GATE 2023 Humanities & Social Sciences Psychology Question Paper PDF is available here for download. IIT Kanpur conducted GATE 2023 Humanities & Social Sciences exam on February 5, 2023 in the Forenoon Session from 09:30 AM to 12:30 PM. Students have to answer 65 questions in GATE 2023 Humanities & Social Sciences Psychology Question Paper carrying a total weightage of 100 marks. 10 questions are from the General Aptitude section and 55 questions are from Core Discipline.

GATE 2023 Humanities & Social Sciences Psychology Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

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Question 1:

Rafi told Mary, “I am thinking of watching a film this weekend.”

The following reports the above statement in indirect speech:

Rafi told Mary that he ______ of watching a film that weekend.

  • (A) thought
  • (B) is thinking
  • (C) am thinking
  • (D) was thinking

Question 2:

Permit : ______ :: Enforce : Relax (By word meaning)

  • (A) Allow
  • (B) Forbid
  • (C) License
  • (D) Reinforce

Question 3:

Given a fair six-faced dice where the faces are labelled ‘1’, ‘2’, ‘3’, ‘4’, ‘5’, and ‘6’, what is the probability of getting a ‘1’ on the first roll of the dice and a ‘4’ on the second roll?

  • (A) \(\dfrac{1}{36}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{1}{6}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{5}{6}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{1}{3}\)

Question 4:

A recent survey shows that 65% of tobacco users were advised to stop consuming tobacco. The survey also shows that 3 out of 10 tobacco users attempted to stop using tobacco.

Based only on the information in the above passage, which one of the following options can be logically inferred with certainty?

  • (A) A majority of tobacco users who were advised to stop consuming tobacco made an attempt to do so.
  • (B) A majority of tobacco users who were advised to stop consuming tobacco did not attempt to do so.
  • (C) Approximately 30% of tobacco users successfully stopped consuming tobacco.
  • (D) Approximately 65% of tobacco users successfully stopped consuming tobacco.

Question 5:

How many triangles are present in the given figure?

  • (A) 12
  • (B) 16
  • (C) 20
  • (D) 24

Question 6:

Students of all the departments of a college who have successfully completed the registration process are eligible to vote in the upcoming college elections. By the due date, none} of the students from the Department of Human Sciences had completed the registration process. Which set(s) of statements can be inferred with certainty?

(i) All those students who would not be eligible to vote would certainly belong to the Department of Human Sciences.

(ii) None of the students from departments other than Human Sciences failed to complete the registration process within the due time.

(iii) All the eligible voters would certainly be students who are not from the Department of Human Sciences.

  • (A) (i) and (ii)
  • (B) (i) and (iii)
  • (C) only (i)
  • (D) only (iii)

Question 7:

Which one of the following options represents the given graph?


  • (A) \(f(x)=x^2\,2^{-|x|}\)
  • (B) \(f(x)=x\,2^{-|x|}\)
  • (C) \(f(x)=|x|\,2^{-x}\)
  • (D) \(f(x)=x\,2^{-x}\)

Question 8:

Which one of the options does NOT describe the passage below or follow from it?

Passage:
We tend to think of cancer as a ‘modern’ illness because its metaphors are so modern. It is a disease of overproduction, of sudden growth, a growth that is unstoppable, tipped into the abyss of no control. Modern cell biology encourages us to imagine the cell as a molecular machine. Cancer is that machine unable to quench its initial command (to grow) and thus transform into an indestructible, self-propelled automaton.

  • (A) It is a reflection of why cancer seems so modern to most of us.
  • (B) It tells us that modern cell biology uses and promotes metaphors of machinery.
  • (C) Modern cell biology encourages metaphors of machinery, and cancer is often imagined as a machine.
  • (D) Modern cell biology never uses figurative language, such as metaphors, to describe or explain anything.

Question 9:

The digit in the unit’s place of the product \(3^{999}\times 7^{1000}\) is ______.

  • (A) 7
  • (B) 1
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 9

Question 10:

A square with sides of length \(6\,cm\) is given. The boundary of the shaded region is defined by two semi-circles whose diameters are the sides of the square, as shown. The area of the shaded region is ______ \(cm^2\).

  • (A) \(6\pi\)
  • (B) \(18\)
  • (C) \(20\)
  • (D) \(9\pi\)

Question 11:

Which word below best describes the idea of being both Spineless} and Cowardly}?

  • (A) Pusillanimous
  • (B) Unctuous
  • (C) Obsequious
  • (D) Reticent

Question 12:

Choose the right preposition to fill up the blank:
The whole family got together ___ Diwali

  • (A) of
  • (B) at
  • (C) in
  • (D) till

Question 13:

Select the correct option to fill in all the blanks to complete the passage:

The (i)______ factor amid this turbulence has been the (ii)______ of high-octane, action-oriented films such as RRR, K.G.F: Chapter 2 and Pushpa from film industries in the south of the country. Traditionally, films made in the south have done well in their own (iii)______. But increasingly, their dubbed versions have performed well in the Hindi heartland, with collections (iv)______ those of their Bollywood counterparts.

  • (A) (i) disheartening (ii) failure (iii) channels (iv) matching
  • (B) (i) redeeming (ii) outperformance (iii) geographies (iv) eclipsing
  • (C) (i) shocking (ii) underperformance (iii) cinemas (iv) below
  • (D) (i) humbling (ii) bombing (iii) theatres (iv) falling behind

Question 14:

The following passage consists of 6 sentences. The first and sixth sentences of the passage are at their correct positions, while the middle four sentences (represented by 2, 3, 4, and 5) are jumbled up.

Choose the correct sequence of the sentences so that they form a coherent paragraph:

1. Most obviously, mobility is taken to be a geographical as well as a social phenomenon.

2. Much of the social mobility literature regarded society as a uniform surface and failed to register the geographical intersections of region, city and place, with the social categories of class, gender and ethnicity.

3. The existing sociology of migration is incidentally far too limited in its concerns to be very useful here.

4. Further, I am concerned with the flows of people within, but especially beyond, the territory of each society, and how these flows may relate to many different desires, for work, housing, leisure, religion, family relationships, criminal gain, asylum seeking and so on.

5. Moreover, not only people are mobile but so too are many ‘objects’.

6. I show that sociology’s recent development of a ‘sociology of objects’ needs to be taken further and that the diverse flows of objects across societal borders and their intersections with the multiple flows of people are hugely significant.

  • (A) 3, 2, 5, 4
  • (B) 2, 3, 4, 5
  • (C) 5, 4, 3, 2
  • (D) 4, 2, 5, 3

Question 15:

The population of a country increased by 5% from 2020 to 2021. Then, the population decreased by 5% from 2021 to 2022. By what percentage did the population change from 2020 to 2022?

  • (A) -0.25%
  • (B) 0%
  • (C) 2.5%
  • (D) 10.25%

Question 16:

The words Thin: Slim: Slender are related in some way. Identify the correct option(s) that reflect(s) the same relationship:

  • (A) Fat: Plump: Voluptuous
  • (B) Short: Small: Petite
  • (C) Tall: Taller: Tallest
  • (D) Fair: Dark: Wheatish

Question 17:

A pandemic like situation hit the country last year, resulting in loss of human life and economic depression. To improve the condition of its citizens, the government made a series of emergency medical interventions and increased spending to revive the economy. In both these efforts, district administration authorities were actively involved.

Which of the following action(s) are plausible?

  • (A) In future, the government can make district administration authorities responsible for protecting health of citizens and reviving the economy.
  • (B) The government may set up a task force to review the post pandemic situation and ascertain the effectiveness of the measures taken.
  • (C) The government may set up a committee to formulate a pandemic management program to minimize losses to life and economy in future.
  • (D) The government may take population control measures to minimize pandemic related losses in future.

Question 18:

Six students, Arif (Ar), Balwinder (Bw), Chintu (Ct), David (Dv), Emon (Em) and Fulmoni (Fu) appeared in GATE–XH (2022).
Bw scores less than Ct in XH–B1, but more than Ar in XH–C1.
Dv scores more than Bw in XH–C1, and more than Ct in XH–B1.
Em scores less than Dv, but more than Fu in XH–B1.
Fu scores more than Dv in XH–C1.
Ar scores less than Em, but more than Fu in XH–B1.
Who scores highest in XH–B1?

  • (A) Fulmoni
  • (B) Emon
  • (C) David
  • (D) Chintu

Question 19:

Select the correct relation between \(E\) and \(F\). \(E=\dfrac{x}{1+x}\) \; and \; \(F=\dfrac{-x}{\,1-x\,}\), \; with \(x>1\).

  • (A) \(E>F\)
  • (B) \(E
  • (C) \(E=F\)
  • (D) \(E<-F\)

Question 20:

A code language is formulated thus:

Vowels in the original word are replaced by the next vowel from the list of vowels, A-E-I-O-U (For example, E is replaced by I and U is replaced by A). Consonants in the original word are replaced by the previous consonant (For example, T is replaced by S and V is replaced by T).

Then how does the word, GOODMORNING appear in the coded language?

  • (A) HUUFNUSPOPH
  • (B) FIICLIQMEMF
  • (C) FUUCLUQMOMF
  • (D) HEEDATTACRH

Question 21:

The stranger is by nature no "owner of soil" -- soil not only in the physical, but also in the figurative sense of a life-substance, which is fixed, if not in a point in space, at least in an ideal point of the social environment. Although in more intimate relations, he may develop all kinds of charm and significance, as long as he is considered a stranger in the eyes of the other, he is not an "owner of soil." Restriction to intermediary trade, and often (as though sublimated from it) to pure finance, gives him the specific character of mobility. If mobility takes place within a closed group, it embodies that synthesis of nearness and distance which constitutes the formal position of the stranger. For, the fundamentally mobile person comes in contact, at one time or another, with every individual, but is not organically connected, through established ties of kinship, locality, and occupation, with any single one.

What assumptions can be made about the stranger from the passage above?

  • (A) The stranger can become an owner of soil through developing all kinds of charm in more intimate relations.
  • (B) The stranger cannot become an owner of soil either in the physical or psychological sense.
  • (C) The stranger can become an owner of soil through establishing ties of kinship and so on.
  • (D) The stranger might become an owner of soil in the physical sense but not in the psychological.

Question 22:

L is the only son of A and S. S has one sibling, B, who is married to L’s aunt, K. B is the only son of D. How are L and D related? Select the possible option(s):

  • (A) Grandchild and Paternal Grandfather
  • (B) Grandchild and Maternal Grandfather
  • (C) Grandchild and Paternal Grandmother
  • (D) Grandchild and Maternal Grandmother

Question 23:

The following segments of a sentence are given in jumbled order. The first and last segments (1 and 5) are in their correct positions, while the middle three segments (represented by 2, 3, and 4) are jumbled up. Choose the correct order of the segments so that they form a coherent sentence:

1. Consumed multitudes are jostling and shoving inside me

2. and guided only by the memory of a large white bedsheet with a roughly circular hole some seven inches in diameter cut into the center,

3. clutching at the dream of that holey, mutilated square of linen, which is my
talisman, my open-sesame,

4. I must commence the business of remaking my life from the point at which
it really began,

5. some thirty-two years before anything as obvious, as present, as my clockridden, crime-stained birth.

  • (A) 2 – 3 – 4
  • (B) 3 – 2 – 4
  • (C) 4 – 2 – 3
  • (D) 4 – 3 – 2

Question 24:

“I told you the truth,” I say yet again, “Memory’s truth, because memory has its own special kind. It selects, eliminates, alters, exaggerates, minimizes, glorifies, and vilifies also; but in the end it creates its own reality, its heterogeneous but usually coherent versions of events; and no sane human being ever trusts someone else’s version more than his own.”

What are the different ways in which ‘truth’ can be understood from the passage?

  • (A) Truth is what can be verified by hard empirical evidence.
  • (B) Truth is based on what can be perceived by the senses.
  • (C) Truth is the product of memory that is fallible, selective and slanted.
  • (D) Truth is contingent on the observer and can only be partial.

Question 25:

A firm needs both skilled labour and unskilled labour. Skilled wage = Rs. 40{,}000 per month; unskilled wage = Rs. 15{,}000 per month. The total wage bill for 100 labourers is Rs. 23{,}75{,}000 in a month. How many skilled labour are employed? (in Integer)}


Question 26:

Select the odd word and write the option number as answer:

  • (A) Lek
  • (B) Zloty
  • (C) Diner
  • (D) Drachma
  • (E) Real

Question 27:

Blind spot in the retina contains ____________.

  • (A) only rod cells
  • (B) only cone cells
  • (C) both rod and cone cells
  • (D) neither rod nor cone cells

Question 28:

Taking painkillers eliminates pain, increasing the likelihood that the person will take painkillers again. This is an example of ____________.

  • (A) negative punishment
  • (B) positive reinforcement
  • (C) negative reinforcement
  • (D) positive punishment

Question 29:

When learning something new impairs the ability to retrieve information learnt earlier, it is known as _________.

  • (A) retroactive interference
  • (B) proactive interference
  • (C) tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon
  • (D) recency effect

Question 30:

Iconic memory is a type of _________.

  • (A) short term memory
  • (B) sensory memory
  • (C) semantic memory
  • (D) working memory

Question 31:

Which one of the following components of language has to do with the practical or social aspects of communication with others?

  • (A) Phonemes
  • (B) Morphemes
  • (C) Pragmatics
  • (D) Syntax

Question 32:

The Yerkes–Dodson law states that _____________.

  • (A) performance is affected by the level of arousal
  • (B) frustration leads to aggression
  • (C) self-concept helps us organize and remember information
  • (D) changes in behaviour are a result of experiences that have happened frequently or recently

Question 33:

Transduction of mechanical energy into nerve impulses in the auditory system takes place in response to bending of the _________.

  • (A) pinna
  • (B) hair cells
  • (C) incus
  • (D) malleus

Question 34:

Which one of the following theories states that emotion occurs as a result of physical arousal and labeling of the arousal based on cues from the surrounding environment?

  • (A) Ekman-Friesen theory
  • (B) Schachter-Singer theory
  • (C) James-Lange theory
  • (D) Cannon-Bard theory

Question 35:

Which one of the following is TRUE for the Pain-Gate control theory?

  • (A) Gate is a physical structure
  • (B) Activity of gate cannot be closed by non-pain signals
  • (C) Substance P released into spinal cord does not activate other neurons that send messages through spinal gates
  • (D) Pain signals must pass through a gate located in the spinal cord

Question 36:

Being treated with warmth and consideration by others only when one behaves as expected, is called as \hspace{3cm}.

  • (A) openness to experience
  • (B) conditional positive regard
  • (C) unconditional positive regard
  • (D) zone of proximal development

Question 37:

Which of the following is/are NOT the factor(s) of the Big Five Personality model?

  • (A) Conscientiousness
  • (B) Optimism
  • (C) Humility
  • (D) Extraversion

Question 38:

Which of the following is/are TRUE for creative individuals?

  • (A) They are not very good at mental imagery
  • (B) They are not afraid to be different
  • (C) They do not value their independence
  • (D) They are unconventional in their work

Question 39:

Which of the following is/are included under behavioural genetics studies in humans?

  • (A) Selective breeding studies
  • (B) Family studies
  • (C) Twin studies
  • (D) Adoption studies

Question 40:

Which of the following statements regarding locus of control is/are CORRECT?

  • (A) It can be internal and/or external
  • (B) It is associated with self-esteem
  • (C) Internal locus of control is positively correlated with success
  • (D) Regret has no association with locus of control

Question 41:

Which of the following is/are TRUE for nonparametric statistics?

  • (A) It is often called distribution free statistics
  • (B) It is used to analyze interval data
  • (C) It is used to analyze ordinal data
  • (D) It compares groups in terms of means

Question 42:

According to the review of research on stress and immune system, which of the following statement(s) has/have substantial evidence?

  • (A) There is a negative relationship between stress and functional immune measures
  • (B) There is no measurable impact of stress on functional immune measures
  • (C) Loneliness impacts the relationship between stress and functional immune measures
  • (D) There is a positive relationship between long term stressors and functional immune measures

Question 43:

Which of the following influence(s) gender dysphoria?

  • (A) Prenatal factors
  • (B) Early childhood experiences
  • (C) Socialization
  • (D) Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder

Question 44:

If the variance of a set of scores is 100, the standard deviation is _______ (in integer).


Question 45:

Match the structures of the brain in the first column with their respective functions in the second column.

  • (A) P-(iii), Q-(i), R-(iv), S-(ii)
  • (B) P-(i), Q-(iv), R-(ii), S-(iii)
  • (C) P-(iv), Q-(iii), R-(ii), S-(i)
  • (D) P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(ii)

Question 46:

Which one of the following is established by the replication of research studies?

  • (A) Validity of the results
  • (B) Reliability of the results
  • (C) Interaction effect
  • (D) Mediation effect

Question 47:

Match the theory/law in the first column with the corresponding explanation in the second column.

  • (A) P-(ii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(iii)
  • (B) P-(iv), Q-(iii), R-(ii), S-(i)
  • (C) P-(i), Q-(ii), R-(iv), S-(iii)
  • (D) P-(iii), Q-(ii), R-(iv), S-(i)

Question 48:

Match the sleep disorders with their characteristic symptoms.

  • (A) P-(ii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(iii)
  • (B) P-(ii), Q-(i), R-(iv), S-(iii)
  • (C) P-(ii), Q-(i), R-(iii), S-(iv)
  • (D) P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(ii)

Question 49:

________ explains aging as a process of mutual withdrawal of individual and society, whereas _______ assumes positive correlation between activity and successful aging.

  • (A) Decay theory, Engagement theory
  • (B) Balance theory, Engagement theory
  • (C) Disengagement theory, Activity theory
  • (D) Withdrawal theory, Activity theory

Question 50:

Match the biases/effects in the first column with the descriptions in the second column of the table given below.

  • (A) P-(i), Q-(iii), R-(ii), S-(iv)
  • (B) P-(iv), Q-(iii), R-(i), S-(ii)
  • (C) P-(iv), Q-(iii), R-(ii), S-(i)
  • (D) P-(iv), Q-(i), R-(ii), S-(iii)

Question 51:

Match the theories in the first column with the central themes in the second column of the table given below.

  • (A) P-(iv), Q-(i), R-(ii), S-(iii)
  • (B) P-(iv), Q-(i), R-(iii), S-(ii)
  • (C) P-(i), Q-(iv), R-(ii), S-(iii)
  • (D) P-(ii), Q-(iii), R-(i), S-(iv)

Question 52:

Which one of the following would resolve the basic dilemma of the social psychologist?

  • (A) Conducting carefully designed experiments with high internal validity
  • (B) By replicating experiments and conducting some new experiments that have internal validity and others that have external validity
  • (C) Conducting research exclusively in the field
  • (D) Conducting applied rather than basic research

Question 53:

Match the research methods in the first column with their purposes in the second column of the table given below.

  • (A) P-(i), Q-(ii), R-(iii), S-(iv)
  • (B) P-(ii), Q-(iii), R-(iv), S-(i)
  • (C) P-(i), Q-(iv), R-(ii), S-(iii)
  • (D) P-(ii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(iii)

Question 54:

Which one of the following statements is TRUE according to Brehm’s reactance theory?

  • (A) A mild sign prohibiting spitting would be more effective in preventing spitting than a strong sign
  • (B) A strong sign would be more effective in preventing spitting than a mild one
  • (C) Absence of any sign would be most effective in preventing spitting
  • (D) Signs are irrelevant to spitting behaviour

Question 55:

According to the overjustification effect, which one of the following consequences would be TRUE for students who freely choose to study psychology, if marks are given for attendance?

  • (A) Increased interest of students in the subject
  • (B) Decreased interest of students in the subject
  • (C) No effect on the interest of students in the subject
  • (D) Increased interest in other social science subjects

Question 56:

Large rewards and severe punishments are examples of \hspace{2cm} justification for behaviour and result in \hspace{2cm} changes in attitude.

  • (A) internal; big
  • (B) external; big
  • (C) internal; small
  • (D) external; small

Question 57:

Which of the following therapies is/are based on classical conditioning?

  • (A) Systematic desensitization
  • (B) Aversion therapy
  • (C) Cognitive behaviour therapy
  • (D) Rational emotive behaviour therapy

Question 58:

Which of the following characterize(s) Wernicke’s aphasia?

  • (A) Inability to comprehend spoken words
  • (B) Inability to understand the meaning of words
  • (C) Inability to speak grammatically correct language
  • (D) Inability to write and understand the symbols that represent speech sounds

Question 59:

Which of the following is/are the component(s) of Theory of Mind?

  • (A) Understanding that people can have false beliefs
  • (B) Distinguishing faces and smells
  • (C) Recognizing that others have mental states
  • (D) Having a vast vocabulary to express one’s thoughts

Question 60:

Which of the following would NOT be effective in minimizing groupthink?

  • (A) The leader being impartial to all ideas no matter what they are
  • (B) The leader reminding the team that everyone will be held responsible for the decision of the group
  • (C) The leader taking all decisions on behalf of the group
  • (D) The leader arriving at a consensus quickly

Question 61:

Which of the following describe(s) the standard error of the mean?

  • (A) It is the standard deviation of the sampling distribution of the mean
  • (B) It reflects the accuracy with which sample means estimate the population mean
  • (C) It is the difference between mean and standard deviation of a distribution
  • (D) It is the standard deviation of a stratified sample

Question 62:

Which of the following describe(s) organizational commitment?

  • (A) A strong desire to remain a member of the organization
  • (B) Willingness to exert high level of effort on behalf of the organization
  • (C) A definite belief in and acceptance of values and goals of the organization
  • (D) High turnover intention of the employees of the organization

Question 63:

Prejudice is supported by the human tendency to categorize into in-groups and out-groups. Prejudice is supported by which of the following processes?

  • (A) The way we think about others
  • (B) The way we assign meaning to others behaviour
  • (C) By following intellectual pursuits
  • (D) By working towards a common goal

Question 64:

Which of the following is/are feature(s) of clinical phobia?

  • (A) The fear must be persistent
  • (B) The fear must be a source of significant distress
  • (C) The fear is rational
  • (D) The fear is usually perceived as unwarranted

Question 65:

The value of \(F\) calculated from the ANOVA table below (rounded off to one decimal place) is __________.



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