GATE 2023 Biotechnology Question Paper PDF is available here for download. IIT Kanpur conducted GATE 2023 Biotechnology exam on February 11, 2023 in the Afternoon Session from 02:30 PM to 05:30 PM. Students have to answer 65 questions in GATE 2023 Biotechnology Question Paper carrying a total weightage of 100 marks. 10 questions are from the General Aptitude section and 55 questions are from Engineering Mathematics and Core Discipline.

GATE 2023 Biotechnology Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

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GATE 2023 Biotechnology Solutions


Question 1:

“You are delaying the completion of the task. Send _____ contributions at the earliest.”

  • (A) you are
  • (B) your
  • (C) you’re
  • (D) yore

Question 2:

References : _____ : Guidelines : Implement (By word meaning)

  • (A) Sight
  • (B) Site
  • (C) Cite
  • (D) Plagiarise

Question 3:

In the given figure, PQRS is a parallelogram with \(PS=7\) cm, \(PT=4\) cm and \(PV=5\) cm. What is the length of \(RS\) in cm? (The diagram is representative.)

  • (A) \(\dfrac{20}{7}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{28}{5}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{9}{2}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{35}{4}\)

Question 4:

In 2022, June Huh was awarded the Fields medal, which is the highest prize in Mathematics. When he was younger, he was also a poet. He did not win any medals in the International Mathematics Olympiads. He dropped out of college. Based only on the above information, which one of the following statements can be logically inferred with certainty?

  • (A) Every Fields medalist has won a medal in an International Mathematics Olympiad.
  • (B) Everyone who has dropped out of college has won the Fields medal.
  • (C) All Fields medalists are part-time poets.
  • (D) Some Fields medalists have dropped out of college.

Question 5:

A line of symmetry is defined as a line that divides a figure into two parts in a way such that each part is a mirror image of the other part about that line. The given figure consists of 16 unit squares arranged as shown. In addition to the three black squares, what is the minimu M number of squares that must be coloured black, such that both \(PQ\) (vertical) and \(MN\) (the bottom-left to top-right diagonal) form lines of symmetry? (The figure is representative)

  • (A) 3
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 5
  • (D) 6

Question 6:

Human beings are one among many creatures that inhabit an imagined world. In this imagined world, some creatures are cruel. If in this imagined world, it is given that the statement “Some human beings are not cruel creatures” is FALSE, then which of the following set of statement(s) can be logically inferred with certainty?

  • (i) All human beings are cruel creatures.
  • (A) only (i)
  • (B) only (iii) and (iv)
  • (C) only (i) and (ii)
  • (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Question 7:

To construct a wall, sand and cement are mixed in the ratio of 3:1. The cost of sand and that of cement are in the ratio of 1:2.

If the total cost of sand and cement to construct the wall is 1000 rupees, then what is the cost (in rupees) of cement used?

  • (A) 400
  • (B) 600
  • (C) 800
  • (D) 200

Question 8:

The World Bank has declared that it does not plan to offer new financing to Sri Lanka, which is battling its worst economic crisis in decades, until the country has an adequate macroeconomic policy framework in place. In a statement, the World Bank said Sri Lanka needed to adopt structural reforms that focus on economic stabilisation and tackle the root causes of its crisis. The latter has starved it of foreign exchange and led to shortages of food, fuel, and medicines. The bank is repurposing resources under existing loans to help alleviate shortages of essential items such as medicine, cooking gas, fertiliser, meals for children, and cash for vulnerable households. Based only on the above passage, which one of the following statements can be inferred with certainty?

  • (A) According to the World Bank, the root cause of Sri Lanka’s economic crisis is that it does not have enough foreign exchange.
  • (B) The World Bank has stated that it will advise the Sri Lankan government about how to tackle the root causes of its economic crisis.
  • (C) According to the World Bank, Sri Lanka does not yet have an adequate macroeconomic policy framework.
  • (D) The World Bank has stated that it will provide Sri Lanka with additional funds for essentials such as food, fuel, and medicines.

Question 9:

The coefficient of \(x^4\) in the polynomial \((x-1)^3(x-2)^3\) is equal to _____.

  • (A) 33
  • (B) -3
  • (C) 30
  • (D) 21

Question 10:

Which one of the following shapes can be used to tile (completely cover by repeating) a flat plane, extending to infinity in all directions, without leaving any empty spaces in between them? The copies of the shape used to tile are identical and are not allowed to overlap.

  • (A) circle
  • (B) regular octagon
  • (C) regular pentagon
  • (D) rhombus

Question 11:

Eukaryotic transcription is carried out by

  • (A) DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
  • (B) DNA-dependent DNA polymerase
  • (C) RNA-dependent DNA polymerase
  • (D) RNA-dependent RNA polymerase

Question 12:

Acetylcholine released by the parasympathetic nerves has which one of the following functions in the heart pacemaker cells?

  • (A) It binds to GPCR and activates G protein to slow the heart rate
  • (B) It stimulates GABA-activated ion-channel coupled receptor to increase the heart rate
  • (C) It binds to GPCR and inhibits G protein to slow the heart rate
  • (D) It inhibits GABA-activated ion-channel coupled receptor to increase the heart rate

Question 13:

Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r].
Assertion [a]: In multicellular organisms, cells of different lineages have different gene expression profiles.
Reason [r]: Alternative splicing is the only mechanism to generate protein diversity.

  • (A) Both [a] and [r] are false
  • (B) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]
  • (C) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]
  • (D) [a] is true but [r] is false

Question 14:

Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r].
Assertion [a]: Chromosome mutations can change the structure of chromosomes.
Reason [r]: All chromosome mutations arise due to nondisjunction of chromosomes during mitosis or meiosis.

  • (A) Both [a] and [r] are false
  • (B) [a] is true but [r] is false
  • (C) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]
  • (D) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]

Question 15:

C-value paradox refers to

  • (A) the lack of correlation between genome size and genetic complexity of an organism
  • (B) the presence of genetic sequences that propagate themselves within a genome
  • (C) the coexistence of multiple alleles at a genetic locus
  • (D) the concept that two or more genes may have the same function

Question 16:

Which one of the following drugs is NOT an immune checkpoint inhibitor?

  • (A) Ipilimu Mab
  • (B) Pembrolizumab
  • (C) Nivolumab
  • (D) Trastuzumab

Question 17:

Dendritic cells are involved in cross-presentation of antigens. Which of the following protein(s) is(are) required for cross-presentation?

P. Basic leucine zipper ATF-like transcription factor 3 (BATF3)
Q. Membrane associated ring-CH-type finger 1 (MARCH-1)
R. Solute carrier family 10 member 1 (SLC10A1)
S. Class II-associated invariant chain peptide (CLIP)

  • (A) P only
  • (B) P and R only
  • (C) P, Q and R only
  • (D) S only

Question 18:

Which one of the following is required for the development of B-cells in the bone marrow?

  • (A) Stromal cells
  • (B) Dendritic cells
  • (C) Kupffer cells
  • (D) NK cells

Question 19:

Which one of the following statements is TRUE about leghemoglobin?

  • (A) It binds oxygen to protect nitrogenase
  • (B) It binds hemoglobin to protect oxygenase
  • (C) It binds oxygen to protect hydrogenase
  • (D) It binds oxygen to protect oxygenase

Question 20:

The correct sequence of events during bacteriophage infection of a bacterial cell is

  • (A) landing → attachment → tail contraction → penetration and unplugging → DNA ejection
  • (B) attachment → landing → penetration and unplugging → tail contraction → DNA ejection
  • (C) landing → tail contraction → attachment → DNA ejection → penetration and unplugging
  • (D) attachment → tail contraction → landing → penetration and unplugging → DNA ejection

Question 21:

Intracellular proteins are targeted for proteolytic degradation in proteasomes upon conjugation with

  • (A) ubiquitin
  • (B) integrin
  • (C) peptidase
  • (D) calreticulin

Question 22:

In ELISA, which of the following enzymes are conjugated to antibodies for detection of the analyte?

P. Alkaline phosphatase
Q. Trypsinase
R. Horseradish peroxidase
S. Amylase

  • (A) P and R
  • (B) P and Q
  • (C) Q and S
  • (D) R and S

Question 23:

In hybridoma technology, which one of the following enzymes is absent in the myeloma cells that are used for monoclonal antibody production?

  • (A) Hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase
  • (B) Alanine aminotransferase
  • (C) Triose phosphate isomerase
  • (D) Glycosyltransferase

Question 24:

Which of the following methods are used for detection of DNA and RNA, respectively?

  • (A) Southern and Northern blotting
  • (B) Southern and Western blotting
  • (C) Northern and Southern blotting
  • (D) Northern and Western blotting

Question 25:

Match the types of RNA in Group I with their corresponding function in Group II.

Group I:
P. mRNA
Q. rRNA
R. miRNA
S. tRNA

Group II:
1. Serves as adaptors between mRNA and amino acids during protein synthesis
2. Regulates post-transcriptional gene expression
3. Codes for proteins
4. Forms the core of the ribosome structure and catalyzes protein synthesis

  • (A) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
  • (B) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
  • (C) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
  • (D) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3

Question 26:

Which one of the following programs is used for finding distantly related (or remote) protein homologs?

  • (A) BLASTN
  • (B) BLASTX
  • (C) PSI-BLAST
  • (D) TBLASTX

Question 27:

Which one of the following is used for global alignment of two protein sequences?

  • (A) Chou-Fasman method
  • (B) Garnier-Osguthorpe-Robson (GOR) method
  • (C) Needleman-Wunsch algorithm
  • (D) Smith-Waterman algorithm

Question 28:

Which one of the following methods CANNOT be used to determine the secondary structure content of a protein?

  • (A) Circular dichroism spectroscopy
  • (B) Fourier transform infrared spectroscopy
  • (C) Mass spectrometry
  • (D) X-ray crystallography

Question 29:

Which one of the following plant growth regulators facilitate adventitious root formation?

  • (A) Auxin
  • (B) Zeatin
  • (C) Dihydrozeatin
  • (D) Kinetin

Question 30:

Fabry disease in humans is a X-linked disease. The probability (in percentage) for a phenotypically normal father and a carrier mother to have a son with Fabry disease is ________.


Question 31:

The value of \(\displaystyle \lim_{x\to 0}\left[\frac{\cos 2x-\cos 4x}{x^2}\right]\) is _________.

Correct Answer: \(6\)
View Solution

Step 1: Use the identity \(\cos A-\cos B=-2\sin\!\left(\tfrac{A+B}{2}\right)\sin\!\left(\tfrac{A-B}{2}\right)\).
\(\cos 2x-\cos 4x=-2\sin(3x)\sin(-x)=2\sin(3x)\sin x\).

Step 2: Hence \[\frac{\cos 2x-\cos 4x}{x^2}=2\cdot\frac{\sin(3x)}{x}\cdot\frac{\sin x}{x}.\]
As \(x\to0\), \(\frac{\sin(3x)}{x}\to 3\) and \(\frac{\sin x}{x}\to1\).

Step 3: Therefore, the limit \(=2\cdot 3 \cdot 1=6\).
Quick Tip: - For small \(x\), use \(\sin x \sim x\) or standard limits \(\lim_{x\to0}\frac{\sin x}{x}=1\).
- Sum-to-product identities simplify trig limits quickly.


Question 32:

A series \(S\) is given as \(S=1+3+5+7+9+\dots\). The sum of the first 50 terms of \(S\) is _________.


Question 33:

Two fair six-sided dice are thrown. The probability of getting \(12\) as the product of the numbers on the dice (rounded off to two decimal places) is _________.


Question 34:

If \(7^{3x}=216\), the value of \(7^{-x}\) (rounded off to three decimal places) is _________.


Question 35:

The distance between the two points of intersection of \(x^{2}+y=7\) and \(x+y=7\) (rounded off to two decimal places) is _________.


Question 36:

Match the immune tolerance mechanisms in Group I with their respective outcomes in Group II.

  • (A) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2
  • (B) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2
  • (C) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
  • (D) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1

Question 37:

Match the type of bacteria in Group I with their respective growth properties in Group II.

  • (A) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
  • (B) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
  • (C) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4
  • (D) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

Question 38:

The event(s) that lead(s) to inactivation of tumor suppressor genes in cancer cells is(are)

  • (A) gene amplification
  • (B) promoter methylation
  • (C) loss of heterozygosity
  • (D) histone acetylation

Question 39:

Methylation of CpG islands near the promoter of a gene can inhibit transcription by

  • (A) preventing RNA polymerase binding
  • (B) facilitating repressor binding
  • (C) facilitating heterochromatin formation
  • (D) inducing euchromatin formation

Question 40:

Which of the following statement(s) is(are) TRUE about induced pluripotent stem cells?

  • (A) They can self-renew
  • (B) They require specific signals to maintain their stemness
  • (C) They cannot be genetically manipulated
  • (D) They can form organoids in vitro

Question 41:

Which of the following statement(s) is(are) TRUE about fluoroquinolone drugs?

  • (A) They contain quinolone ring(s)
  • (B) They inhibit RNA polymerase
  • (C) They bind to bacterial topoisomerase
  • (D) They bind to 23S rRNA within the 50S ribosome subunit

Question 42:

Which of the following is(are) plant protoplast fusogenic agent(s)?

  • (A) Sodium nitrate
  • (B) Polyvinyl alcohol
  • (C) Polyethylene glycol
  • (D) Bromoxynil

Question 43:

Direct DNA transfer method(s) used for plant genetic engineering is(are)

  • (A) microparticle bombardment
  • (B) electroporation
  • (C) polyethylene glycol treatment
  • (D) Agrobacterium-mediated transformation

Question 44:

Which of the following vector(s) is(are) used to clone a DNA fragment of size 220 kb?

  • (A) Bacterial artificial chromosome
  • (B) Yeast artificial chromosome
  • (C) Cosmids
  • (D) pUC19 plasmid

Question 45:

The following reaction represents biomass synthesis from hexadecane:

\(\,C_{16}H_{34} + 12.5 O_2 + 2.13 NH_3 \rightarrow 10.6 CH_{1.66}O_{0.27}N_{0.27} + 5.37 CO_2 + 11.4 H_2O \)

where \( CH_{1.66}O_{0.27}N_{0.27} \) represents the biomass. The value of respiratory quotient (rounded off to two decimal places) is ________.


Question 46:

Temperature of a reaction with an activation energy value of 15 kcal mol\(^{-1}\) is increased from 300 K to 310 K. If the value of the ideal gas constant (R) is 1.9872 cal mol\(^{-1}\) K\(^{-1}\), the ratio of the reaction rate constants \(\left(\frac{k_{310}}{k_{300}}\right)\) (rounded off to two decimal places) is ______.


Question 47:

E. coli is cultivated in a chemostat operated at a dilution rate of 0.2 h\(^{-1}\). The values of biomass yield due to oxygen consumption and the steady state biomass concentration are 0.2 g g\(^{-1}\) and 10 g L\(^{-1}\), respectively. The oxygen transfer rate (in g L\(^{-1}\) h\(^{-1}\)) is ______.


Question 48:

Aqueous two-phase extraction is used to recover \(\alpha\)-amylase from a solution. A polypropylene glycol–dextran mixture is added and the solution separates into upper and lower phases. The partition coefficient is 4.0 and the ratio of upper to lower phase volume is 5.0. The enzyme recovery or yield (in percentage, rounded off to the nearest integer) is __________.


Question 49:

E. coli cultivated at 298 K uptakes an uncharged compound (A) by passive diffusion. The intracellular and extracellular concentrations of A are 0.001 M and 0.1 M, respectively. If \(R=1.9872\ \mathrm{cal\ mol^{-1}\ K^{-1}}\), the free-energy change (in \(\mathrm{kcal\ mol^{-1}}\)) for this passive diffusion of A (rounded off to two decimal places) is ________.


Question 50:

If there are three unrooted trees for four protein sequences, the number of rooted trees for the same number of sequences is ________.


Question 51:

The number of different possible ways of forming five intramolecular disulfide bonds with ten cysteine residues of a protein is ________.


Question 52:

The following schematic diagram shows a chemostat with cell recycle (feed flow rate \(F_0\) and recycle flow rate \(F_r\) in \(\mathrm{L\,h^{-1}}\)). The cell concentrations in the reactor, recycle stream, and product stream are \(X_1\), \(X_0\), and \(X\) (in \(\mathrm{g\,L^{-1}}\)), respectively. If \(\dfrac{X_0}{X_1}=1.5\), \(\dfrac{F_r}{F_0}=0.7\), and \(X_1=7.3~\mathrm{g\,L^{-1}}\), the value of \(X\) (in \(\mathrm{g\,L^{-1}}\), rounded off to one decimal place) is ________.



Question 53:

An enzyme (E) catalyzes the biochemical reaction \(A \rightarrow B\) with \(k_{cat}=500~s^{-1}\). If the initial reaction velocity \((V_0)\) is \(10~\mu M\cdots^{-1}\) at the total enzyme concentration \([E_t]=30~nM\) and substrate concentration \([A]=40~\mu M\), the value of \(K_m\) (in \(\mu M\)) is ________.


Question 54:

DNA sample collected from an unidentified bacterial species (Y) contains \(13%\) adenine. The \(G{+}C\) content (in percentage) of Y is ________.


Question 55:

If \(1000\) bp of a double-helical DNA weighs \(1\times10^{-18}\) g and the distance between two bp is \(0.34~nm\), the total amount of DNA (in mg, rounded to one decimal) required to stretch from Earth to Moon (distance \(=3.74\times10^{5}\) km) is ________.


Question 56:

A protein has three identical sites arranged at the vertices of an equilateral triangle. With one site filled with donor dye, the quantum yield \(\phi_D\) is \(0.5\). Filling one site with donor and a second with acceptor gives \(\phi_D=0.25\). Find \(\phi_D\) when one site has donor and the other two have acceptor dyes (rounded to three decimals).


Question 57:

If , the value of \(\left|A^{4}+3A^{2}-5A+6I\right|\) is ________.


Question 58:

If \(f(x)=\dfrac{\sin x+\cos x}{\sin x-\cos x}\), the value of \(f'(x)\) at \(x=0\) is ________.


Question 59:

If \(f(2)=5\) and \(f(x)\,f(x+1)=3\) for all real \(x\), the value of \(f(10)\) is ________.


Question 60:

Ten playing cards numbered \(1,\ldots,10\) are drawn with replacement. What is the probability that the second number is greater than the first (rounded to two decimal places)?


Question 61:

The values of the consistency index ‘\(K\)’ and the flow behavior index ‘\(n\)’ of a dilatant fluid are 0.415 (in CGS units) and 1.23, respectively. The value of the apparent viscosity (in \( g \cdot cm^{-1} \cdot s^{-1} \)) of this fluid at a shear rate of 60 \( s^{-1} \) (rounded off to the nearest integer) is _________.


Question 62:

An evaporator is insulated using glass wool material of \(0.15\ m\) thickness. The inner most surface and the outer surface of the insulation are at \(700^{\circ}C\) and \(80^{\circ}C\), respectively. The mean thermal conductivity of the glass wool under these conditions is \(0.29\ W\,m^{-1}\,K^{-1}\). The rate of heat loss (in W) through \(1.2\ m^2\) of the evaporator wall surface (rounded off to the nearest integer) is ________.


Question 63:

A proportional controller is used to control the temperature of an autoclave from \(60^{\circ}C\) to \(130^{\circ}C\). If the proportional band setting of the controller is 25%, the proportional gain value is _______.


Question 64:

A dNTP master-mix is prepared by combining \(40~\mu L\) of each \(20~mM\) dNTP stock (dATP, dCTP, dGTP and dTTP). \(4~\mu L\) of this dNTP master-mix is added to a PCR mix and the final volume is adjusted to \(50~\mu L\). The concentration (in \(\mu M\)) of total dNTPs in the PCR mix is ________.