GATE 2024 Psychology (XH-C5) Question Paper PDF (Available) - Download Solutions with Answer Key Pdf

Question 1:

If “—” denotes increasing order of intensity, then the meaning of the words [simmer — seethe — smolder] is analogous to [break — raze — ]. Which one of the given options is appropriate to fill the blank?

(1) obfuscate
(2) obliterate
(3) fracture
(4) fissure

Question 2:

In a locality, the houses are numbered in the following way: The house-numbers on one side of a road are consecutive odd integers starting from 301, while the house-numbers on the other side of the road are consecutive even numbers starting from 302. The total number of houses is the same on both sides of the road. If the difference of the sum of the house-numbers between the two sides of the road is 27, then the number of houses on each side of the road is:

(1) 27
(2) 52
(3) 54
(4) 26

Question 3:

For positive integers p and q, with p/q ≠ 1,

(p/q)^p/q = (p/q)^{(p/q - 1)}.

Then:

(1) q^p = p^q
(2) q^p = p^2q
(3) √q = √p
(4) q^1/q = q × p^1/p

Question 4:

Which one of the given options is a possible value of X in the following sequence?

3, 7, 15, X, 63, 127, 255

(1) 35
(2) 40
(3) 45
(4) 31

Question 5:

On a given day, how many times will the second-hand and the minute-hand of a clock cross each other during the clock time 12:05:00 hours to 12:55:00 hours?

(1) 51
(2) 49
(3) 50
(4) 55

Question 6:

In the given text, the blanks are numbered (i)—(iv). Select the best match for all the blanks.

From the ancient Athenian arena to the modern Olympic stadiums, athletics (i) the potential for a spectacle. The crowd (ii) with bated breath as the Olympian artist twists his body, stretching the javelin behind him. Twelve strides in, he begins to cross-step. Six cross-steps (iii) in an abrupt stop on his left foot. As his body (iv) like a door turning on a hinge, the javelin is launched skyward at a precise angle.

(1) hold, waits, culminates, pivot
(2) holds, wait, culminates, pivot
(3) hold, wait, culminate, pivots
(4) holds, waits, culminate, pivots

Question 7:

Three distinct sets of indistinguishable twins are to be seated at a circular table that has 8 identical chairs. Unique seating arrangements are defined by the relative positions of the people. How many unique seating arrangements are possible such that each person is sitting next to their twin?

(1) 12
(2) 14
(3) 10
(4) 28

Question 8:

The chart given below compares the Installed Capacity (MW) of four power generation technologies, T1, T2, T3, and T4, and their Electricity Generation (MWh) in a time of 1000 hours (h). The Capacity Factor of a power generation technology is:

Capacity Factor = Electricity Generation (MWh) / (Installed Capacity (MW) × 1000 h).

Which one of the given technologies has the highest Capacity Factor?

(1) T1
(2) T2
(3) T3
(4) T4

Question 9:

In the 4 x 4 array shown below, each cell of the first three columns has either a cross (X) or a number, as per the given rule.

Rule: The number in a cell represents the count of crosses around its immediate neighboring cells (left, right, top, bottom, diagonals). As per this rule, the maximum number of crosses possible in the empty column is:

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

Question 10:

During a half-moon phase, the Earth-Moon-Sun form a right triangle. If the Moon-Earth-Sun angle at this half-moon phase is measured to be 89.85°, the ratio of the Earth-Sun and Earth-Moon distances is closest to:

(1) 328
(2) 382
(3) 238
(4) 283

Question 11:

Amma’s tone in the context of the given passage is that of:

For Amma, the difference between men and women was a kind of discrimination and inequality; she felt strongly about women’s rights but was not familiar with concepts like gender and patriarchy. She would have dismissed Betty Friedan because she was predominantly dealing with the problems of white middle-class women in the United States. Amma, and women of her generation, could de-link the oppression of women from the wider struggle for the liberation of human beings from class exploitation and imperialism. So Amma continued to play her role as mother and wife, but would often complain: "I am a doormat on which everyone wipes their emotional dirt off."

(A) Compromise
(B) Protest
(C) Contentment
(D) Resignation

Question 12:

Fill in the blanks by choosing the correct sequence for the following passage:

I am wearing for the first time some (i) _______ that I have never been able to wear for long at a time, as they are horribly tight. I usually put them on just before giving a lecture. The painful pressure they exert on my feet goads my oratorical capacities to their utmost. This sharp and overwhelming pain makes me sing like a nightingale or like one of those Neapolitan singers who also wear (ii) _______ that are too tight. The visceral physical longing, the overwhelming torture provoked by my (iii) _______, forces me to extract from words distilled and sublime truths, generalized by the supreme inquisition of the pain my (iv) _______ suffer.

(A) (i) patent-leather belt (ii) belts (iii) patent-leather belt (iv) waist
(B) (i) patent-leather shoes (ii) bands (iii) patent-leather bands (iv) wrist
(C) (i) patent-leather shoes (ii) shoes (iii) patent-leather shoes (iv) feet
(D) (i) patent-leather jacket (ii) jacket (iii) patent-leather jacket (iv) body

Question 13:

The appropriate synonym for the word ‘ignite’ in the following passage will be:

Spirituality must be integrated with education. Self-realization is the focus. Each one of us must become aware of our higher self. We are links of a great past to a grand future. We should ignite our dormant inner energy and let it guide our lives. The radiance of such minds embarked on constructive endeavor will bring peace, prosperity, and bliss to this nation.

(A) Encourage
(B) Simulate
(C) Dissipate
(D) Engross

Question 14:

Which of the following sentences is punctuated correctly?

(A) One day, I’ll write a book, ‘I said’. Not just a thriller but a real book, about real people.
(B) ‘One day I’ll write a book’, I said, ‘not just a thriller, but a real book, about real people.’
(C) ‘One day I’ll write a book’, I said. ‘Not just a thriller but, a real book, about real people’.
(D) ‘One day I’ll write a book’, I said, not just a thriller, but a real book, about real people.

Question 15:

Fill in the blanks with the correct combination of tenses for the given sentence:

Darwin’s work (i) _______ a related effect that (ii) _______ influenced the development of environmental politics – a ‘decentering’ of the human being.

(A) (i) have (ii) had
(B) (i) had (ii) have
(C) (i) had (ii) has
(D) (i) has (ii) have

Question 16:

Which of the following options holds a similar relationship as the words, ‘Music: Notes’?

(A) Water: Cold drink
(B) Paper: Class Notes
(C) House: Bricks
(D) Graphite: Charcoal

Question 17:

In a particular code, if “RAMAN” is written as 52 and “MAP” is written as 33, then how will you code “CLICK”?

(A) 37
(B) 43
(C) 51
(D) 38

Question 18:

On the basis of the statements given below, which valid assumption(s) can be made?

Statements:

• Life has suffering.
• Desire is the cause of suffering.
• The end of desire is the end of suffering.
• Desire can be reduced by following the noble eightfold path.

Assumptions:

1. Suffering is because of wants.
2. Life is not always full of suffering.
3. The eightfold path can reduce suffering.
4. Suffering is caused by life.

(A) Only 1, 3, and 4
(B) Only 1, 2, and 3
(C) Only 1 and 4
(D) Only 2 and 3

Question 19:

If 'KARAMCHAND' is coded as 'ICPCKEFCLF,' what should be the code of 'CREATION'?

(A) ATCCRKMP
(B) ETGCVKQP
(C) APCCRJMP
(D) ETCGKRPM

Question 20:

Given an input line of numbers and words, a machine rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. Here is an illustration of an input and rearrangement sequence (Step 1 to Step 5):

Input: 61 wb ob 48 45 29 34 sb pb lb

Step 1: lb wb ob 48 45 29 34 sb pb 61

Step 2: lb ob wb 45 29 34 sb pb 61 48

Step 3: lb ob pb wb 29 34 sb 61 48 45

Step 4: lb ob pb sb wb 61 48 45 34 29

Step 5: lb ob pb sb wb 61 48 45 34 29

Step 5 is the last step of the above arrangement.

Question: Based on the rules followed in the above steps, answer the following question:

Input: cb kb eb 58 49 23 38 jb nb gb 69 82

Which of the following represents the position of 58 in the fourth step?

(A) Second from the left
(B) Fourth from the right
(C) Third from the right
(D) Seventh from the left

Question 21:

In a certain type of code, 'they play cricket together' is written as ‘mv kb lb iv'; 'they score maximum points' is written as 'gb lb mb kv'; ‘cricket score earned points' is written as 'mb gv kb kv' and ‘points are earned together' is written as 'kv mv ob gv.' What is the code for ‘earned maximum points’?

(A) gv gb kv
(B) mv kb mb
(C) lb iv ob
(D) ob mb iv

Question 22:

Which of the statement(s) about the passage weaken(s) the argument presented?

Scientists associate large brains with greater intelligence. However, in the evolutionary context it has also been identified that beyond a point, the size of the brain has not increased and yet after a particular period, in spite of no significant change in brain size humans have made significant progress. Certain researchers propose that this is because, while the overall brain size may not have changed, marked structural changes can be noticed in specific structures that run parallel to an increase in human intelligence.

(A) Recent studies refute the hypothesis that region-specific brain development is necessarily associated with rapid human progress
(B) Neanderthal people's extinction was probably because of their brain size
(C) Homo Sapiens and its destruction in the future may happen because of its rapid brain development
(D) Recent studies show that Neanderthal people, with relatively smaller brains, were capable of complex language and social activities

Question 23:

The narrator's use of 'I' in the given passage is/are:

I have never been any good at the more lurid sort of writing. Psychopathic killers, impotent war-heroes, self-tortured film stars, and seedy espionage agents must exist in the world, but strangely enough I do not come across them, and I prefer to write about the people and places I have known and the lives of those whose paths I have crossed. This crossing of paths makes for stories rather than novels, and although I have worked in both mediums, I am happier being a short-story writer than a novelist.

(A) Self-conscious
(B) Apologetic and regretful
(C) Confessional and communicating
(D) Egotistical and vain

Question 24:

Which of the following recommended action(s) seem to be appropriate with the stated problem?

Stated Problem: Many students at educational institutes do not attend classes in the post-pandemic scenario.

(A) Disciplinary action against all students should be taken as a warning.
(B) Counselling sessions should be organized to address the issues such students face.
(C) Surveys should be conducted to identify the reasons for their absence.
(D) Course content should immediately be changed.

Question 25:

Read the passage and identify the statement(s) which follow(s) from it:

The purpose of this work is to inform educators about the brain science related to emotion and learning, and, more important, to offer strategies to apply these understandings to their own teaching. Although many of the approaches I describe will be familiar, integrating the lens of emotion and the brain may be a new concept. As an educator I had been trained in how to deliver content and organize my lessons, but I had not been taught how to design learning experiences that support emotions for learning.

(A) The author wishes, through his work, to inform us about brain science and learning.
(B) The author, through his work, wishes to offer strategies to apply our learnings to our teaching.
(C) The author feels that the newness of his approach lies in linking emotion-oriented approach to brain.
(D) The author wants to use emotions as a strategy for learning.

Question 26:

If A says that his mother is the daughter of B's mother, then how is B related to A?

(A) Uncle
(B) Aunt
(C) Father
(D) Brother

Question 27:

In a sampling design, where every Kth case is selected from a random starting point with the value K kept constant throughout, is an example of ___________.

(A) Convenient sampling
(B) Systematic sampling
(C) Stratified sampling
(D) Cluster sampling

Question 28:

Which among the following correlation coefficient values represents the strongest relationship between two variables?

(A) -0.86
(B) +0.68
(C) +0.59
(D) -0.05

Question 29:

A researcher performs an experiment to learn if room temperature affects the amount of aggression displayed by college students under crowded conditions in a simulated prison environment. In this experiment, the independent variable is:

(A) Aggression
(B) Crowding
(C) Room temperature
(D) Simulated prison

Question 30:

If the data distribution is skewed to the left, it means:

(A) More scores have low values than have high values
(B) Fewer scores have low values than have high values
(C) Fewer scores have high values than have low values
(D) More scores have high values than have low values

Question 31:

The theory of psychoanalysis is based on \_\_\_\_\_\_ method.

(A) Survey
(B) Observation
(C) Case study
(D) Introspection

Question 32:

If a court acquits the criminal for lack of evidence and sentences the victim for 2 years of rigorous imprisonment in a case, it is an example of:

(A) Type I error only
(B) Type II error only
(C) Type I and Type II error, respectively
(D) Type II and Type I error, respectively

Question 33:

In the Darwinian sense, _______ refers to the ability of an organism to survive and produce a large number of fertile offspring.

(A) Selection
(B) Intersexual competition
(C) Evolution
(D) Fitness

Question 34:

Which theory states that people try to regulate their emotions to minimize the distress caused by a situation?

(A) Problem-focused coping
(B) General Adaptation Syndrome
(C) Cognitive appraisal
(D) Emotion-focused coping

Question 35:

Which of the following is a suitable description of “grounded theory”?

(A) Theoretical ideas and concepts should emerge from the data.
(B) Theory precedes the data.
(C) Integration of data with researchers’ interpretations.
(D) Conducting in-depth interviews and focus groups.

Question 36:

Percentage of scores between the mean and ± 1 standard deviation in a normal distribution is closest to:

(A) 68%
(B) 34%
(C) 95%
(D) 99%

Question 37:

Which of the following is a binocular cue for depth perception?

(A) Motion parallax
(B) Texture gradient
(C) Linear perspective
(D) Convergence

Question 38:

Match the following schedule of reinforcement with their description.

(A) I-c, II-d, III-a, IV-b
(B) I-b, II-c, III-d, IV-a
(C) I-a, II-b, III-c, IV-d
(D) I-d, II-c, III-b, IV-a

Question 39:

While retrieving a long-term memory, bits and pieces of information are gathered from various sources and put back together in a process called:

(A) Consolidation
(B) Reintegration
(C) Constructive processing
(D) Automatic processing

Question 40:

Which model of decision-making relies on simplifying strategies or rules of thumb based on past experiences, fairness, past events, and aversion to loss?

(A) Bounded rationality model
(B) Judgment heuristics and biases model
(C) Social model
(D) Economic rationality model

Question 41:

When Monkey-A sees Monkey-B touching four pictures in a certain order to gain a banana on a screen, Monkey-A learns to imitate that order even when shown a different configuration. This process is known as:

(A) Social imitation
(B) Classical imitation
(C) Cognitive arousal
(D) Cognitive imitation

Question 42:

Match the following:

(A) I-b, II-c, III-d, IV-a
(B) I-c, II-a, III-d, IV-b
(C) I-d, II-c, III-a, IV-b
(D) I-a, II-b, III-c, IV-d

Question 43:

Match the following.

(A) I-b, II-a, III-c, IV-e, V-d
(B) I-d, II-a, III-c, IV-b, V-e
(C) I-e, II-d, III-c, IV-b, V-a
(D) I-c, II-d, III-a, IV-e, V-b

Question 44:

Which theory emphasizes an individual's subjective frame of reference?

(A) Behaviouristic
(B) Dispositional
(C) Phenomenological
(D) Psychoanalytic

Question 45:

Tentative answer(s) to a simple research problem that is/are expressed in the form of a clearly stated relationship between independent and dependent variables is/are called:

(A) Alternate Hypothesis
(B) Null Hypothesis
(C) Phi Hypothesis
(D) Nil Hypothesis

Question 46:

Independent variable(s) is/are also known as:

(A) Explanatory variable
(B) Explainable variable
(C) Exogenous variable
(D) Explicit variable

Question 47:

Which of the following is/are not considered as unethical research practice(s)?

(A) Data fabrication
(B) Salami slicing
(C) Data collection
(D) Statistical analysis

Question 48:

In which of the following methods are variables not actively manipulated?

(A) Observational
(B) Experimental
(C) Correlational
(D) Descriptive

Question 49:

Which of the following is/are distribution-free test(s)?

(A) Pearson correlation
(B) Spearman's rho
(C) Kruskal-Wallis H test
(D) Analysis of variance

Question 56:

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding memory?

(A) Visual sensory memory lasts for a fraction of a second.
(B) Selective attention moves the information from short-term memory to long-term memory.
(C) In short-term memory, the information is held for a brief period of time while being used.
(D) Echoic memory capacity is limited to two seconds but smaller than the capacity of iconic memory.

Question 57:

Which of the following is/are correct regarding the pre-operational stage (2-7 years) of the cognitive development theory of Piaget?

(A) Infants develop a sense of object permanence.
(B) Tendency of a child to focus only on one feature of an object, while ignoring other relevant features.
(C) The inability of the young child to mentally reverse an action.
(D) The child can conserve, reverse their thinking and classify objects in terms of various characteristics.

Question 58:

Which of the following statements is/are correct about “item-response theory”?

(A) It talks about how items should function based on the knowledge of an ability or trait.
(B) It compares responses to items to determine how well the items function.
(C) It is based on the assumption that many latent traits underlie test performance.
(D) It is a logistic function having one, two, or three parameters.

Question 59:

Which of the following is/are characteristic(s) of groupthink?

(A) There is excessive optimism and risk-taking.
(B) Silence is interpreted as consent.
(C) Members reduce their efforts and performance levels while acting as a part of the group.
(D) People do not know what they are supposed to be doing.

Question 60:

Which of the following dimensions is/are related to Fiedler's Contingency Model of Leadership Effectiveness?

(A) Leader-member relationship
(B) Leader's position power
(C) Leader's personal power
(D) Individual consideration

Question 61:

Which of the following is/are not culture-fair test(s)?

(A) Raven's Progressive Matrices
(B) Dynamic Progressive Matrices
(C) Advanced Progressive Matrices
(D) Millennium Progressive Matrices

Question 62:

Which of the following is/are related to reliability?

(A) A test is administered to the same set of people on two different occasions.
(B) A test administered once is scored by two or more evaluators.
(C) A test administered once is scored by splitting it into two equal halves.
(D) A test measures what it intends to measure.

Question 63:

Which of the following is/are not defense mechanism(s)?

(A) Projection
(B) Frustration
(C) Introspection
(D) Rationalization

Question 64:

On a standard test, the population is known to have a mean of 500 and a standard deviation of 100. Those receiving an experimental treatment have a mean of 540. The effect size is ______ (rounded off to two decimal places).

Question 65:

The standard deviation for the following scores: 8, 6, 6, 9, 6, 5, 6, 2 is ______ (rounded off to two decimal places).