The GATE 2025 CE Slot 2 Question Paper PDF is available as the exam is over. IIT Roorkee is conducting the GATE 2025 Civil Engineering (CE) exam on February 16 Shift 2 took place from 2:30 PM to 5:30 PM. As per the updated exam pattern, the exam consists of 65 questions with 100 marks, with 10 from the General Aptitude section and 55 questions from Engineering Mathematics and Civil Engineering topics.

The difficulty level of GATE 2025 CE Slot 2 was moderate.

GATE 2025 CE Slot 2 Question Paper with Solutions PDF

GATE 2025 CE Slot 2 Question Paper with Answer Key Download Check Solutions
GATE 2025 CE Slot 2 Question Paper with Solution Answer Key PDF

GATE 2025 CE Slot 2 Question Paper with Solutions


Question 1:

Even though I had planned to go skiing with my friends, I had to ............. at the last moment because of an injury.

  • (A) back up
  • (B) back of
  • (C) back on
  • (D) back out
Correct Answer: (D) back out
View Solution

Question 2:

The President, along with the Council of Ministers, ............. to visit India next week.

  • (A) wish
  • (B) wishes
  • (C) will wish
  • (D) is wishing
Correct Answer: (B) wishes
View Solution

Question 3:

An electricity utility company charges ₹7 per kWh. If a 40-watt desk light is left on for 10 hours each night for 180 days, what would be the cost of energy consumption? If the desk light is on for 2 more hours each night for the 180 days, what would be the percentage-increase in the cost of energy consumption?

  • (A) ₹604.8; 10%
  • (B) ₹504; 20%
  • (C) ₹604.8; 12%
  • (D) ₹720; 15%
Correct Answer: (B) ₹504; 20%
View Solution

Question 4:

In the context of the given figure, which one of the following options correctly represents the entries in the blocks labelled (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv), respectively?



  • (A) Q, M, 12 and 8
  • (B) K, L, 10 and 14
  • (C) I, J, 10 and 8
  • (D) L, K, 12 and 8
Correct Answer: (D) L, K, 12 and 8
View Solution

Question 5:

A bag contains Violet (V), Yellow (Y), Red (R), and Green (G) balls. On counting them, the following results are obtained:

(i) The sum of Yellow balls and twice the number of Violet balls is 50.

(ii) The sum of Violet and Green balls is 50.

(iii) The sum of Yellow and Red balls is 50.

(iv) The sum of Violet and twice the number of Red balls is 50.


Which one of the following Pie charts correctly represents the balls in the bag?

  • (A)
  • (B)
  • (C)
  • (D)
Correct Answer: (A) V: 10%, Y: 30%, R: 20%, G: 40%
View Solution

Question 6:

“His life was divided between the books, his friends, and long walks. A solitary man, he worked at all hours without much method, and probably courted his fatal illness in this way. To his own name there is not much to show; but such was his liberality that he was continually helping others, and fruits of his erudition are widely scattered, and have gone to increase many a comparative stranger’s reputation.”

(From E.V. Lucas’s “A Funeral”)

Based only on the information provided in the above passage, which one of the following statements is true?

  • (A) The solitary man described in the passage is dead.
  • (B) Strangers helped create a grand reputation for the solitary man described in the passage.
  • (C) The solitary man described in the passage found joy in scattering fruits.
  • (D) The solitary man worked in a court where he fell ill.
Correct Answer: (A) The solitary man described in the passage is dead.
View Solution

Question 7:

For the clock shown in the figure, if

O* = O Q S Z P R T, and

X* = X Z P W Y O Q,

then which one among the given options is most appropriate for P*?



  • (A) P U W R T V X
  • (B) P R T O Q S U
  • (C) P T V Q S U W
  • (D) P S U P R T V
Correct Answer: (B) P R T O Q S U
View Solution

Question 8:

Consider a five-digit number PQRST that has distinct digits P, Q, R, S, and T, and satisfies the following conditions:

1. \( P < Q \)

2. \( S > P > T \)

3. \( R < T \)


If integers 1 through 5 are used to construct such a number, the value of P is:

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4
Correct Answer: (C) 3
View Solution

Question 9:

A business person buys potatoes of two different varieties P and Q, mixes them in a certain ratio and sells them at ₹192 per kg.

The cost of the variety P is ₹800 for 5 kg.

The cost of the variety Q is ₹800 for 4 kg.

If the person gets 8% profit, what is the P : Q ratio (by weight)?

  • (A) 5 : 4
  • (B) 3 : 4
  • (C) 3 : 2
  • (D) 1 : 1
Correct Answer: (A) 5 : 4
View Solution

Question 10:

Three villages P, Q, and R are located in such a way that the distance PQ = 13 km, QR = 14 km, and RP = 15 km, as shown in the figure. A straight road joins Q and R. It is proposed to connect P to this road QR by constructing another road. What is the minimum possible length (in km) of this connecting road?


\textit{Note: The figure shown is representative.




  • (A) 10.5
  • (B) 11.0
  • (C) 12.0
  • (D) 12.5
Correct Answer: (C) 12.0
View Solution

Question 11:

For the matrix [A] given below, the transpose is ____.

\[ A = \begin{bmatrix} 2 & 3 & 4
1 & 4 & 5
4 & 3 & 2 \end{bmatrix} \]

  • (A) \( \begin{bmatrix} 2 & 1 & 4
    3 & 4 & 3
    4 & 5 & 2 \end{bmatrix} \)
  • (B) \( \begin{bmatrix} 4 & 3 & 2
    5 & 4 & 1
    2 & 3 & 4 \end{bmatrix} \)
  • (C) \( \begin{bmatrix} 4 & 2 & 3
    5 & 1 & 4
    2 & 4 & 3 \end{bmatrix} \)
  • (D) \( \begin{bmatrix} 2 & 3 & 4
    1 & 4 & 5
    4 & 3 & 2 \end{bmatrix} \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( \begin{bmatrix} 2 & 1 & 4
3 & 4 & 3
4 & 5 & 2 \end{bmatrix} \)
View Solution

Question 12:

Integration of \(\ln(x)\) with \(x\), i.e. \(\int \ln(x)dx =\) ____

  • (A) \(x \cdot \ln(x) - x + Constant\)
  • (B) \(x - \ln(x) + Constant\)
  • (C) \(x \cdot \ln(x) + x + Constant\)
  • (D) \(\ln(x) - x + Constant\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(x \cdot \ln(x) - x + \text{Constant}\)
View Solution

Question 13:

Consider the following statements (P) and (Q):


(P): Fly ash and ground granulated blast furnace slag can be used as mineral admixtures in concrete.

(Q): As per IS 456:2000, the minimum moist curing period becomes higher when a mineral admixture is added to concrete.


Identify the CORRECT option from choices given below.

  • (A) Both (P) and (Q) are TRUE.
  • (B) (P) is TRUE and (Q) is FALSE.
  • (C) (P) is FALSE and (Q) is TRUE.
  • (D) Both (P) and (Q) are FALSE.
Correct Answer: (A) Both (P) and (Q) are TRUE.
View Solution

Question 14:

Consider the pin-jointed truss shown in the figure. Influence line is drawn for the axial force in the member G-I, when a unit load travels on the bottom chord of the truss. Identify the \textbf{CORRECT} influence line from the following options:


\textit{Note: Positive value corresponds to tension and negative value corresponds to compression in the member.



  • (A)
  • (B)
  • (C)
  • (D)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Question 15:

The most suitable test for measuring the permeability of clayey soils in the laboratory is ____.

  • (A) Constant head test
  • (B) Pumping out test
  • (C) Hydrometer test
  • (D) Falling head test
Correct Answer: (D) Falling head test
View Solution

Question 16:

A hydraulic jump occurs in an open channel when the slope of the channel changes from ____.

  • (A) MILD slope to STEEP slope
  • (B) STEEP slope to MILD slope
  • (C) MILD slope to ZERO slope
  • (D) STEEP slope to a STEEPER slope
Correct Answer: (B) STEEP slope to MILD slope
View Solution

Question 17:

The bacteria mainly responsible for crown corrosion in a sewer is ____.

  • (A) Methanogenic bacteria
  • (B) Denitrifying bacteria
  • (C) Sulphur reducing bacteria
  • (D) Pseudomonas bacteria
Correct Answer: (C) Sulphur reducing bacteria
View Solution

Question 18:

The recommended minimum traffic growth rate and design period considered for structural design of flexible pavements for national highways in India as per IRC 37:2018 is ____ percentage and ____ years, respectively.

  • (A) 5, 20
  • (B) 5, 30
  • (C) 7, 20
  • (D) 7, 30
Correct Answer: (A) 5, 20
View Solution

Question 19:

After applying the correction for elevation and temperature, the runway length is 700 m.

The corrected runway length (in m) for an effective gradient of 1% is ____ (round off to the nearest integer).

  • (A) 840
  • (B) 700
  • (C) 720
  • (D) 740
Correct Answer: (A) 840
View Solution

Question 20:

The point where the road alignment changes from a tangent to a curve is known as ____.

  • (A) Point of deflection
  • (B) Point of intersection
  • (C) Point of curve
  • (D) Point of tangency
Correct Answer: (C) Point of curve
View Solution

Question 21:

Consider a velocity vector, \( \vec{V} \) in (x, y, z) coordinates given below. Pick one or more CORRECT statement(s) from the choices given below:

\[ \vec{V} = u\hat{i} + v\hat{j} \]

  • (A) z-component of Curl of velocity; \( \nabla \times \vec{V} = \left( \frac{\partial v}{\partial x} - \frac{\partial u}{\partial y} \right) \hat{z} \)
  • (B) z-component of Curl of velocity; \( \nabla \times \vec{V} = \left( \frac{\partial u}{\partial x} - \frac{\partial v}{\partial y} \right) \hat{z} \)
  • (C) Divergence of velocity; \( \nabla \cdot \vec{V} = \left( \frac{\partial u}{\partial x} + \frac{\partial v}{\partial y} \right) \)
  • (D) Divergence of velocity; \( \nabla \cdot \vec{V} = \left( \frac{\partial u}{\partial x} - \frac{\partial v}{\partial y} \right) \)
Correct Answer: (A), (C)
View Solution

Question 22:

Given that A and B are not null sets, which of the following statements regarding probability is/are \textbf{CORRECT}?

  • (A) \( P(A \cap B) = P(A) \cdot P(B) \), if A and B are mutually exclusive.
  • (B) Conditional probability, \( P(A \mid B) = 1 \) if \( B \subseteq A \).
  • (C) \( P(A \cup B) = P(A) + P(B) \), if A and B are mutually exclusive.
  • (D) \( P(A \cap B) = 0 \), if A and B are independent.
Correct Answer: (B), (C)
View Solution

Question 23:

In the context of construction materials, which of the following statements is/are \textbf{CORRECT}?

  • (A) If the characteristic strength is defined as that value below which not more than 50% results are expected to fall, the target mean strength in mix design will be the same as the characteristic strength irrespective of the degree of quality control expected at the site.
  • (B) Ten percent fines value is a non-dimensional quantity.
  • (C) The stress-strain curve of concrete for 1-day duration of loading is associated with a smaller secant modulus of elasticity compared to the stress-strain curve of the same concrete for 10-minutes duration of loading.
  • (D) The increase of carbon in steel usually leads to an increase in its 0.2% proof stress.
Correct Answer: (A), (C), (D)
View Solution

Question 24:

Which of the following statements is/are \textbf{INCORRECT}?

  • (A) As the depth of the ground water table from the ground surface increases, the effective stress in the soil decreases.
  • (B) Bulking of the moist sand is due to the capillary action in the sand.
  • (C) The effective stress in a liquefied soil is almost zero.
  • (D) The earth pressure at any point in the soil, under all conditions, is always smaller than the vertical effective stress at that point.
Correct Answer: (A), (D)
View Solution

Question 25:

Pick one or more \textbf{CORRECT} statement(s) from the choices given below, in the context of upstream and downstream cut-offs provided below the concrete apron of weirs/barrages constructed across alluvial rivers.

  • (A) Cut-offs are provided to increase the rate of flow over the weir / barrage.
  • (B) Cut-offs are provided to increase the seepage length and prevent failure due to piping.
  • (C) The bottom level of cut-offs mainly depends on the scour depth.
  • (D) Cut-offs are provided to ensure occurrence of hydraulic jump within the stilling basin.
Correct Answer: (B), (C)
View Solution

Question 26:

In the context of the effect of drainage density on the run-off generation and the hydrograph at the catchment outlet, all other factors remaining the same, pick one or more \textbf{CORRECT} statement(s):

  • (A) Lower drainage density results in higher peak in flood hydrograph compared to that when the drainage density is higher.
  • (B) Lower drainage density results in lower peak in flood hydrograph compared to that when the drainage density is higher.
  • (C) Lower drainage density results in a flood hydrograph with a longer time base compared to that when the drainage density is higher.
  • (D) Lower drainage density results in a flood hydrograph with a shorter time base compared to that when the drainage density is higher.
Correct Answer: (B), (C)
View Solution

Question 27:

Identify the treatment technology/technologies \textbf{NOT} recommended for highly biodegradable organic solid wastes.

  • (A) Biohydrogenation
  • (B) Anaerobic digestion
  • (C) Composting
  • (D) Open dumping
Correct Answer: (D) Open dumping
View Solution

Question 28:

Which of the following statements is/are \textbf{INCORRECT}?

  • (A) Bitumen having lower softening point is preferred in warm climate regions.
  • (B) The viscosity of bitumen influences the mixing and compaction of bituminous mix.
  • (C) The air voids in the range of 3% to 5% are required to arrive at the optimum bitumen content.
  • (D) The purity of bitumen can be determined using Solubility Test.
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Question 29:

The “order” of the following ordinary differential equation is ____.

\[ \frac{d^3 y}{dx^3} + \left( \frac{d^2 y}{dx^2} \right)^6 + \left( \frac{dy}{dx} \right)^4 + y = 0 \]

  • (A) (1)(6 to 6)
  • (B) (2)(2 to 2)
  • (C) (3)(3 to 3)
  • (D) (4)(4 to 4)
Correct Answer: (C) (3)(3 to 3)
View Solution

Question 30:

The design shear strength of a reinforced concrete rectangular beam with a width of 250 mm and an effective depth of 500 mm, is 0.3 MPa. The torsional moment capacity of the section (in kN.m) under pure torsion, as per IS 456:2000, is ____ (round off to one decimal place).

  • (A) 5.86
  • (B) 5.70
  • (C) 5.60
  • (D) 6.00
Correct Answer: (A) 5.86
View Solution

Question 31:

From a flow-net diagram drawn under a concrete dam, the following information is obtained:

(i) The head difference between upstream and downstream side of the dam is 9 m.

(ii) The total number of equipotential drops between upstream and downstream side of the dam is 10.

(iii) The length of the field nearest to the toe of the dam on the downstream side is 1 m.


If the soil below the dam is having a saturated unit weight of 21 kN/m\(^3\) and the unit weight of water is 9.81 kN/m\(^3\), then the factor of safety against the quick condition will be ____ (round off to two decimal places).

Correct Answer: (B) 1.27
View Solution

Question 32:

A 6 m thick clay stratum has drainage at both its top and bottom surface due to the presence of sand strata. The time to complete 50% consolidation is 2 years.

The coefficient of volume change (\(m_v\)) is \(1.51 \times 10^{-3}\ m^2/kN\) and the unit weight of water is \(9.81\ kN/m^3\).

The coefficient of permeability (in m/year) is ____ (round off to three decimal places).

Correct Answer: (B) 0.013
View Solution

Question 33:

Consider steady flow of water in the series pipe system shown below, with specified discharge. The diameters of Pipes A and B are 2 m and 1 m, respectively. The lengths of pipes A and B are 100 m and 200 m, respectively. Assume the Darcy-Weisbach friction coefficient, \( f \), as 0.01 for both the pipes.


The ratio of head loss in Pipe-B to the head loss in Pipe-A is ____ (round off to the nearest integer).



Correct Answer: (A) 64
View Solution

Question 34:

Free residual chlorine concentration in water was measured to be 2 mg/l (as Cl\(_2\)). The pH of water is 8.5. By using the chemical equation given below, the HOCl concentration (in \(\mu\)moles/l) in water is ____ (round off to one decimal place).

\[ HOCl \rightleftharpoons H^+ + OCl^-, \quad pK = 7.50 \]

Atomic weight: Cl = 35.5

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 35:

A surveyor measured the distance between two points on the plan drawn to a scale of 1 cm = 40 m and the result was 468 m. Later, it was discovered that the scale used was 1 cm = 20 m.

The true distance between the points (in m) is ____ (round off to the nearest integer).

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 36:

Pick the \textbf{CORRECT} solution for the following differential equation:

\[ \frac{dy}{dx} = e^{x - y} \]

  • (A) \( y = \ln(e^x + Constant) \)
  • (B) \( \ln(y) = x + Constant \)
  • (C) \( \ln(y) = \ln(e^x) + Constant \)
  • (D) \( y = x + Constant \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( y = \ln(e^x + \text{Constant}) \)
View Solution

Question 37:

A circular tube of thickness 10 mm and diameter 250 mm is welded to a flat plate using 5 mm fillet weld along the circumference. Assume Fe410 steel and shop welding.

As per IS 800:2007, the torque that can be resisted by the weld (in kN.m) is ____ (round off to one decimal place).

  • (A) 65.1
  • (B) 78.1
  • (C) 156.2
  • (D) 130.2
Correct Answer: (A) 65.1
View Solution

Question 38:

The figure shows a propped cantilever with uniform flexural rigidity \( EI \) (in N.m\(^2\)) and subjected to a moment \( M \) (in N.m). Consider forces and displacements in the upward direction as positive.

Find the upward reaction at the propped support B (in N) when this support settles by \( \Delta \) (in metres).

  • (A) \( \frac{3M}{2L} - \frac{6EI}{L^3} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{8M}{3L} - \frac{2EI}{3L^3} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{3M}{2L} - \frac{3EI}{L^3} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{M}{L} - \frac{8EI}{L^3} \)
Correct Answer: (C) \( \frac{3M}{2L} - \frac{3EI}{L^3} \)
View Solution

Question 39:

Let the state of stress at a point in a body be the difference of two plane states of stress shown in the figure. Consider all the possible planes perpendicular to the x-y plane and passing through that point. The magnitude of the maximum compressive stress on any such plane is \( k \sigma_0 \), where \( k \) is equal to ____ (round off to one decimal place).





\newpage

  • (A) 3.0
  • (B) 2.1
  • (C) 1.7
  • (D) 1.5
Correct Answer: (B) 2.1
View Solution

Question 40:

Consider a reinforced concrete beam section of 350 mm width and 600 mm depth. The beam is reinforced with the tension steel of 800 mm\(^2\) area at an effective cover of 40 mm. Consider M20 concrete and Fe415 steel. Let the stress block considered for concrete in IS 456:2000 be replaced by an equivalent rectangular stress block, with no change in (a) the area of the stress block, (b) the design strength of concrete (at the strain of 0.0035), and (c) the location of neutral axis at flexural collapse. The ultimate moment of resistance of the beam (in kN.m) is ____ (round off to the nearest integer).

  • (A) 170
  • (B) 148
  • (C) 125
  • (D) 102
Correct Answer: (B) 148
View Solution

Question 41:

For a partially saturated soil deposit at a construction site, water content (\(w\)) is 15%, degree of saturation (\(S\)) is 67%, void ratio (\(e\)) is 0.6 and specific gravity of solids in the soil (\(G_s\)) is 2.67. Consider unit weight of water as 9.81 kN/m\(^3\).

To fully saturate 5 m\(^3\) of this soil, the required weight of water (in kN) will be ____ (round off to the nearest integer).

  • (A) 5
  • (B) 6
  • (C) 7
  • (D) 8
Correct Answer: (B) 6
View Solution

Question 42:

Consider flow in a long and very wide rectangular open channel. Width of the channel can be considered as infinity compared to the depth of flow. Uniform flow depth is 1.0 m. The bed slope of the channel is 0.0001. The Manning roughness coefficient value is 0.02. Acceleration due to gravity, \( g \), can be taken as 9.81 m/s\(^2\).

The critical depth (in m) corresponding to the flow rate resulting from the above conditions is ____ (round off to one decimal place).

  • (A) 0.4
  • (B) 0.3
  • (C) 0.6
  • (D) 0.1
Correct Answer: (B) 0.3
View Solution

Question 43:

Match the following in Column I with Column II.



  • (A) 1-D; 2-B; 3-E; 4-A
  • (B) 1-C; 2-B; 3-D; 4-A
  • (C) 1-D; 2-E; 3-B; 4-A
  • (D) 1-D; 2-B; 3-A; 4-E
Correct Answer: (A) 1-D; 2-B; 3-E; 4-A
View Solution

Question 44:

Consider the function given below and pick one or more CORRECT statement(s) from the following choices.
\[ f(x) = x^3 - \frac{15}{2} x^2 + 18x + 20 \]

  • (A) \( f(x) \) has a local minimum at \( x = 3 \)
  • (B) \( f(x) \) has a local maximum at \( x = 3 \)
  • (C) \( f(x) \) has a local minimum at \( x = 2 \)
  • (D) \( f(x) \) has a local maximum at \( x = 2 \)
Correct Answer: (A, D)
View Solution

Question 45:

Pick the CORRECT eigen value(s) of the matrix [A] from the following choices.

\[ [A] = \begin{bmatrix} 6 & 8
4 & 2 \end{bmatrix} \]

  • (A) 10
  • (B) 4
  • (C) -2
  • (D) -10
Correct Answer: (A), (C)
View Solution

Question 46:

In the pin-jointed truss shown in the figure, the members that carry zero force are identified. Which of the following options is/are zero-force members?



  • (A) BC
  • (B) EG
  • (C) FI
  • (D) JK
Correct Answer: (A), (D)
View Solution

Question 47:

In the context of shear strength of soil, which of the following statements is/are CORRECT?

  • (A) The unconfined compression test is a special case of the unconfined-undrained (UU) triaxial tests.
  • (B) The shear strength parameters obtained from the consolidated-drained (CD) triaxial tests should be used to analyse rapid construction in clay.
  • (C) Vane shear test is commonly used for determining in situ undrained strength of saturated clay soils.
  • (D) In an unconsolidated-undrained (UU) triaxial tests, the angle of internal friction (\(\phi\)) is equal to zero.
Correct Answer: (A), (C), (D)
View Solution

Question 48:

The drag force, \( F_D \), on a sphere due to a fluid flowing past the sphere is a function of viscosity, \( \mu \), the mass density, \( \rho \), the velocity of flow, \( V \), and the diameter of the sphere, \( D \). Pick the relevant (one or more) non-dimensional parameter(s) pertaining to the above process from the following list.

  • (A) \( \frac{F_D}{\rho V^2 D^2} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{\rho F_D}{V^2 D^2} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{\rho V D}{\mu} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{\mu \rho}{V D} \)
Correct Answer: (A), (C)
View Solution

Question 49:

A compound has a general formula \( C_aH_bO_cN_d \) and molecular weight 187. A 935 mg/l solution of the compound is prepared in distilled deionized water. The Total Organic Carbon (TOC) is measured as 360 mg/l (as C). The Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) and the Total Kjeldahl Nitrogen (TKN) are determined as 600 mg/l (as O\(_2\)) and 140 mg/l (as N), respectively (as per the chemical equation given below). Which of the following options is/are CORRECT?

  • (A) \( a = 6 \)
  • (B) \( b = 7 \)
  • (C) \( c = 5 \)
  • (D) \( d = 3 \)
Correct Answer: (a), (b), (c)
View Solution

Question 50:

The free flow speed of a highway is 100 km/h and its capacity is 4000 vehicle/h. Assume speed density relation is linear.
For a traffic volume of 2000 vehicle/h, choose all the possible speeds (in km/h) from the options given below (round off to two decimal places).

  • (A) 85.36
  • (B) 65.20
  • (C) 14.64
  • (D) 7.22
Correct Answer: (a), (c)
View Solution

Question 51:

A reinforced concrete beam has a support section with width of 300 mm and effective depth of 500 mm. The support section is reinforced with 3 bars of 20 mm diameter at the tension side. Two-legged vertical stirrups of 10 mm diameter and Fe415 steel at a spacing of 100 mm are provided as shear reinforcement. Assume that there is no possibility of diagonal compression failure at the section.


As per IS 456:2000, the maximum shear resisted by the vertical stirrups (in kN), as per limit state design, is ......... (round off to one decimal place).

Correct Answer: 283.6 kN
View Solution

Question 52:

A designer used plate load test to obtain the value of the bearing capacity factor \( N_t \). A circular plate of 1 m diameter was placed on the surface of a dry sand layer extending very deep beneath the ground. The unit weight of the sand is 16.66 kN/m\(^3\). The plate is loaded to failure at a pressure of 1500 kPa.

Considering Terzaghi's bearing capacity theory, the bearing capacity factor \( N_t \) is ......... (round off to the nearest integer).

Correct Answer: 300
View Solution

Question 53:

A 60 cm diameter well completely penetrates a confined aquifer of permeability \( 5 \times 10^{-4} \, m/s \). The length of the strainer (spanning the entire thickness of the aquifer) is 10 m. The drawdown at the well under steady state pumping is 1.0 m. Assume that the radius of influence for this pumping is 300 m.

The discharge from the well (in litres per minute) is ......... (round off to the nearest integer).

Correct Answer: 273
View Solution

Question 54:

The peak of flood hydrograph due to a 3-hour duration storm in a catchment is 180 m\(^3\)/s. The total rainfall depth is 6.6 cm. It can be assumed that the average infiltration loss is 0.2 cm/h. There are no other losses. The base flow is constant at a value of 30 m\(^3\)/s.

The peak value of the 3-hour unit hydrograph for this catchment (in m\(^3\)/s) is ......... (round off to the nearest integer).

Correct Answer: 25
View Solution

Question 55:

The analyses results of a water sample are given below. The non-carbonate hardness of the water (in mg/L) as CaCO\(_3\) is ......... (in integer).


Ca\(^{2+}\) = 150 mg/L as CaCO\(_3\)

Mg\(^{2+}\) = 40 mg/L as CaCO\(_3\)

Fe\(^{2+}\) = 10 mg/L as CaCO\(_3\)

Na\(^+\) = 50 mg/L as CaCO\(_3\)

K\(^+\) = 10 mg/L as CaCO\(_3\)

CO\(_3^{2-}\) = 120 mg/L as CaCO\(_3\)

HCO\(_3^{-}\) = 30 mg/L as CaCO\(_3\)

Cl\(^{-}\) = 50 mg/L as CaCO\(_3\); Other anions were not analysed.

Correct Answer: 50
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Question 56:

A community generates 1 million litres/day (MLD) of wastewater. This wastewater is treated using activated sludge process (ASP). The working volume of the aeration tank of the ASP is 250 m\(^3\), and the biomass concentration in the tank is 3000 mg/L. Analyses results showed that a biomass concentration of 10 mg/L is present in the treated effluent from the secondary sedimentation tank of the ASP. Sludge wastage from the system is at a rate of 5000 L/day with a biomass concentration of 10000 mg/L. The system is in steady state condition.

The biological sludge residence time (BSRT) of the system (in days) is ......... (round off to one decimal place).

Correct Answer: 12.5
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Question 57:

On a two-lane highway, a horizontal curve of radius 300 m is provided. The design speed is 80 km/h.


If the longest wheelbase of vehicle expected on this highway is 7 m, then the extra widening required (in m) is .......... (round off to two decimal places).

Correct Answer: 0.65
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Question 58:

If the Fore Bearing of the lines AB and BC are 60° and 122°, respectively, then the interior angle \( \angle ABC \) (in degrees) is .......... (round off to the nearest integer).

Correct Answer: 118°
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