GATE 2023 Architecture and Planning Question Paper PDF is available here for download. IIT Kanpur conducted GATE 2023 Architecture and Planning exam on February 4, 2023 in the Afternoon Session from 02:30 PM to 05:30 PM. Students have to answer 65 questions in GATE 2023 Architecture and Planning Question Paper carrying a total weightage of 100 marks. 10 questions are from the General Aptitude section and 55 questions are from Core Discipline.

GATE 2023 Architecture and Planning Question Paper with Solutions PDF

GATE 2023 Architecture and Planning Question Paper with Answer Key PDF Download PDF Check Solutions

Question 1:

He did not manage to fix the car himself, so he ______ in the garage.

  • (A) got it fixed
  • (B) getting it fixed
  • (C) gets fixed
  • (D) got fixed

Question 2:

Planting : Seed :: Raising : _____  (By word meaning)

  • (A) Child
  • (B) Temperature
  • (C) Height
  • (D) Lift

Question 3:

A certain country has 504 universities and 25951 colleges. These are categorised into Grades I, II, and III as shown in the given pie charts.
What is the percentage, correct to one decimal place, of higher education institutions (colleges and universities) that fall into Grade III?

 

  • (A) 22.7
  • (B) 23.7
  • (C) 15.0
  • (D) 66.8

Question 4:

The minute-hand and second-hand of a clock cross each other _____ times between 09:15:00 AM and 09:45:00 AM on a day.

  • (A) 30
  • (B) 15
  • (C) 29
  • (D) 31

Question 5:

The symbols ○, ✶, △, and □ are to be filled in a grid.

Rules:
1. Every row and every column must contain each of the four symbols.
2. Every 2×2 square (bold lines) must also contain each of the four symbols.
Which symbol will occupy the box marked with ‘?’?

 

  • (A) ○
  • (B) ✶
  • (C) △
  • (D) □

Question 6:

In a recently held parent-teacher meeting, the teachers had very few complaints about Ravi. After all, Ravi was a hardworking and kind student. Incidentally, almost all of Ravi’s friends at school were hardworking and kind too. But the teachers drew attention to Ravi’s complete lack of interest in sports. The teachers believed that, along with some of his friends who showed similar disinterest in sports, Ravi needed to engage in some sports for his overall development.

Based only on the information provided above, which one of the following statements can be logically inferred with certainty?

  • (A) All of Ravi’s friends are hardworking and kind.
  • (B) No one who is not a friend of Ravi is hardworking and kind.
  • (C) None of Ravi’s friends are interested in sports.
  • (D) Some of Ravi’s friends are hardworking and kind.

Question 7:

Consider the following inequalities: \[ p^2 - 4q < 4, \quad 3p + 2q < 6 \]
where \(p\) and \(q\) are positive integers.

The value of \((p+q)\) is _____.

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 1
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4

Question 8:

Which one of the sentence sequences in the given options creates a coherent narrative?

  • (i) I could not bring myself to knock.
  • (A) (iv), (i), (iii), (ii)
  • (B) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
  • (C) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
  • (D) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)

Question 9:

How many pairs of sets \((S, T)\) are possible among the subsets of \(\{1,2,3,4,5,6\}\) that satisfy the condition that \(S \subseteq T\)?

  • (A) 729
  • (B) 728
  • (C) 665
  • (D) 664

Question 10:

An opaque pyramid (shown below), with a square base and isosceles faces, is suspended in the path of a parallel beam of light, such that its shadow is cast on a screen oriented perpendicular to the direction of the light beam. The pyramid can be reoriented in any direction within the light beam. Under these conditions, which one of the shadows P, Q, R, and S is NOT possible?
 

  • (A) P
  • (B) Q
  • (C) R
  • (D) S

Question 11:

The triad of secondary colours in the additive colour system is _____.

  • (A) Cyan, Magenta, Yellow
  • (B) Red, Green, Blue
  • (C) Purple, Green, Orange
  • (D) Magenta, Blue, Yellow

Question 12:

The criterion that is specifically mentioned in Special Conditions of Contract (SCC) is _____.

  • (A) Scope and performance of the work
  • (B) Site mobilization advance
  • (C) Labour regulation
  • (D) Arbitration and law

Question 13:

The command employed in AutoCAD® to create a mesh from a line or curve that is swept along a straight path (as shown in the figure below) is _____.
 


  • (A) TABSURF
  • (B) REVSURF
  • (C) RULESURF
  • (D) EDGESURF

Question 14:

As per the Burra Charter (2013) ‘Cultural Significance’ means _____ for past, present or future generations.

  • (A) historic, aesthetic, scientific, social or spiritual value
  • (B) archaeological, architectural, environmental, cultural value
  • (C) natural, cultural, mixed, intangible heritage
  • (D) heritage value, authenticity, integrity

Question 15:

As per URDPFI (2015), the density range (in persons per Hectare) suggested for overall planning approach for small towns in hill areas is _____.

  • (A) 20-30
  • (B) 45-75
  • (C) 100-125
  • (D) 125-150

Question 16:

In ecology, the term ‘niche’ refers to _____.

  • (A) the ways in which species interact with biotic and abiotic factors of the environment
  • (B) only the abiotic factors such as temperature and rainfall
  • (C) the gradient change of physiochemical characteristics between two ecosystems
  • (D) the zone of junction or a transition area between two biomes

Question 17:

Lowry’s model of Metropolis (1964) includes two _________ spatial interaction models.

  • (A) Singly constrained
  • (B) Doubly constrained
  • (C) Unconstrained
  • (D) Triply constrained

Question 18:

Select the method(s) that involve(s) a pairwise comparison matrix for quantifying the weights of decision criteria.

  • (A) Analytical hierarchy process
  • (B) Exploratory factor analysis
  • (C) Latent class analysis
  • (D) Multiple linear regression

Question 19:

Select the micro-organism which is NOT an enteric pathogen.

  • (A) Staphylococcus aureus
  • (B) Vibrio cholerae
  • (C) Escherichia coli
  • (D) Salmonella typhi

Question 20:

Select the publication by Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) related to Environmental Accounts as per UN-SEEA framework.

  • (A) EnviStats India 2022
  • (B) Energy Conservation Building Code 2017
  • (C) Eco Niwas Samhita 2018
  • (D) Climate Change 2022: Impacts, Adaptation and Vulnerability

Question 21:

Ebenezer Howard suggested the maximum population of ‘Garden City’ as ________ persons.

  • (A) 10,000
  • (B) 22,000
  • (C) 32,000
  • (D) 58,000

Question 22:

In eighteenth century English gardens, ______ was used to eliminate visual boundaries between the garden and the landscape.

  • (A) Stroll garden
  • (B) Sunken fence
  • (C) Topiary
  • (D) Qanat

Question 23:

The figure below shows the spatial arrangement of rooms in a building with access from the exterior, marked as ‘entry’. Identify the appropriate diagram showing the access to rooms starting from the entry.
 



Question 24:

In high-rise buildings, the method adopted to prevent ingress of smoke in an enclosed fire staircase is ________.

  • (A) Polarization
  • (B) Pressurization
  • (C) Perpetuation
  • (D) Fumigation

Question 25:

Select the Act which stipulates prohibited area of 100 m around centrally protected monuments in India.

  • (A) The Antiquities and Art Treasures Act, 1972
  • (B) The AMASR (Amendment and Validation) Act, 2010
  • (C) Urban Land (Ceiling and Regulation) Act, 1976
  • (D) Environment Protection Act, 1986

Question 26:

Select the option(s) which include(s) a pair of ‘Gestalt’ principles.

  • (A) Proximity and Similarity
  • (B) Continuity and Closure
  • (C) Grain and Texture
  • (D) Scale and Proportion

Question 27:

Select the option(s) which is/are NOT considered as primary air pollutant(s).

  • (A) Suspended particulate matter
  • (B) Oxides of nitrogen
  • (C) Volatile organic compounds
  • (D) Peroxyacetyl Nitrate

Question 28:

Select the Biosphere Reserve(s) in India which is/are listed in the ‘Man and the Biosphere’ program of UNESCO.

  • (A) Sunderban
  • (B) Sena Oura
  • (C) Majang Forest
  • (D) Gulf of Mannar

Question 29:

Match the buildings in Group I with their dominant spatial pattern in Group II.

  • (A) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-5
  • (B) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-4
  • (C) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-5
  • (D) P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3

Question 30:

Match the Parts of Residential Buildings in Group-I with their respective minimum width (in m) in Group-II as per the National Building Code 2016.
 

  • (A) P-2, Q-1, R-5, S-3
  • (B) P-5, Q-3, R-4, S-1
  • (C) P-2, Q-3, R-5, S-4
  • (D) P-5, Q-1, R-4, S-3

Question 31:

Match the following City Planning concepts in Group-I with their proponents in Group-II.
 

  • (A) P-2, Q-4, R-5, S-3
  • (B) P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-2
  • (C) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4
  • (D) P-1, Q-5, R-3, S-2

Question 32:

With reference to planning and design of housing, identify the correct statements.

  • (P) Gross population density is higher than net population density
  • (Q) Gross population density is lower than net population density
  • (R) Net population density is directly proportional to area of the plot
  • (S) Net population density is inversely proportional to area of the plot
 
  • (A) Both Q and S are correct
  • (B) Both Q and R are correct
  • (C) Both P and R are correct
  • (D) Both P and S are correct

Question 33:

Match the Mission in Group I with their objectives in Group II.
 

Group I Mission Group II Objective
(P) National Mission on Enhanced Energy Efficiency (1) Gain better understanding of climate science, impacts, challenges by setting up climate research fund
(Q) National Mission on Sustainable Habitat (2) Weather insurance mechanism and afforestation of 6 million hectares of degraded forest land
(R) National Water Mission (3) Decrease energy consumption in large consuming industries
(S) National Mission on Strategic Knowledge for Climate Change (4) 20% improvement of water use efficiency through pricing
(5) Enforcement of automotive fuel economy standards using pricing measures
  • (A) P-3, Q-5, R-4, S-1
  • (B) P-2, Q-5, R-4, S-3
  • (C) P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-1
  • (D) P-2, Q-5, R-3, S-4

Question 34:

Select the option(s) that is/are listed among the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) as articulated by the United Nations.

  • (A) Globalization and Free Trade
  • (B) Sustainable Cities and Communities
  • (C) Protection of Indigenous Culture and Architecture
  • (D) Good Health and Well-being

Question 35:

Select the statement(s) that are TRUE regarding ‘Building Security Services’.

  • (A) ‘Radio Frequency Identification Device’ is used for electronic access control system.
  • (B) ‘Magnetic Loop Detector’ is used for fire detection system.
  • (C) ‘Infrared Sensor’ is used in public broadcasting system.
  • (D) ‘Iris Scan’ is a type of biometric access control system.

Question 36:

Select the statement(s) that are TRUE regarding ‘Quality and Cost-Based Selection (QCBS)’ system for tendering.

  • (A) Financial bid is opened before technical bid.
  • (B) Earnest Money Deposit (EMD) is submitted before the opening of technical bid.
  • (C) Technically qualified bidder with lowest financial bid is always awarded the job.
  • (D) A composite scoring system considering both the financial and technical bids is adopted for awarding the job.

Question 37:

Design of septic tank requires consideration of space for the following item(s).

  • (A) Settling of incoming sewage
  • (B) Storage of digested sludge
  • (C) Installation of liner to allow seepage of effluent
  • (D) Digestion of the settled sludge

Question 38:

Select the place(s) which have adopted the “star pattern” of the French Garden in the design of its/their urban form(s).

  • (A) Versailles
  • (B) Washington D.C.
  • (C) Islamabad
  • (D) Jaipur

Question 39:

Select the parameter(s) required for determining peak rates of runoff using the Rational formula.

  • (A) Intensity of rainfall
  • (B) Coefficient of runoff
  • (C) Velocity of flow
  • (D) Hydraulic mean depth of flow

Question 40:

As per Solid Waste Management Rules 2016 (Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate, Govt. of India) select the correct statement(s).

  • (A) “dry waste” means waste other than bio-degradable waste and inert street sweepings.
  • (B) “combustible waste” means biodegradable, recyclable, reusable, hazardous solid waste having maximum calorific value of 800 kcal/kg.
  • (C) “domestic hazardous waste” includes expired medicine, CFL bulbs, discarded paint drums.
  • (D) “biodegradable waste” means any inorganic material that cannot be degraded by micro-organisms into simpler stable compounds.

Question 41:

Select the correct statement(s) from the following.

  • (A) Introduction of automobiles led to urban sprawl.
  • (B) Compact cities show relatively higher carbon emissions.
  • (C) Land use and transportation planning is inter-dependent on each other.
  • (D) Addition of a transport mode in an urban area does not change accessibility.

Question 42:

Choose the correct statement(s) with regard to composting.

  • (A) It produces natural soil amendment and enhances the effectiveness of fertilizer.
  • (B) Warm temperature of tropical regions is least suitable for composting.
  • (C) Composting is an aerobic thermophilic process.
  • (D) Windrow composting and in-vessel composting are two of the common composting methods.

Question 43:

Select the item(s) that are NOT stipulated as obligatory function(s) of the urban local bodies as per the 12th Schedule of the Indian Constitution.

  • (A) Urban poverty alleviation
  • (B) Promotion of cultural, educational and aesthetic aspects
  • (C) Special measures for disaster mitigation
  • (D) Prevention of cruelty to animals

Question 44:

The annual precipitation recorded in a town is 400 mm. Rainwater is being collected from the flat roof of a building, and then treated to potable standards, and stored. Water loss due to evaporation, transmission and treatment is 40 percent of the total harvested volume. The roof area is 500 sq.m. There are 3 occupants, with average daily water demand as 200 lpcd. The stored rainwater will be adequate for the household’s daily use for ______ days [in integer].


Question 45:

A primary school is having 8 class rooms, each having internal dimensions of 15m × 10m × 4m (height). Only the internal walls of all the class rooms are proposed to be painted. Assume a deduction of 10% internal wall area due to doors, windows etc. The specification suggests two coats of paint application. The spreading rates of the selected paint during base coat and finish coat are 4.5 l/sq.m and 2.5 l/sq.m respectively. The amount of paint (in liters) required for the job will be ______.


Question 46:

A construction project consists of four activities. The quantity of work, manpower requirement, and the productivity of the activities are listed in the table below. The interrelationship between the activities are also mentioned in the table. The construction project will start on January 29. Assume no holidays for the entire duration of the project. The project will finish on February ______ [mention date in number].

Activity Quantity (cu.m) Manpower (persons) Productivity (cu.m/man-day) Immediate Successor Activity
A 96 8 3 C
B 252 7 4 C&D
C 275 5 5
D 126 6 3


Question 47:

For a privately developed group housing project, the ratio of total number of dwelling units of HIG : MIG : LIG is 3:2:1. The proposed average size of HIG, MIG and LIG units in sq.m are 100, 60 and 30 respectively. The ratio of the total built up area between (MIG + LIG) to HIG will be 1: _____ [in integer].


Question 48:

The surface development of a three dimensional object is shown in the figure. The dotted lines indicate the folds. The dimensions given in the figure are in cm. The volume of the three-dimensional object (in cu.cm) is _____ [rounded off to one decimal place].
 



Question 49:

A residential housing project is designed in a plot measuring 1 hectare. The car parking area is equally distributed between the ground floor and the basement. Considering the data given below, the number of cars accommodated in the basement will be ________ [in integer].


Data:
- FAR consumed = 2.0

- Car parking area is exempted from built up area for FAR calculations.

- One car parking to be given for each 100 sq.m of built up area.

- Area required for accommodating each car in ground floor = 15 sq.m

- Area required for accommodating each car in basement = 25 sq.m


Question 50:

As per the CPWD Specifications (2019), the material used for cleaning marble flooring after polishing is ______.

  • (A) Oxalic Acid
  • (B) Caustic Soda
  • (C) Bleaching Powder
  • (D) White Cement

Question 51:

The proportion of the sides of a traditional Japanese tatami mat is ______.

  • (A) 1 : 1.414
  • (B) 1 : 1.5
  • (C) 1 : 2
  • (D) 1 : 1.618

Question 52:

As per IS:4954 – 1964, the acceptable noise level (in dB) for urban residential areas is ________.

  • (A) 35–45
  • (B) 65–75
  • (C) 20–30
  • (D) 15–25

Question 53:

Identify the Indian tribe that is associated with the vernacular dwelling illustrated in the image below.

  • (A) Bhotia, Uttarakhand
  • (B) Toda, Tamil Nadu
  • (C) Naga, Nagaland
  • (D) Kutia Kondh, Odisha

Question 54:

Thermal diffusivity of a wall is influenced by the choice of building material. Identify the statement(s) that is/are correct.

  • (A) Thermal diffusivity is inversely proportional to thermal conductivity.
  • (B) Increase in specific heat capacity increases the thermal diffusivity.
  • (C) Materials with low thermal diffusivity have a high amplitude dampening effect.
  • (D) Thermal diffusivity is inversely proportional to the density of material.

Question 55:

Select the statement(s) which are NOT correct with respect to burnt clay bricks.

  • (A) Lime (<10% of clay) in carbonated form lowers the fusion point of bricks.
  • (B) Magnesia (>1% of clay) imparts red colour to the bricks.
  • (C) Iron Pyrites tend to oxidize and decompose the brick during burning.
  • (D) Alkalis (alkaline salts) when present in excess (>10% of clay) decrease the probability of efflorescence.

Question 56:

Select the example(s) of Art Nouveau architecture.

  • (A) Basilica of the Sagrada Familia, Barcelona
  • (B) Chrysler Building, New York
  • (C) Eiffel Tower, Paris
  • (D) Mackintosh Building of the Glasgow School of Art, Glasgow

Question 57:

Match the buildings in Group I with their architectural feature in Group II.
 

  • (A) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-5
  • (B) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3
  • (C) P-3, Q-1, R-5, S-2
  • (D) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-5

Question 58:

Match the architects in Group I with their key architectural ideas in Group II.

  • (A) P-2, Q-5, R-1, S-3
  • (B) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-5
  • (C) P-2, Q-1, R-5, S-3
  • (D) P-4, Q-5, R-1, S-2

Question 59:

Match the pump types in Group I with their key components in Group II.

  • (A) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-5
  • (B) P-1, Q-2, R-5, S-3
  • (C) P-2, Q-5, R-4, S-1
  • (D) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4

Question 60:

Match the geometric forms in Group I with the buildings in Group II.
 

  • (A) P-5, Q-3, R-4, S-2
  • (B) P-3, Q-5, R-2, S-4
  • (C) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-4
  • (D) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2

Question 61:

Match the instruments in Group I with the physical quantities they measure in Group II.

  • (A) P-5, Q-2, R-1, S-3
  • (B) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4
  • (C) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-5
  • (D) P-5, Q-1, R-2, S-4

Question 62:

Match the terms in Group I with their associated items in Group II.

  • (A) P-1, Q-4, R-5, S-2
  • (B) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2
  • (C) P-1, Q-5, R-4, S-2
  • (D) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-5

Question 63:

Choose the correct statement(s) from the following:

  • (A) Waste water from sinks, baths, etc. enters through the top inlet of a gully trap, while foul water from sweeping of rooms or courtyards enters from side inlet.
  • (B) Anti-siphon traps have a reduced water-way at the inlet side, while the outlet being larger prevents the pipe from filling full and causing siphonic action.
  • (C) Intercepting traps prevent foul gases from street sewer to enter into the house.
  • (D) P, Q and S traps are classified according to their shape.

Question 64:

A steel wire of 5.65 mm diameter and 50 m length is used for a hoisting crane. The wire is used to vertically lift a weight of 200 kg attached to its lowest end. Assume the Young’s Modulus of Elasticity of Steel as \(2 \times 10^5 \, N/mm^2\) and gravitational acceleration as \(10 \, m/sec^2\). The elongation of the steel wire (in mm) will be ............ [rounded off to two decimal places].


Question 65:

A simply supported RCC beam of span 4 m is supporting a brick wall over its entire span. The brick wall is 250 mm thick and 2 m high. The RCC beam has a depth of 600 mm and width of 250 mm. The density of brick masonry and RCC can be assumed as \(18 \, kN/m^3\) and \(25 \, kN/m^3\) respectively. Considering the load of the wall and self-weight of the RCC beam, the maximum bending moment in the beam (in kN-m) will be ......... [rounded off to two decimal places].
 



Question 66:

Select the most appropriate scale to measure Attitude, Opinion and Perception.

  • (A) Likert scale
  • (B) Ratio scale
  • (C) Richter scale
  • (D) Armstrong scale

Question 67:

Jal Shakti Abhiyan initiated by the Ministry of Jal Shakti does NOT include _____.

  • (A) Water conservation and rain water harvesting
  • (B) Renovation of traditional water bodies
  • (C) Hydroelectric power generation
  • (D) Intensive afforestation

Question 68:

Select the correct sequence of activities for transit-operation planning process.

  • (A) Network Route Design \(\rightarrow\) Timetable Development \(\rightarrow\) Vehicle Scheduling \(\rightarrow\) Crew Scheduling
  • (B) Timetable Development \(\rightarrow\) Crew Scheduling \(\rightarrow\) Vehicle Scheduling \(\rightarrow\) Network Route Design
  • (C) Vehicle Scheduling \(\rightarrow\) Crew Scheduling \(\rightarrow\) Network Route Design \(\rightarrow\) Timetable Development
  • (D) Crew Scheduling \(\rightarrow\) Vehicle Scheduling \(\rightarrow\) Timetable Development \(\rightarrow\) Network Route Design

Question 69:

Select the correct sequence of steps for designing the operation of a signalized intersection.

  • (A) Signal Phasing \(\rightarrow\) Green Allocation \(\rightarrow\) Cycle Length Selection
  • (B) Green Allocation \(\rightarrow\) Cycle Length Selection \(\rightarrow\) Signal Phasing
  • (C) Cycle Length Selection \(\rightarrow\) Signal Phasing \(\rightarrow\) Green Allocation
  • (D) Signal Phasing \(\rightarrow\) Cycle Length Selection \(\rightarrow\) Green Allocation

Question 70:

Considering the following statements (P, Q, and R), select the correct option.

  • (P) Prediction of travel demand depends on target year modal alternatives.
  • (Q) Prediction of travel demand depends on target year population.
  • (R) Prediction of travel demand depends on target year land use.
  • (A) Only P is correct
  • (B) Only P & R are correct
  • (C) Only Q & R are correct
  • (D) P, Q, and R are all correct

Question 71:

During Covid-19 pandemic, the ARHC scheme was launched in 2021 by the Government of India to address the problems of poor urban migrants. The term ARHC refers to ___________.

  • (A) Accessible Rural Health Centre
  • (B) Affordable Rental Housing Complexes
  • (C) Affordable Rentals for Homeless Citizens
  • (D) Accessible Rural Housing Complexes

Question 72:

Choose the non-probability sampling method where the sample is taken from a group of people easy to contact or reach.

  • (A) Simple random sampling
  • (B) Snowball sampling
  • (C) Convenience sampling
  • (D) Stratified random sampling

Question 73:

Match the items in Group-I with the most appropriate stages of travel demand modelling in Group-II.

  • (A) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
  • (B) P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-1
  • (C) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-5
  • (D) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-5

Question 74:

Match the Acts in Group-I with the corresponding organizations empowered by the Act in Group-II.

  • (A) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3
  • (B) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-5
  • (C) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-5
  • (D) P-3, Q-1, R-5, S-2

Question 75:

As per IRC 11:1962, separate bicycle tracks may be provided when the peak hour .............
Which of the following statement(s) can be used to correctly fill in the blank?

  • (P) Bicycle traffic is 400 bicycles/hour or more and the volume of motorized vehicles is 100–200 vehicles/hour.
  • (Q) Bicycle traffic is 100 bicycles/hour or more and the volume of motorized vehicles exceed 200 vehicles/hour.
  • (R) Bicycle traffic is 100–200 bicycles/hour and the volume of motorized vehicle is 100–200 vehicles/hour.
  • (A) Only P & Q
  • (B) Only P & R
  • (C) Only R
  • (D) P, Q & R

Question 76:

As per URDPFI Guidelines (2015), match the following settlement types in Group-I to their population range in Group-II.

  • (A) P-5, Q-2, R-3, S-1
  • (B) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-5
  • (C) P-5, Q-4, R-1, S-2
  • (D) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-5

Question 77:

Match the application areas in Group I with the Satellites/Satellite sensors in Group II.

  • (A) P-5, Q-3, R-4, S-1
  • (B) P-3, Q-5, R-1, S-4
  • (C) P-5, Q-2, R-4, S-3
  • (D) P-2, Q-3, R-5, S-1

Question 78:

Select the institution(s) that are mandated as per the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 of India.

  • (A) Panchayat
  • (B) Municipal council
  • (C) Ward committee
  • (D) Gram Sabha

Question 79:

Select the method(s) that can be used for landuse classification based on satellite images.

  • (A) Maximum Likelihood
  • (B) Northwest Corner Method
  • (C) K Means
  • (D) ANN

Question 80:

The figure below shows a contour diagram and two points (A & B) on the continuously ascending surface. The horizontal projection of AB is 200 m long, and the gradient of AB is 1 in 25. The constant contour interval (in m) is _____ [in integer].
 



Question 81:

A given zone is characterized in the following tables in terms of household size, and vehicle ownership. Table I shows the trip rates of households, and Table II shows the household composition. For households of size two and above, having one or more vehicles, the total daily home-based trips made are _____ [in integer].