 63:

Which of the following is/are phanerogamic parasite(s)?

  • (A) Cuscuta reflexa
  • (B) Orobanche cernua
  • (C) Ocimum sanctum
  • (D) Santalum album

Question 64:

When a true breeding tall plant containing red flowers was crossed with the true breeding dwarf plant containing white flowers, all F1 plants were tall with red flowers. When the F1 plant was self-pollinated, considering independent assortment of plant height and flower colour traits, the calculated percentage probability of dwarf plants bearing red flowers in the F2 generation is ________ percent (round off to 2 decimal places).


Question 65:

A hypothetical plant gene ADSH22 is encoded by the nuclear genome. The length of the mature mRNA for ADSH22 is 2150 nucleotides (nts). This mRNA has a 270 nts long 5' UTR and 200 nts long 3' UTR. Taking average molecular weight of an amino acid as 115 Dalton (Da), the calculated molecular weight of ADSH22 protein is ________ kDa (round off to 1 decimal place).


Question 66:

The terminal acceptor of electron during anaerobic respiration in Methanococcus is _________.

  • (A) Nitrate ion
  • (B) Sulfate ion
  • (C) Carbon dioxide
  • (D) Oxygen

Question 67:

Which one of the following mutagens convert DNA’s adenine to hypoxanthine?

  • (A) Ultraviolet light
  • (B) Mitomycin C
  • (C) Methyl methanesulfonate
  • (D) Nitrous acid

Question 68:

Which one of the following leukocytes are present in the largest proportion in healthy human blood?

  • (A) Neutrophils
  • (B) Eosinophils
  • (C) Basophils
  • (D) Monocytes

Question 69:

The site of photosynthesis in cyanobacteria is ________.

  • (A) Chloroplast
  • (B) Chromatophores
  • (C) Thylakoids
  • (D) Chlorosomes

Question 70:

The antimicrobial activity of vancomycin is due to the _________.

  • (A) inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis
  • (B) damage to the cytoplasmic membrane
  • (C) inhibition of cell wall synthesis
  • (D) regulation of DNA supercoiling

Question 71:

Phenolics act as disinfectant by _________.

  • (A) rupturing plasma membrane followed by leakage of cellular contents
  • (B) bond formation between adjacent pyrimidine bases
  • (C) forming adduct with amino acid and unsaturated fatty acids
  • (D) alkylation of proteins

Question 72:

Which of the following methods are used for the identification of microorganisms?

  • (A) Nucleic acid hybridization
  • (B) Southern blotting
  • (C) 16s rRNA sequencing
  • (D) Percentage G-C content

Question 73:

Which of the following are present in Gram-negative bacteria?

  • (A) Lipopolysaccharide
  • (B) Teichoic acid
  • (C) Periplasm
  • (D) Endotoxin

Question 74:

Nonsense suppressor mutation is found in _________.

  • (A) rRNA
  • (B) tRNA
  • (C) start codon of mRNA
  • (D) stop codon of mRNA

Question 75:

Choose the correct match for structural components of bacteria to their function.

  • (A) (P)-(ii), (Q)-(iii), (R)-(i), (S)-(iv)
  • (B) (P)-(ii), (Q)-(i), (R)-(iii), (S)-(iv)
  • (C) (P)-(ii), (Q)-(i), (R)-(iv), (S)-(iii)
  • (D) (P)-(i), (Q)-(iv), (R)-(iii), (S)-(ii)

Question 76:

Match the pathogen with the appropriate disease.


  • (A) (P)-(ii), (Q)-(iii), (R)-(i), (S)-(iv)
  • (B) (P)-(ii), (Q)-(i), (R)-(iii), (S)-(iv)
  • (C) (P)-(i), (Q)-(iv), (R)-(ii), (S)-(iii)
  • (D) (P)-(i), (Q)-(iv), (R)-(iii), (S)-(ii)

Question 77:

Match the correct mode of cell division with respective bacteria.

  • (A) (P)-(ii), (Q)-(iii), (R)-(i), (S)-(iv)
  • (B) (P)-(ii), (Q)-(i), (R)-(iii), (S)-(iv)
  • (C) (P)-(iv), (Q)-(ii), (R)-(i), (S)-(iii)
  • (D) (P)-(i), (Q)-(iv), (R)-(iii), (S)-(ii)

Question 78:

The correct sequence of overall biochemical reaction which expresses the process of denitrification is _________.

  • (A) \( 2NO_3^- \rightarrow 2NO_2^- \rightarrow N_2O \rightarrow 2NO \rightarrow N_2 \)
  • (B) \( 2NO_3^- \rightarrow 2NO_2^- \rightarrow 2NO \rightarrow N_2O \rightarrow N_2 \)
  • (C) \( 2NO_3^- \rightarrow 2NO \rightarrow 2NO_2^- \rightarrow N_2O \rightarrow N_2 \)
  • (D) \( 2NO_3^- \rightarrow N_2O \rightarrow 2NO \rightarrow 2NO_2^- \rightarrow N_2 \)

Question 79:

Which of the following diseases are caused by family of DNA viruses?

  • (A) Hepatitis B
  • (B) Smallpox
  • (C) Influenza
  • (D) Rabies

Question 80:

Which of the following Gram-positive cocci are found in biofilm of dental plaque?

  • (A) Gonococcus
  • (B) Streptococcus mutans
  • (C) Streptococcus sobrinus
  • (D) Fusobacterium species

Question 81:

Which of the following statements are TRUE for archaea?

  • (A) Cell wall in archaea contains muramic acid and D-amino acid
  • (B) N-Formylmethionine is the first amino acid to initiate new polypeptide chain synthesis in archaea
  • (C) Methionine is the first amino acid used during protein synthesis in archaea
  • (D) Membrane of archaea contains phytanyl rather than fatty acids

Question 82:

If the plasmid given below is digested with restriction enzymes HindIII and EcoRI, considering complete digestion, how many DNA fragments will be released?


Question 83:

Escherichia coli growing under favorable conditions doubles in every 20 minutes. If the initial number of Escherichia coli cells is 100, what will be the logarithmic number of cells at 17th generation? (Answer up to 1 decimal place)


Question 84:

What will be the value of the Numerical Aperture (NA), if the half aperture angle is 58° and oil-immersed objective is used for the process of light microscopy? (Answer up to 1 decimal place)


Question 85:

Which one of the following organic compounds is composed of only (i) a nitrogen containing base, (ii) a single five-carbon sugar, and (iii) a triphosphate?

  • (A) Nucleoside
  • (B) Nucleotide
  • (C) Base
  • (D) Nucleic acid

Question 86:

Which one of the following animals develops adaptive predator avoidance morphology because of the presence of high predator number in its habitat?

  • (A) Daphnia sp.
  • (B) Scaphiopus sp.
  • (C) Wolbachia sp.
  • (D) Rhodnius sp.

Question 87:

To which class of Drosophila developmental genes does fushi tarazu (ftz) belong?

  • (A) Gap genes
  • (B) Segment polarity genes
  • (C) Pair rule genes
  • (D) Maternal effect genes

Question 88:

The action of which class of enzyme inhibitors can be reversed by adding an excess of substrate?

  • (A) Uncompetitive inhibitors
  • (B) Competitive inhibitors
  • (C) Non-specific inhibitors
  • (D) Allosteric inhibitors

Question 89:

Mendel deduced the genetic principle of inheritance by experimenting on sweet pea plants. One of the experiments involved crossing plants with two contrasting characters, tall (dominant) and dwarf (recessive), which yielded all tall plants in the first generation. When the same genetic cross was independently repeated by a researcher, only short plants were obtained. Which one of the following can possibly explain the altered outcome?

  • (A) Tall plants were heterozygous
  • (B) An enhancer for the tall allele is present in the dwarf plant
  • (C) A suppressor for the tall allele is present in the dwarf plant
  • (D) Dwarf plants are homozygous

Question 90:

Which of the following is/are responsible for reversible receptor–ligand interaction?

  • (A) Ionic interactions
  • (B) Hydrogen bonding
  • (C) Peptide bonding
  • (D) Hydrophobic interactions

Question 91:

In the human body, which of the following is/are involved in processing of a foreign antigen?

  • (A) B-cells
  • (B) Macrophages
  • (C) Red blood cells
  • (D) Platelets

Question 92:

Animals can be classified as ‘specialists’ or ‘generalists’ with respect to diet and habitat selection. Which of the following organism/s belong/s to the specialist category?

  • (A) Raccoon
  • (B) Panda
  • (C) Polar Bear
  • (D) Koala Bear

Question 93:

Match the drug/chemicals listed in Column I with the developmental/physiological defects listed in Column II.

  • (A) P-(iii); Q-(iv); R-(ii); S-(i)
  • (B) P-(i); Q-(iv); R-(iii); S-(ii)
  • (C) P-(ii); Q-(iv); R-(iii); S-(i)
  • (D) P-(ii); Q-(iii); R-(iv); S-(i)

Question 94:

Match the animals listed in Column I with primary tissue or organ of residence in the host listed in Column II


  • (A) P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(ii), S-(i)
  • (B) P-(i), Q-(iv), R-(iii), S-(ii)
  • (C) P-(ii), Q-(iii), R-(iv), S-(i)
  • (D) P-(iii), Q-(i), R-(iv), S-(ii)

Question 95:

Match the cell types listed in Column I with their sources in Column II and the primary functional roles listed in Column III.

  • (A) P-(iii)-b, Q-(iv)-c, R-(ii)-a, S-(i)-d
  • (B) P-(ii)-c, Q-(iv)-d, R-(i)-a, S-(iii)-b
  • (C) P-(i)-a, Q-(iv)-b, R-(ii)-c, S-(iii)-d
  • (D) P-(iii)-c, Q-(iv)-b, R-(ii)-a, S-(i)-d

Question 96:

Match the ecological concepts listed in Column I with their definitions listed in Column II.

  • (A) P-(ii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(iii)
  • (B) P-(iv), Q-(iii), R-(i), S-(ii)
  • (C) P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(ii)
  • (D) P-(i), Q-(iv), R-(iii), S-(ii)

Question 97:

Match the hormones listed in Column I with their primary source tissues in Column II and the primary target tissues listed in Column III.


  • (A) P-(iii)-b, Q-(iv)-c, R-(ii)-a, S-(i)-d
  • (B) P-(iv)-c, Q-(iii)-b, R-(ii)-a, S-(i)-d
  • (C) P-(iv)-b, Q-(iii)-d, R-(ii)-c, S-(i)-a
  • (D) P-(iii)-b, Q-(iv)-c, R-(ii)-d, S-(i)-a

Question 98:

2-Deoxyglucose (2-DG) inhibits the proliferation of cells and hence finds use as an anti-cancer agent. It is also used in COVID therapy, where it blocks hyperproliferation of virus-infected cells. Mechanistically, 2-DG blocks glycolysis by inhibiting the activities of which of the following enzyme/s?

  • (A) Hexokinase
  • (B) Glucose 6-phosphate isomerase
  • (C) Glucose-6 phosphate dehydrogenase
  • (D) Phosphofructokinase

Question 99:

According to Abbe’s equation on microscopy, the ability to resolve two entities inside a cell by light microscopy depends on which of the following factor/s?

  • (A) Magnification of the objective lens
  • (B) Intensity of incident light
  • (C) Wavelength
  • (D) Numerical aperture of the objective lens

Question 100:

Match the animal inactivity behaviors listed in Column I with representative animals in Column II and their definitions listed in Column III.





Column III

(a) Prolonged period of inactivity without reducing body temperature

(b) Inactivity period which accompanies extended periods of dryness

(c) Decreased metabolism with lowered body temperature occurring in daily activity cycles

(d) Decreased metabolism and lower body temperature for weeks or months

  • (A) P-(ii)-c, Q-(iv)-b, R-(i)-a, S-(iii)-d
  • (B) P-(iv)-c, Q-(iii)-a, R-(ii)-a, S-(i)-b
  • (C) P-(iv)-c, Q-(ii)-b, R-(i)-a, S-(iii)-d
  • (D) P-(iv)-b, Q-(i)-c, R-(ii)-d, S-(iii)-a

Question 101:

If the vital capacity (VC) of an individual is 4900 ml, the tidal volume (TV) is 500 ml, and the inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is 3300 ml, the expiratory reserve volume (ERV) of the individual is ________ ml (in integer).


Question 102:

A typical food chain involves producers, herbivores, primary carnivores, and secondary carnivores. Based on Lindeman’s law of trophic efficiency, if producers have 40 kJ of energy, the energy that will be stored in secondary carnivores is ________ kJ (round off to two decimal places).


Question 103:

The average body length of Drosophila nasuta collected from Andaman and Nicobar Islands is 2 mm. From this population, a few males and females having a body length of 3 mm were selected and interbred. The average body length of the resultant progeny was 2.5 mm. The heritability (h²) of the body length in this population is ________. (round off to one decimal place)


Question 104:

Which among the given options truly depict the lines 1 and 2 in the figure below with respect to the effect of heat processing on food?


  • (A) 1-Safety, 2-Quality
  • (B) 1-Yield, 2-Safety
  • (C) 1-Yield, 2-Quality
  • (D) 1-Quality, 2-Safety

Question 105:

Homogenization of milk leads to disintegration of fat globules by

  • (A) Turbulence and pasteurization
  • (B) Pasteurization and cavitation
  • (C) Pasteurization and pressurization
  • (D) Turbulence and cavitation

Question 106:

The lowest water activity (\(a_w\)) supporting the growth of Staphylococcus aureus in food under aerobic condition is

  • (A) 0.98
  • (B) 0.91
  • (C) 0.89
  • (D) 0.86

Question 107:

Cultures used in industrial production of yogurt are

  • (A) Lactococcus lactis subsp. lactis
  • (B) Streptococcus thermophilus
  • (C) Leuconostoc mesenteroides subsp. cremoris
  • (D) Lactobacillus delbrueckii subsp. bulgaricus

Question 108:

In a dairy plant, spray drying technology is used to produce whey powder. The rate of spray drying depends on

  • (A) Temperature of the incoming air
  • (B) Shape of the cyclone separator
  • (C) Diameter of the whey droplet
  • (D) Heat transfer coefficient of hot air

Question 109:

The parboiling of paddy results into

  • (A) Increase in the milling losses
  • (B) Increase in the nutritional value of rice
  • (C) Increase in the head rice recovery
  • (D) Increase in the broken rice percentage

Question 110:

One hundred kg paddy is dried from 18% wet basis to 13% wet basis moisture content. The amount of water removed (in kg) from the paddy is ________ (round off to one decimal place).


Question 111:

In a canning industry, the total process time (F0) was calculated as 3 min. If each can contains 20 spores having decimal reduction time of 1.6 min, the probability of spoilage would be ________ in 100 cans (round off to the nearest integer).


Question 112:

Match the edible oil refining stages given in Column I with their respective functions in Column II.


  • (A) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4
  • (B) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4
  • (C) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
  • (D) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4

Question 113:

Make the correct pair of food packaging technology given in Column I with operating principle or description in Column II.

  • (A) P-(3), Q-(4), R-(1), S-(2)
  • (B) P-(3), Q-(2), R-(1), S-(4)
  • (C) P-(1), Q-(4), R-(3), S-(2)
  • (D) P-(3), Q-(1), R-(4), S-(2)

Question 114:

Which of the following is not a caramel flavour producing compound?

  • (A) 3-Hydroxy-2-methylpyran-4-one
  • (B) 2H-4-Hydroxy-5-methylfuran-3-one
  • (C) 3-Hydroxy-2-acetylfuran
  • (D) p-Amino benzoic acid

Question 115:

Match the size reduction equipment in Column I with the method of operation in Column II.


  • (A) P-(2), Q-(4), R-(1), S-(3)
  • (B) P-(3), Q-(1), R-(2), S-(4)
  • (C) P-(4), Q-(1), R-(2), S-(3)
  • (D) P-(3), Q-(4), R-(1), S-(1)

Question 116:

Most commonly used refrigerant in direct immersion freezing of food is

  • (A) Monochlorodifluoromethane
  • (B) Dichlorodifluoromethane
  • (C) Liquid nitrogen
  • (D) Freon

Question 117:

Which among the following are \(\omega\)-6 polyunsaturated essential fatty acids?

  • (A) 18:2 Linoleic acid
  • (B) 18:3 \(\alpha\)-Linolenic acid
  • (C) 18:3 \(\gamma\)-Linolenic acid
  • (D) 20:4 Arachidonic acid

Question 118:

Which among the following statements are true with respect to protein denaturation?

  • (A) There may be an increase in \(\alpha\)-helix and \(\beta\)-sheet structure
  • (B) It is an irreversible process
  • (C) When fully denatured, globular proteins resemble a random coil
  • (D) The peptide bonds are broken

Question 119:

Identify the correct pair(s) of milling equipment and the grain for which it is used.

  • (A) Mist polisher–Rice
  • (B) Break roll–Wheat
  • (C) Rubber roll–Pigeon pea
  • (D) Beall degermer–Maize

Question 120:

Which among the following expression(s) is/are correct?

  • (A) Reynolds number = \(\frac{{Density \times Velocity \times Characteristic dimension}}{{Viscosity}} \)
  • (B) Nusselt number = \(\frac{{Convective heat transfer coefficient \times Characteristic dimension}}{{Thermal conductivity of solid}} \)
  • (C) Schmidt number = \(\frac{{Kinematic viscosity of fluid}}{{Diffusivity}} \)
  • (D) Biot number = \(\frac{{Convective heat transfer coefficient \times Characteristic dimension}}{{Thermal conductivity of fluid}} \)

Question 121:

In a dairy processing plant, milk enters a 30 m long and 2 cm diameter tube at 60 °C and leaves at 57 °C. The total heat loss over the tube length is 381.15 W. The specific heat capacity, density, and viscosity of milk are 3.85 kJ kg\(^{-1}\) K\(^{-1}\), 1020 kg m\(^{-3}\), and 1.20 cP, respectively. The Reynolds number for the flow is ________ (round off to the nearest integer).


Question 122:

The dry bulb temperature and relative humidity of air inside a storage chamber are 37 °C and 50%, respectively. The saturation pressure of water vapour at 37 °C and barometric pressure are 6.28 kPa and 101.32 kPa, respectively. The humidity ratio of air inside the chamber is ________ kg water (kg dry air)⁻¹ (round off to three decimal places).


Given: Molecular weight of water vapour and dry air are 18.02 g mol⁻¹ and 28.97 g mol⁻¹, respectively.


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GATE 2022 XL Detailed Paper Analysis

Out of all the sections, students were supposed to attempt only 2 sections. It is important to note that Chemistry (XL-P) was a compulsory section to attempt. Students were asked to attempt one more section out of all the other sections. The below-mentioned table shows the details of questions asked in the Chemistry (XL-P) section of GATE 2022 XL-

Question Types Question Frequency Carried Marks
No. Of 1 Mark MCQs 8 8
No. Of 2 Marks MCQs 1 2
No. Of 1 Mark MSQs - -
No. OF 2 Mark MSQs 3 6
No. Of 1 Mark NATs 1 1
No. Of 2 Marks NATs 4 8
Total 17 25
  • The Chemistry section was responsible for carrying 25% of the total weightage that were distributed between 17 questions
  • Following the previous year's marking scheme, each question carried either 1 or 2 marks. Students were entitled to get 1 and 2 marks, depending on the marks carried by that particular question, for every correct answer
  • As per the specified negative marking pattern, ⅓ marks and ⅔ marks must have been deducted as a penalty for every incorrect attempted question carried 1 and 2 marks respectively
  • It must be noted that negative marking scheme is not applicable in case of wrong attempted NATs

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GATE 2022 BM: Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

  • GATE 2022 XL asked both MCQs and NATs. It was held online via CBT mode
  • As per the specified marking scheme by IIT Delhi, from the final score, ⅓ and ⅔ marks would be reduced for each wrong MCQ carried 1 and 2 marks
  • Wrong attempted NATs were not supposed to bring any kind of deduction in the final achieved marks

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