The GATE 2025 AR Question Paper PDF is available. IIT Roorkee has conducted the GATE 2025 Architecture Engineering exam on February 2nd, Shift 1 from 9:30 AM to 12:30 PM. As per the updated exam pattern, the exam consists of 65 questions carrying a total of 100 marks, with 10 from the General Aptitude section and 55 questions from Core Architecture Engineering topics.

The difficulty level of GATE 2025 AR was moderate.

GATE 2025 AR Question Paper with Solutions PDF

GATE 2025 AR Question Paper with Answer Key Download PDF Check Solutions
GATE 2025 AR Question Paper with Solution Answer Key PDF

GATE 2025 AR Question Paper with Solutions


Question 1:

Identify the grammatically correct sentence:

  • (A) It is I who am responsible for this fiasco.
  • (B) It is myself who is responsible for this fiasco.
  • (C) It is I who is responsible for this fiasco.
  • (D) It is I who are responsible for this fiasco.
Correct Answer: (A) It is I who am responsible for this fiasco.
View Solution

Question 2:

Two cars, P and Q, start from a point X in India at 10 AM. Car P travels North with a speed of 25 km/h and car Q travels East with a speed of 30 km/h. Car P travels continuously but car Q stops for some time after traveling for one hour. If both cars are at the same distance from X at 11:30 AM, for how long (in minutes) did car Q stop?

  • (A) 10
  • (B) 12
  • (C) 15
  • (D) 18
Correct Answer: (C) 15
View Solution

Question 3:

The ceiling function of a real number \( x \), denoted by \( ce(x) \), is defined as the smallest integer that is greater than or equal to \( x \). Similarly, the floor function, denoted by \( fl(x) \), is defined as the largest integer that is smaller than or equal to \( x \). Which one of the following statements is NOT correct for all possible values of \( x \)?

  • (A) \( ce(x) \geq x \)
  • (B) \( fl(x) \leq x \)
  • (C) \( ce(x) \geq fl(x) \)
  • (D) \( fl(x) < ce(x) \)
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Question 4:

P and Q play chess frequently against each other. Of these matches, P has won 80% of the matches, drawn 15% of the matches, and lost 5% of the matches.

If they play 3 more matches, what is the probability of P winning exactly 2 of these 3 matches?

  • (A) \( \frac{48}{125} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{16}{125} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{16}{25} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{25}{48} \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( \frac{48}{125} \)
View Solution

Question 5:

Identify the option that has the most appropriate sequence such that a coherent paragraph is formed:


% Statements
P. At once, without thinking much, people rushed towards the city in hordes with the sole aim of grabbing as much gold as they could.

Q. However, little did they realize about the impending hardships they would have to face on their way to the city: miles of mud, unfriendly forests, hungry beasts, and inimical local lords—all of which would reduce their chances of getting gold to almost zero.

R. All of them thought that easily they could lay their hands on gold and become wealthy overnight.

S. About a hundred years ago, the news that gold had been discovered in Kolar spread like wildfire and the whole State was in raptures.

  • (A) P \(\rightarrow\) Q \(\rightarrow\) R \(\rightarrow\) S
  • (B) Q \(\rightarrow\) S \(\rightarrow\) R \(\rightarrow\) P
  • (C) S \(\rightarrow\) Q \(\rightarrow\) P \(\rightarrow\) R
  • (D) S \(\rightarrow\) P \(\rightarrow\) R \(\rightarrow\) Q
Correct Answer: (D) S \(\rightarrow\) P \(\rightarrow\) R \(\rightarrow\) Q
View Solution

Question 6:

If HIDE and CAGE are coded as 19-23-7-11 and 5-2-17-11 respectively, then what is the code for HIGH?

  • (A) 5-17-1-2
  • (B) 17-19-13-17
  • (C) 13-3-1-2
  • (D) 19-23-17-19
Correct Answer: (D) 19-23-17-19
View Solution

Question 7:

The given figure is reflected about the horizontal dashed line and then rotated clockwise by 90° about an axis perpendicular to the plane of the figure.

Which one of the following options correctly shows the resultant figure?


Note: The figures shown are representative


Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Question 8:

Which one of the following options has the correct sequence of objects arranged in the increasing number of mirror lines (lines of symmetry)?

  • (A) Circle; Square; Equilateral triangle; Isosceles triangle
  • (B) Isosceles triangle; Equilateral triangle; Square; Circle
  • (C) Equilateral triangle; Isosceles triangle; Square; Circle
  • (D) Isosceles triangle; Square; Equilateral triangle; Circle
Correct Answer: (B) Isosceles triangle; Equilateral triangle; Square; Circle
View Solution

Question 9:

A final year student appears for placement interview in two companies, S and T. Based on her interview performance, she estimates the probability of receiving job offers from companies S and T to be 0.8 and 0.6, respectively. Let \( p \) be the probability that she receives job offers from both the companies. Select the most appropriate option.

  • (A) \( 0 \leq p \leq 0.2 \)
  • (B) \( 0.4 \leq p \leq 0.6 \)
  • (C) \( 0.2 \leq p \leq 0.4 \)
  • (D) \( 0.6 \leq p \leq 1.0 \)
Correct Answer: (B) \( 0.4 \leq p \leq 0.6 \)
View Solution

Question 10:

As per the United Nations Development Report, 1990, which of the following is NOT a key indicator of Human Development Index (HDI)?

  • (A) Life Expectancy at Birth
  • (B) Expected Years of Schooling
  • (C) Per capita Gross National Income (GNI)
  • (D) Mortality Rate
Correct Answer: (D) Mortality Rate
View Solution

Question 11:

As per the URDPFI Guidelines, 2015, the suggested population served by a single unit of neighbourhood park for plain areas is ____.

  • (A) 5000
  • (B) 15000
  • (C) 35000
  • (D) 50000
Correct Answer: (B) 15000
View Solution

Question 12:

As per the National Building Code of India, 2016, the minimum clear opening width of a doorway to allow single wheelchair access, is _____ mm.

  • (A) 600
  • (B) 900
  • (C) 1200
  • (D) 1500
Correct Answer: (B) 900
View Solution

Question 13:

In landscaping, Miyawaki technique is used for __________.

  • (A) creating waterbodies to stop rapid urbanization
  • (B) pruning shrubs in urban plantation
  • (C) creating dense forests with native plants
  • (D) identifying sites for urban vertical gardens
  • (A) Zone of better housing
  • (B) Zone of independent working class
  • (C) Zone of transition
  • (D) Zone of high-class homes on outskirts of outer suburbs
  • (A) Total solids = Suspended solids + Dissolved solids + Colloidal solids
  • (B) Total gases = Biological Oxygen Demand + Chemical Oxygen Demand + Dissolved Oxygen
  • (C) Total solids = Suspended Solids + Dissolved solids
  • (D) Total gases = Biological Oxygen Demand + Chemical Oxygen Demand
  • (A) Non-biodegradable, Non-recyclable
  • (B) Biodegradable, Recyclable
  • (C) Non-biodegradable, Recyclable
  • (D) Biodegradable, Non-recyclable
Correct Answer: (C) creating dense forests with native plants
View Solution

Question 14:

For composting, the optimum Carbon to Nitrogen (C:N) ratio is closest to _______.

  • (A) 5:1
  • (B) 30:1
  • (C) 70:1
  • (D) 1:1
Correct Answer: (B) 30:1
View Solution

Question 15:

Read the following statements and select the correct option.

P: Strong axial layout, symmetry, proportion, and infinite perspective of the 17th Century French Gardens reflects the wealth, power and rigid social structure of France.

Q: Italian gardens of early renaissance period were designed as intellectual retreats where scholars and artists could work and debate.

  • (A) P is true but Q is false
  • (B) P is false but Q is true
  • (C) Both P and Q are true
  • (D) Both P and Q are false
Correct Answer: (C) Both P and Q are true
View Solution

Question 16:

The concept of _____ is primarily used to describe an urban area with plenty of green spaces and waterbodies to retain and/or detain rain water.

  • (A) Sponge City
  • (B) Aerocity
  • (C) 15-minute City
  • (D) Compact City
Correct Answer: (A) Sponge City
View Solution

Question 17:

Identify the correct sequence of drawings prepared by architects at various stages of building design and construction.

  • (A) Working drawing; Statutory approval drawing; Conceptual design drawing; Completion drawing
  • (B) Statutory approval drawing; Conceptual design drawing; Completion drawing; Working drawing
  • (C) Conceptual design drawing; Statutory approval drawing; Working drawing; Completion drawing
  • (D) Conceptual design drawing; Working drawing; Completion drawing; Statutory approval drawing
Correct Answer: (C) Conceptual design drawing; Statutory approval drawing; Working drawing; Completion drawing
View Solution

Question 18:

As per the National Building Code of India, 2016, choose the correct option where materials are arranged in the increasing order of their embodied energy.

  • (A) Medium Density Fibreboard \(<\) Aluminium \(<\) Float Glass \(<\) Fly-ash Bricks
  • (B) Fly-ash Bricks \(<\) Medium Density Fibreboard \(<\) Float Glass \(<\) Aluminium
  • (C) Medium Density Fibreboard \(<\) Fly-ash Bricks \(<\) Float Glass \(<\) Aluminium
  • (D) Fly-ash Bricks \(<\) Aluminium \(<\) Medium Density Fibreboard \(<\) Float Glass
Correct Answer: (B) Fly-ash Bricks < Medium Density Fibreboard < Float Glass < Aluminium
View Solution

Question 19:

Which one of the following Universal Design principles aims to “minimise hazards and the adverse consequences of accidental or unintended actions”?

  • (A) Flexibility in use
  • (B) Tolerance for error
  • (C) Perceptible information
  • (D) Simple and intuitive use
Correct Answer: (B) Tolerance for error
View Solution

Question 20:

Which one of the following buildings features an Onion dome?

  • (A) Matrimandir, Auroville
  • (B) Rashtrapati Bhavan, New Delhi
  • (C) Taj Mahal, Agra
  • (D) Victoria Memorial, Kolkata
  • (A) Good health and well-being; Clean water and sanitation
  • (B) Reduced inequalities; High nutrition
  • (C) Reduced inequalities; Sustainable cities and communities
  • (D) Good health and well-being; High nutrition
  • (A) Facility management; Sustainability
  • (B) Construction schedule; Construction costing
  • (C) Sustainability; Construction schedule
  • (D) Construction costing; Facility management
  • (A) Liquefaction
  • (B) Heatwave
  • (C) Tsunami
  • (D) Tornado
  • (A) Cairo
  • (B) Chandigarh
  • (C) Philadelphia
  • (D) Venice
Correct Answer: (C) Taj Mahal, Agra
View Solution

Question 21:

Match the following items of work in Group-I with their corresponding units of measurement in Group-II.


  • (A) P–1, Q–4, R–3, S–2
  • (B) P–3, Q–1, R–4, S–5
  • (C) P–5, Q–2, R–1, S–4
  • (D) P–3, Q–4, R–1, S–2
Correct Answer: (D) P–3, Q–4, R–1, S–2
View Solution

Question 22:

Match the types of water carriage system in Group-I with their corresponding functions in Group-II.


  • (A) P–2, Q–4, R–1, S–3
  • (B) P–2, Q–3, R–5, S–4
  • (C) P–1, Q–4, R–5, S–3
  • (D) P–1, Q–3, R–1, S–4
Correct Answer: (A) P–2, Q–4, R–1, S–3
View Solution

Question 23:

Match the following UNESCO World heritage sites in Group-I with their relevant historic significance in Group-II.


  • (A) P–1, Q–2, R–4, S–5
  • (B) P–5, Q–1, R–3, S–4
  • (C) P–3, Q–1, R–4, S–5
  • (D) P–3, Q–5, R–2, S–4
Correct Answer: (C) P–3, Q–1, R–4, S–5
View Solution

Question 24:

Match the following principles of design in Group-I to their corresponding descriptions in Group-II.


  • (A) P–3, Q–2, R–5, S–1
  • (B) P–4, Q–1, R–3, S–5
  • (C) P–4, Q–2, R–5, S–1
  • (D) P–3, Q–4, R–2, S–5
Correct Answer: (C) P–4, Q–2, R–5, S–1
View Solution

Question 25:

Match the following Books in Group-I with their corresponding Authors in Group-II.


  • (A) P–5, Q–2, R–4, S–3
  • (B) P–2, Q–1, R–4, S–3
  • (C) P–3, Q–4, R–5, S–1
  • (D) P–2, Q–1, R–3, S–4
  • (A) 50
  • (B) 31.25
  • (C) 80
  • (D) 61.25
Correct Answer: (B) P–2, Q–1, R–4, S–3
View Solution

Question 26:

Which of the following is/are supply side intervention(s) to improve housing affordability?

  • (A) Increase in availability of urban land for housing
  • (B) Increase in Institutional Housing Finance
  • (C) Reduction in Floor Area Ratio
  • (D) Increase in Stamp Duty
Correct Answer: (A) Increase in availability of urban land for housing, (B) Increase in Institutional Housing Finance
View Solution

Question 27:

Which of the following method(s) is/are used for desalination of water?

  • (A) Reverse Osmosis
  • (B) Activated Sludge Process
  • (C) Incineration
  • (D) Distillation
Correct Answer: (A) Reverse Osmosis, (D) Distillation
View Solution

Question 28:

Identify the set(s) of complimentary colours based on RGB Model.

  • (A) Yellow and Purple
  • (B) Yellow and Orange
  • (C) Blue and Orange
  • (D) Blue and Purple
Correct Answer: (C) Blue and Orange
View Solution

Question 29:

In a regular semi-circular arch of 2 m clear span, the thickness of the arch is 30 cm and the breadth of the wall is 40 cm. The total quantity of brickwork in the arch is __\ m\(^3\). (rounded off to two decimal places)


Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 30:

A roof area of 6000 m\(^2\) of a building is drafted on a drawing sheet as 240 cm\(^2\). The scale used in the drawing sheet is 1:_____. (rounded off to the nearest integer)

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 31:

A housing property of INR 50 lakh is on sale either through a Full Down Payment (FDP) scheme with an 8% rebate OR a Deferred Payment Plan (DPP) as shown in the table. A customer after converting all the future payments in DPP using 10% annual discount rate, found the DPP scheme to be financially gainful. The customer would be able to save in INR ______ lakh, if DPP is chosen over FDP. (rounded off to two decimal places)


Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 32:

The population of a city in the year 2001, 2011, 2021 were recorded as 52,000, 76,000, and 1,20,000 respectively. Calculating the average growth rate using geometric mean, the estimated population of the city for 2031 using the geometric increase method is _______. (rounded off to the nearest integer)

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 33:

A room having dimension of 12 m × 8 m and height 4 m, stores a certain combustible material of volume 80 m\(^3\). The density and calorific value of the combustible material are 3.0 kg/m\(^3\) and 4000 kcal/kg, respectively. The fire load of the room is ______ kcal/m\(^2\). (rounded off to the nearest integer)

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 34:

A construction project consists of four activities. The duration, relationship, and cost parameters are given in the table. The indirect cost of the project is INR 5000 per week. If the project has to be completed by 12 weeks, the total project cost will be, INR ____. (Answer in integer)


Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 35:

A 24 cm line AB is vertically standing on a horizontal plane. The station point is located 18 cm above ground and 15 cm in front of the line AB. The picture plane is located in between the line AB and station point perpendicular to the sight line. The distance between the picture plane and the station point is 9 cm. The height of the perspective view of the line AB is ____\ cm. (rounded off to one decimal place)

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 36:

The view from ground to sky of a location is projected on a plane as shown in the figure. The hatched and the solid black portion of the diagram represent the sky and the obstructions, respectively. The radius of the whole circle shown in the figure is 3 units and other dimensions are provided in the figure. The Sky View Factor (SVF) of this location is ________. (rounded off to two decimal places)


Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 37:

A city aims to introduce Metro rail as a sustainable public transport, with a projected daily ridership of 3,67,200 which is expected to shift 18% of the daily trips from other existing modes. The existing modal share (in percentage) is shown in the figure. If half of the above modal shift is expected to replace trips by Motorised Two-wheeler and Motorised Four-wheeler in 2:1 ratio, the trips only by Motorised Two-wheeler, post modal shift to Metro is ____. (answer in integer)


Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 38:

With reference to Squinch adopted in dome construction, choose the correct option related to statements P and Q.

P: Squinch is a structural element used to support the base of a circular or octagonal dome that surmounts a square hall.

Q: Squinch is a double layered dome comprising of an inner and an outer layer of masonry.

  • (A) Both P and Q are true
  • (B) P is true but Q is false
  • (C) P is false but Q is true
  • (D) Both P and Q are false
Correct Answer: (B) P is true but Q is false
View Solution

Question 39:

In Heating Ventilation and Air Conditioning (HVAC) systems, HVAC dampers are essentially ______.

  • (A) valves that regulate the airflow as per the air-conditioned zone requirements
  • (B) valves that regulate the refrigerant flow as per the air-conditioned zone requirements
  • (C) desiccants which are used to absorb the moisture and dehumidify the air-conditioned zone
  • (D) metal-based sheets to absorb heat and to cool the air-conditioned zone
Correct Answer: (A) valves that regulate the airflow as per the air-conditioned zone requirements
View Solution

Question 40:

________ increases the spreading quality of paints and helps to achieve desired consistency.

  • (A) Base
  • (B) Vehicle
  • (C) Paint Drier
  • (D) Solvent
Correct Answer: (B) Vehicle
View Solution

Question 41:

The graph shows the typical test result of a property of a building material. Identify the test and the variables represented on the X-axis and Y-axis from the given options.


  • (A) Workability test of concrete; X-Axis: water-cement ratio; Y-Axis: amount of slump
  • (B) Cube test of concrete; X-Axis: water-cement ratio; Y-Axis: 28-days compressive strength
  • (C) Ultrasonic pulse velocity test; X-Axis: pulse velocity; Y-Axis: compressive strength
  • (D) Bulking test of sand; X-Axis: moisture percentage; Y-Axis: percentage increase in volume
Correct Answer: (D) Bulking test of sand; X-Axis: moisture percentage; Y-Axis: percentage increase in volume
View Solution

Question 42:

A typical Classical Greek temple with Doric order columns is illustrated in the figure. Identify the correct terms corresponding to P, Q, and R marked in the figure.


  • (A) P-Cella; Q-Entablature; R-Tympanum
  • (B) P-Tympanum; Q-Entablature; R-Stylobate
  • (C) P-Tympanum; Q-Acrotetrium; R-Stylobate
  • (D) P-Cella; Q-Stylobate; R-Acrotetrium
Correct Answer: (B) P-Tympanum; Q-Entablature; R-Stylobate
View Solution

Question 43:

Which of the following is/are example(s) of Concrete Cased Pile?

  • (A) Raymond Pile
  • (B) Swage Pile
  • (C) Vibro Pile
  • (D) Simplex Pile
Correct Answer: (A) Raymond Pile; (B) Swage Pile
View Solution

Question 44:

For a given location, the Sun’s position is at 40° Altitude angle and 130° N Azimuth angle. The Zenith Angle of the Sun (in degree) at that given location is ____.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 45:

Match the items in Group-I with the corresponding items in Group-II.


  • (A) P–4, Q–3, R–1, S–5
  • (B) P–5, Q–3, R–4, S–2
  • (C) P–4, Q–1, R–3, S–5
  • (D) P–3, Q–2, R–1, S–4
Correct Answer: (A) P–4, Q–3, R–1, S–5
View Solution

Question 46:

Match the statements in Group-I with the corresponding names of architects in Group-II.


  • (A) P–1, Q–2, R–4, S–5
  • (B) P–2, Q–3, R–1, S–4
  • (C) P–2, Q–1, R–4, S–3
  • (D) P–5, Q–1, R–2, S–3
Correct Answer: (C) P–2, Q–1, R–4, S–3
View Solution

Question 47:

Match the items in Group-I with the corresponding statements in Group-II.


  • (A) P–3, Q–1, R–4, S–2
  • (B) P–4, Q–5, R–3, S–1
  • (C) P–3, Q–1, R–5, S–4
  • (D) P–1, Q–5, R–4, S–2
Correct Answer: (A) P–3, Q–1, R–4, S–2
View Solution

Question 48:

Match the following Indian Temples in Group-I with their relevant descriptions in Group-II.


  • (A) P–1, Q–3, R–2, S–4
  • (B) P–4, Q–2, R–5, S–3
  • (C) P–3, Q–4, R–1, S–5
  • (D) P–4, Q–3, R–2, S–5
Correct Answer: (D) P–4, Q–3, R–2, S–5
View Solution

Question 49:

Which of the following tall building(s) is/are having bundled-tube structural system?

  • (A) Sears Tower, Chicago
  • (B) The 42, Kolkata
  • (C) O-16 Building, Dubai
  • (D) Bank of China, Hong Kong
Correct Answer: (A) Sears Tower, Chicago; (D) Bank of China, Hong Kong
View Solution

Question 50:

A simply supported beam is under a uniformly distributed load (UDL) along the full span. The mid-span deflection is measured as 24 mm. If the length and depth of the beam is doubled while keeping other parameters unchanged, the mid-span deflection is __\ mm.

Correct Answer: 48
View Solution

Question 51:

A rectangular RCC beam section of 250 mm width and 400 mm effective depth is under a factored Shear Force of 120 kN. The design shear strength (\(\tau_c\)) of concrete is 0.35 N/mm². Two-legged, 8 mm diameter stirrups are used for the shear reinforcement. Assuming the Yield Stress of Steel, \(f_y = 415\) N/mm², the design spacing (c/c) of the stirrups is ___ mm. (rounded off to the nearest integer)

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 52:

A source of light is located at point C. Point A is 1.75 m vertically below point C. Point B is situated horizontally 1.0 m right of point A. If the illumination level at point A due to the light source at point C is 300 Lux, then the illumination level at point B is ______ Lux. (rounded off to the nearest integer)

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 53:

There are 16 similar machines located radially and equally distanced from a fixed sound receiver. While operating, each machine records 60 dB sound level at the receiver. Assuming 70 dB to be the highest sound level allowed as per the industrial sound pollution norms, the total number of machines allowed to operate simultaneously without violating the norms is ______. (rounded off to the nearest integer)

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 54:

Affordable Housing in Partnership (AHP) is one of the verticals of Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY) of Government of India. In AHP, the partnership was envisaged between _____.

  • (A) States/UTs/ULBs/Parastatals and Academic Institutions
  • (B) States/UTs/ULBs/Parastatals and Private Developers
  • (C) Non-Government Organisation (NGO) and Private Developers
  • (D) Non-Government Organisation (NGO) and Academic Institutions
Correct Answer: (B) States/UTs/ULBs/Parastatals and Private Developers
View Solution

Question 55:

Which are the two wavelength bands of light spectrum used to calculate the Normalised Difference Vegetation Index (NDVI) in remote sensing?

  • (A) Green and Blue
  • (B) Green and Near Infrared
  • (C) Near Infrared and Red
  • (D) Red and Green
Correct Answer: (C) Near Infrared and Red
View Solution

Question 56:

______ refers to the benefits when industries/firms cluster together resulting in reduced production cost, improved availability of skilled labor, and increased flow of information and knowledge sharing.

  • (A) Industrial ecology
  • (B) Agglomeration of economies
  • (C) Behavioural economics
  • (D) Industrial engineering
Correct Answer: (B) Agglomeration of economies
View Solution

Question 57:

As per the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013, the ____ determines the _____ for compensation for land acquisition.

  • (A) Collector; market value
  • (B) Planning Officer; market value
  • (C) Collector; circle rate
  • (D) Planning Officer; circle rate
Correct Answer: (A) Collector; market value
View Solution

Question 58:

Total Station is an equipment used for ______.

  • (A) measurement of rainfall intensity
  • (B) noise level measurement
  • (C) air quality measurement
  • (D) determination of coordinates of unknown points relative to a known coordinate
Correct Answer: (D) determination of coordinates of unknown points relative to a known coordinate
View Solution

Question 59:

Select the correct statement(s) with regard to Traffic Analysis Zones (TAZs).

  • (A) TAZs are not determined based on physical barriers like rivers, mountains and forests.
  • (B) Demographic characteristics of a TAZ will change with new residents moving into the TAZ.
  • (C) ‘Cordon line’ helps in defining the study area within which TAZs are located.
  • (D) TAZs cannot include multiple wards
Correct Answer: (B) Demographic characteristics of a TAZ will change with new residents moving into the TAZ; (C) ‘Cordon line’ helps in defining the study area within which TAZs are located.
View Solution

Question 60:

As per the Census of India, 2011, choose the correct statement(s), regarding the definition of a Census Town.

  • (A) The minimum population size is 5000.
  • (B) The population density of at least 400 persons per square kilometer.
  • (C) 55 percent of the male working population are not engaged in agriculture.
  • (D) The population density of at least 250 persons per square kilometer.
Correct Answer: (A) The minimum population size is 5000; (B) The population density of at least 400 persons per square kilometer.
View Solution

Question 61:

Match the following Planning Strategies in Group-I to their corresponding descriptions in Group-II.


  • (A) P–4, Q–2, R–5, S–1
  • (B) P–1, Q–2, R–3, S–4
  • (C) P–4, Q–3, R–2, S–1
  • (D) P–1, Q–3, R–2, S–5
Correct Answer: (C) P–4, Q–3, R–2, S–1
View Solution

Question 62:

Match the following sub-categories of urban land use in Group-I with their corresponding broad land use categories in Group-II as per URDPFI Guidelines, 2015.


  • (A) P–2, Q–1, R–4, S–5
  • (B) P–3, Q–2, R–1, S–3
  • (C) P–4, Q–2, R–3, S–5
  • (D) P–2, Q–4, R–5, S–3
Correct Answer: (A) P–2, Q–1, R–4, S–5
View Solution

Question 63:

Match the following Curves in Group-I with their corresponding uses in Group-II.


  • (A) P–2, Q–3, R–4, S–5
  • (B) P–3, Q–1, R–5, S–2
  • (C) P–1, Q–2, R–3, S–4
  • (D) P–2, Q–1, R–5, S–4
Correct Answer: (D) P–2, Q–1, R–5, S–4
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Question 64:

Match the following types of migration in Group-I to their corresponding descriptions in Group-II.


  • (A) P–2, Q–3, R–4, S–1
  • (B) P–3, Q–1, R–2, S–4
  • (C) P–3, Q–1, R–5, S–4
  • (D) P–1, Q–4, R–2, S–3
Correct Answer: (B) P–3, Q–1, R–2, S–4
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Question 65:

Which of the following characteristics of a house or land is/are considered in hedonic price function?

  • (A) Quality of the view from the house
  • (B) Low crime rate in the surrounding area
  • (C) Number of bedrooms in the house
  • (D) Household size
Correct Answer: (A) Quality of the view from the house, (B) Low crime rate in the surrounding area, (C) Number of bedrooms in the house
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Question 66:

Which of the following is/are the characteristics of urban agglomeration as per the Census of India, 2011?

  • (A) A continuous urban spread constituting a town and its adjoining outgrowths
  • (B) Urban settlements combined with one rural settlement
  • (C) Two or more contiguous towns together with or without outgrowths
  • (D) Urban villages engulfed within a metropolitan area
Correct Answer: (A) A continuous urban spread constituting a town and its adjoining outgrowths, (C) Two or more contiguous towns together with or without outgrowths
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Question 67:

The spot speeds (in km/h) of eight vehicles in a traffic stream are 42, 52, 56, X, 53, 62, 65, and 48. X is the spot speed of the fourth vehicle. The Time Mean Speed of the traffic stream is 56.25 km/h. After determining the value of X, the calculated Space Mean Speed of the traffic stream is _____ km/h. (rounded off to two decimal places)

Correct Answer:
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Question 68:

An individual chooses a transport mode for a particular trip based on three attributes i.e., cost of journey (X), In-vehicle travel time to reach destination (Y), and Out-of-vehicle time taken to access mode at respective stops (Z). The values for these attributes for three modes Rail, Bus and Para-transit are given in the table. If the general utility (U) equation is \( U = - 0.5 \times X - 0.3 \times Y - 0.4 \times Z \), using the Logit model, the estimated probability of choosing Bus is ______ (rounded off to two decimal places).


Correct Answer:
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Question 69:

A four-arm uncontrolled un-signaled urban intersection of both-way traffic is illustrated in the figure. Vehicles approaching the intersection from the directions A, B, C, and D can move to either left, right, or continue in straight direction. No U-turn is allowed. In the given situation, the maximum number of vehicular crossing conflict points for this intersection is _____. (answer in integer)


Correct Answer:
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